Clin path final

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  1. How is a direct exam done to detect microfilaira?
    Single drop of blood on a slide, apply a coverslip and examine under 10X.
  2. Is the direct exam a concentration method for microfilaria?
    No, it uses less than 1ml of blood.
  3. How can you tell the difference in dirofilaria and dipetalonoma?
    • In the direct: dirofiliaria coil and uncoil, dipetalanoma glide across the slide with progressive movement. 
    • In a difil test: dirofilaria have a tapered cranial end and a straight tail, dipetalanoma have small hook like shapes.
  4. 1mL of blood is mixed with what substance in the modified knotts test?
    9mL of 2% formalin
  5. How is the modified knotts test done?
    • 1mL blood mixed with 9mL of 2% formalin
    • centrifuge 1300-1500 rpm for 5 mins
    • pour off supernatant
    • add stain
    • drop on slide, apply coverslip, examine under 40X.
  6. What objective is used for the difil test?
    10X
  7. List 5 reasons for occult HW disease.
    • immature adults
    • one sex/ sterile adults
    • ectopic adults
    • immune mediated clearance
    • monthly preventatives
  8. List reasons for a negative antigen test and a positive microfilaria test
    • treated with immiticide
    • blood transfusion
    • dipetolenema
    • in utero
  9. How is the HW antigen test performed?
    • Label patient name on test
    • draw up plasma/ serum in stem of pipette 
    • place 3 drops into the well
    • wait 5 minutes for results
  10. What has to be true about the antigen test for it to be positive?
    • procedural control line must be present, it may be a light blue
    • any visible red line on the test line indicates a positive result
  11. TRUE/FALSE: FeLV is an oncornavirus.
    TRUE
  12. How is FeLV transmitted?
    • contact with infected saliva through grooming, licking, biting, shared dishes
    • blood transfusions
    • bite wounds from fighting
    • in-utero
    • colostrum
  13. Which is more fragile outside the body? FeLV/FIV
    FIV
  14. What are some clinical signs of FeLV?
    • jaundice
    • pale mm's
    • emlarged lymph nodes
    • weight loss
    • anorexia
    • tumors
  15. The ELISA method tests for the ______ in FeLV
    Antigen
  16. What does a positive test result for FeLV mean?
    indicates viremia (virus in the blood)
  17. What is the transient stage of FeLV?
    Stage beyond the initial viremia, can hide in the bone marrow and invade other cells, cause clinical signs of immunosupression, virus can shed from the cat in this stage
  18. Leukemia
    malignant, progressive disease in which bone marrow and other blood forming organs produce increased numbers of immature or abnormal leukocytes which suppress the production of normal RBC's
  19. How is FIV transmitted?
    • deep bite wounds or scratches
    • in utero
  20. What does the ELISA method test for in FIV?
    Antibody
  21. What class of virus is FIV?
    Lentivirus
  22. What are some clinical signs of FIV
    • oral discharge
    • nasal discharge
    • lesions, tumors
  23. What is the main way FIV affects the cat?
    Supresses t helper cells, slowly depresses immune system
  24. What are some reasons an FIV test would indicate a positive result?
    • actual virus
    • vaccinated cats
    • maternal antibodies
  25. At what age is it recommended to test for FIV
    over 4 months so maternal antibodies are gone
  26. Why should we test animals for FeLV/FIV before vaccinating?
    • Vx will probably not be effective if the cat is already infected
    • Client perception
  27. What is the follow up test for FeLV? What information does it indicate?
    IFA; able to confirm if the animal is in the persistent stage
  28. Oliguria
    low output of urine
  29. Pollakisuria
    frequent urination, usually small volumes
  30. Uremia
    urea in the blood
  31. What are the four urine collection methods?
    • voided
    • manual expression
    • catheterization
    • cystocentesis
  32. Which stages of larvae can be detected with an anitbody test for feline HW?
    L3,L4,L5
  33. What types of samples can the chemistry machine use?
    • Serum
    • Heparinized plasma
  34. What speed is urine centrifuged?
    Speed 2 (1800 rpm) for 5 mins
  35. How many drops of Sedistain is used for the microscopic portion of the UA?
    2 drops
  36. What objective is used to examine a urine sample?
    • 10X to scan
    • 40X to examine and report findings
  37. Squamous cells seen in the UA originate from where?
    lower portion of urinary tract
  38. Describe transitional cells as seen in the UA. Where do they originate from?
    • smaller cells, large nucleus.
    • in bladder, beginning of urethra
  39. Describe renal cells as seen on the UA. Where do they originate?
    • very small cell with a large nucleus
    • from kidney or tubules of nephron
  40. In a urine sample with a high specific gravity, how would the RBC's look if present?
    the sample is concentrated so the RBC's would shrink
  41. It is normal to find <___ WBC's in the UA.
    10
  42. What are casts made up of?
    • protein
    • mucus
  43. What are the four types of casts?
    • Hyaline
    • Coarsely granular
    • Finely granular 
    • Waxy
  44. The presence of crystals in the urine is dependent on what factors?
    • pH
    • solubility
    • temp
    • concentration of urine
    • specific gravity
  45. Calcium oxalate dihydrate
    • seen in acidic urine
    • "X" seen in the middle
  46. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
    • indicate ethylene glycol poisoning 
    • "picket fence" apperance
  47. Struvite
    • AKA: magnesium ammonium phosphate 
    • "coffinlid apperance"
  48. _______ crystals are a normal finding in dalmations.
    Uric acid
  49. Calcium carbonate
    • "dumbell" shaped 
    • Normal in horse urine
  50. What is the formula for Mcmasters?
    (c1 + c2) X 100/ #g feces used
  51. What are three differences between a platelet count and a WBC count?
    • Examine under 40X rather than 10X
    • Look at the center primary square
    • Allow hemocytometer to sit in a moist petri dish for 10 mins
  52. when performing a platelet count you should use ____ light
    low
  53. How do you prepare a sample for a reticulocyte count?
    Place a volume ( typically 2-3 drops) of EDTA blood in a small test tube and an equal volume of NMB stain. Let sit 20 mins
  54. Where is fibrinogen made?
    Liver
  55. What can a high fibrinogen indicate?
    inflammation
  56. What can a low fibrinogen indicate?
    clotting disorders
  57. When performing a fibrinogen test, the second tube is placed in a water bath at ______ degrees Celsius.
    56
  58. When doing a skin scraping, examine the sample on ____ objective.
    10X
  59. What objective should an ear mite check be done on?
    10X
  60. Ear cytology samples should be examined under what objective?
    100X
  61. What is the main abnormality that we search for on an ear cytology?
    Malassezia (yeast)
  62. Toxocara
  63. Toxascaris
  64. Taenia
  65. Mcmasters should be viewed under ____ objective
    10X
  66. Calcitonin comes from what gland?
    Thyroid
  67. What four tests are run for large animal chemistries?
    • AST
    • GLU
    • BUN
    • GGT

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Author:
 lacamp11
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 239658
Filename:
 Clin path final
Updated:
2013-10-09 03:51:11
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clin path final
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