bichitos sl

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  1. Reassortment or Rearrangement?

    Same cell must be infected with both viruses simultaneously (coinfection or superinfection):
    Same cell must be infected with both viruses simultaneously (coinfection or superinfection)
  2. Occurs only in RNA genomes.

    rearrangement or reassorment?
  3. Naked viruses:

    Fusion: Nucleocapsid enters=
    false! only enveloped viruses do this.
  4. Enveloped viruses:

    Direct Penetration =
    FALSE. enveloped viruses use fusion. Direct penetration belongs to naked viruese. And in direct penetreation only genome enters. capsid stays outside
  5. Endocytosis

    Naked viruses or enveloped viruses?
  6. What are the RNA virus with the only exception of not replicating in the cytoplasm?
    influenza and hep D
  7. All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except?
    • All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except Pox.
    • Here's a quick mnemonic:

    Pox replicates in the cytobox!
  8. WHAT IS THIS? nvolves three steps  assembly maturation releas
    The production of new virions involves three steps  assembly maturation releasE
  9. Most DNA viruses assemble in the nucleus =

    Most RNA viruses develop in the cytosol AND the nucleus =
    Most DNA viruses assemble in the nucleus =proteins translated from mRNAs on ribosomes in the cytosol enter the nucleus to assemble & package the genetic materialMost RNA viruses develop solely in the cytosol or the RNA is moved into the cytosol for assembly
  10. death of the cell – generally by lysis exocytosis – the virions are extruded through the cell membrane, but do not acquire any portion of the cell membrane

    this is associated with?
    NAKED viruses
  11. assembled & mature virions push their way through the cell membrane this creates a viral envelope with both viral & cellular proteins budding does not kill the cell

    naked or enveloped?
  12. cytopathic effects is?
    What happens when viruses are released from host cells?Cell damage
  13. fusion of infected cell with neighboring cells (infected or non-infected)results in the formation of large multi-nucleated cellscan be used as a mechanism for spread into neighboring cells
    Syncytia. Cytopathic effects
  14. Serological methods
    Utilize antibodies to identify the infectious agent.

    antigen (the virus) –
    anti-viral antibodies –

    indirect assays
    direct assays

    Serological methodsUtilize antibodies to identify the infectious agent.antigen (the virus) – direct assaysanti-viral antibodies – indirect assays
  15. colorimetric assays give examples
    ELISA & Western Blot are colorimetric assays in which an enzyme attached to the secondary Ab causes a color change when a substrate is added
  16. viruses are part of the taxonomic scheme
    NO. not part of the taxonomic scheme
  17. viruses depend on the metabolic pathways of the host cell =

    not to worry in to targeting ONLY virus-specific processes or structures
    • viruses depend on the metabolic pathways of the host cell
    • difficult to target ONLY virus-specific processes or structures
  18. Cause conjunctivitis and keratoconjunctivitis

     which virus?

    common sources of outbreaks?

    what are the Serotypes responsible for EKC. son 3 name
    Swimming pools are common sources for outbreaks Serotypes responsible for EKC include 8, 19 & 37.
  19. 8, 19 & 37 this serotypes are associated with which virus, and what disease does it cause?
    Adenovirus. Cause conjunctivitis and keratoconjunctivitis
  20. These viruses do not survive well on environmental surfaces

    which ones?
    HSV 1 AND 2
  21. Mucous membranes are the primary portal of entry for these viruses
    HSV 1 and HSV 2
  22. HSV infections

    Fibroblasts AND Epithelial cells, this is characteristic of latent infection =
    NO, lytic is characteristic of those. Latent is associated with neurons
  23. which virus is the leading infectious cause of infectious blindness in the US.
    Herpes is the leading infectious cause of infectious blindness in the US.
  24. It is a widespread skin infection resembling impetigo. TAW?
    Eczema herpeticum / Kaposi's varicellum eruption
  25. Most common cause of sporadic lethal encephalitis COMES from which virus?

    what is the key for succesful treatment?

    diagnostic method of choice?
    Herpes encephalitis

    Early diagnosis is key

     PCR = diagnostic method of choice
  26. epidermal multi-nucleated    cells and eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions TAW?
    Tzanck Smear this is part of the diagnosis for Herpes encephalitis.
  27. At any given time, all stages of the lesions are seen. TAW?
    At any given time, all stages of the lesions are seen.This is a hallmark of chickenpox infections.

  29. Examination of vesicle scrapings under the microscope shows Giant cells

    chickenpox or smallpox
  30. a viral enterotoxin is one of the proteins this is associated with what virus?
    Rotavirus, which is dsRNA, linear, segmented.
  31. are the largest, most complex viruses.
  32. Poxviruses
    are the largest, most complex viruses.
  33. Havrix, Vaqta, Epaxal, Avaxim, and Healive. TAW?
    HEPATITIS A vacunas.

    • Hep B. has a whole bunch as well.
    • Interferon-alpha (Intron A)
    • Pegylated Interferon (Pegasys
    • Lamivudine
    • Adefovir dipivoxil
    • Entecavir(MOST POTENT)
    • Telbivudine
    • Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate

    • Hep C.
    • Also has a whole bunch check table
  34. Which of the following drugs would you use to treat respiratory synctial virus?

    A. Imiquimoid
    B. Ribavirin
    C. Ganciclovir
    D. Cidofovir
    B. Ribavirin. Note that this ribavirin. MOA prevents nucleic acid synthesis. also prevents influenza A and B and HSV. However, they did not mention that it is also used for the treatment of Hep C, in combination with alpha interferon 2!
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. lymphadenopathy TAW?

    A. HSV1
    B. Smallpox
    C. Rubella
    D. Chickenpox
    E. Coronavirus
    C. Rubella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. which of the following viruses is transmitted by saliva?

    A. HHV 6,  HHV 7
    B. HPV
    C. Cytomegalovirus
    D. Rubivirus (rubella)
    A. HHV 6,  HHV 7 BUT remember that the one with saliva is the HHV6A, the HHV6B is the one with direct contact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Cimetidine would be use to treat what?
    Molluscom by oral route. Topically you can use, imiquimoid, canthrandinm salicilc acid, KOX, adapelene. For AIDS patients you use CIDOFOVIR
  38. intra-uterine


    A. wester equine encephalities
    B. japanese encephalities
    C. st louis encephalities
    D. west nile virus
    B. japanese encephalities.

    Direct person to person spread does not occur, except for rare
    instances of intra-uterine
    transmission. Although the virus does not cause sufficient viremia
    to infect mosquitoes, blood
    transfusion and organ transplantation are considered potential
    modes of transmission.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. most developed virus does not need animal reservoir?

    A. West nile
    B. St Louis
    D. Yellow fever
    E. Japanese
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The
    rodents act as reservoir
    of the virus.

    which virus?

    A. Lassa Virus
    B. Dengue
    C. West nile
    D. Japanese
    E. St Louis
    F. Yellow fever
    A. Lassa Virus.

    The Lassa fever virus is an arenavirus and is found in rodents found in West Africa. The
    rodents act as reservoir
    of the virus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. ducks, shorebirds and gulls an
    ideal natural reservoir for which virus?

    A. Rhinovirus
    B. St Louis
    C. West nile
    D. Lassa Virus
    E. Japanese
    F. Yellow fever
    G. Influenza
    H. Dengue
    G. Influenza
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. hydrophobia. TAW?
    RABIES! is the most characteristic sympom in patients
  43. direct fluorescent antibody test (dFA). TAW?

    a. Japanese
    b. St Louis
    c. Yellow fever
    d. Dengue
    e. West nile
    f. Lassa Virus
    g. Influenza
    h. Rhinovirus
    J. Rabies
    J. Rabies. To be certain that an animal is rabid, you have to perform a direct fluorescent antibody test (dFA) on the brain tissue, which requires that the animal be euthanized. The dFA test is the most rapid and reliable test for rabies and has been in use for more than 40 years.
  44. why in rabies post exposure prophylaxis works?
    Yes. The virus enters a host through a break in the skin (animal bite) or by inhalation of animal feces (from infected bats in a cave). Virus attaches to receptors of the peripheral nerve cells and travels through the axons before reaching the spinal cord. Thisjourney can take days or weeks which is why post exposure prophylaxis works.
  45. Negri bodies TAW?
    Lab diagnosis for rabies in neuron. Also RT-PCR detects viral RNA.
  46. If you get bitten by a rabid animal, what it would be the course of treatment. This is a tough one.  Hint, there are three elements, and the treatment depends on pre exposure or post exposure. Note that no name of drugs are needed to answer this.
    By protecting them from the bites of rabid animals. If however, the bite has occurred, the patient would need Postexposure prophylaxis (PEP), which consists of 3 elements:

    • wound care, a
    • dministration of rabies immunoglobulin (Ig),
    • &vaccination with the inactivated rabies virus.

    Vaccine doses given depend on whether it is given as pre-exposure or post-exposure:

    Pre-exposure doses given on days 0, 7, 21, 28

    Post-exposure doses given on days 0, 3, 7, and 14 (also given is rabies Ig on day 0).

    A person who has been previously vaccinated need only get 2 doses of rabies vaccine:

    one, right away and one on the 3rd day; rabies immunoglobulin is not needed.
  47. How many serotypes polio virus has?
  48. Virus is resistant to stomach acids, proteases & bile and even mild sewage treatment.

    which virus?
  49. polio serotype 1 causa que?
    Serotype 1 causes 85% of paralytic polio
  50. Como se transmite el polio? son cuatro rutas de transmision
    • Fecal-oral route:
    • poor hygiene,
    • ingestion of contaminated food/water
    • contact with infected hands/fomites
    • inhalation of infectious droplets
  51. what is one of the problems of the IPV vs OPV vaccines?
    IPV is innactive and does not produce or gives polio. However, the OPV is a live vaccine and it does produces polio 1 in 2.4 million
  52. A dose at 2 months
    A dose at 6-18 months
    A dose at 4 months
    A booster dose at 4-6 year

    Children get 4 doses of IPV, at these ages. This is for polio. Remember IPV is the inactive vaccine. There is also the active vaccine that is called OPV. The problem with OPV is that it can cause polio 1 in 2.4 million people
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bichitos sl
2013-09-23 21:23:26

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