Single drop of blood on a slide, apply a coverslip and examine under 10X.
Is the direct exam a concentration method for microfilaria?
No, it uses less than 1ml of blood.
How can you tell the difference in dirofilaria and dipetalonoma?
In the direct: dirofiliaria coil and uncoil, dipetalanoma glide across the slide with progressive movement.
In a difil test: dirofilaria have a tapered cranial end and a straight tail, dipetalanoma have small hook like shapes.
1mL of blood is mixed with what substance in the modified knotts test?
9mL of 2% formalin
How is the modified knotts test done?
1mL blood mixed with 9mL of 2% formalin
centrifuge 1300-1500 rpm for 5 mins
pour off supernatant
add stain
drop on slide, apply coverslip, examine under 40X.
What objective is used for the difil test?
10X
List 5 reasons for occult HW disease.
immature adults
one sex/ sterile adults
ectopic adults
immune mediated clearance
monthly preventatives
List reasons for a negative antigen test and a positive microfilaria test
treated with immiticide
blood transfusion
dipetolenema
in utero
How is the HW antigen test performed?
Label patient name on test
draw up plasma/ serum in stem of pipette
place 3 drops into the well
wait 5 minutes for results
What has to be true about the antigen test for it to be positive?
procedural control line must be present, it may be a light blue
any visible red line on the test line indicates a positive result
TRUE/FALSE: FeLV is an oncornavirus.
TRUE
How is FeLV transmitted?
contact with infected saliva through grooming, licking, biting, shared dishes
blood transfusions
bite wounds from fighting
in-utero
colostrum
Which is more fragile outside the body? FeLV/FIV
FIV
What are some clinical signs of FeLV?
jaundice
pale mm's
emlarged lymph nodes
weight loss
anorexia
tumors
The ELISA method tests for the ______ in FeLV
Antigen
What does a positive test result for FeLV mean?
indicates viremia (virus in the blood)
What is the transient stage of FeLV?
Stage beyond the initial viremia, can hide in the bone marrow and invade other cells, cause clinical signs of immunosupression, virus can shed from the cat in this stage
Leukemia
malignant, progressive disease in which bone marrow and other blood forming organs produce increased numbers of immature or abnormal leukocytes which suppress the production of normal RBC's
How is FIV transmitted?
deep bite wounds or scratches
in utero
What does the ELISA method test for in FIV?
Antibody
What class of virus is FIV?
Lentivirus
What are some clinical signs of FIV
oral discharge
nasal discharge
lesions, tumors
What is the main way FIV affects the cat?
Supresses t helper cells, slowly depresses immune system
What are some reasons an FIV test would indicate a positive result?
actual virus
vaccinated cats
maternal antibodies
At what age is it recommended to test for FIV
over 4 months so maternal antibodies are gone
Why should we test animals for FeLV/FIV before vaccinating?
Vx will probably not be effective if the cat is already infected
Client perception
What is the follow up test for FeLV? What information does it indicate?
IFA; able to confirm if the animal is in the persistent stage
Oliguria
low output of urine
Pollakisuria
frequent urination, usually small volumes
Uremia
urea in the blood
What are the four urine collection methods?
voided
manual expression
catheterization
cystocentesis
Which stages of larvae can be detected with an anitbody test for feline HW?
L3,L4,L5
What types of samples can the chemistry machine use?
Serum
Heparinized plasma
What speed is urine centrifuged?
Speed 2 (1800 rpm) for 5 mins
How many drops of Sedistain is used for the microscopic portion of the UA?
2 drops
What objective is used to examine a urine sample?
10X to scan
40X to examine and report findings
Squamous cells seen in the UA originate from where?
lower portion of urinary tract
Describe transitional cells as seen in the UA. Where do they originate from?
smaller cells, large nucleus.
in bladder, beginning of urethra
Describe renal cells as seen on the UA. Where do they originate?
very small cell with a large nucleus
from kidney or tubules of nephron
In a urine sample with a high specific gravity, how would the RBC's look if present?
the sample is concentrated so the RBC's would shrink
It is normal to find <___ WBC's in the UA.
10
What are casts made up of?
protein
mucus
What are the four types of casts?
Hyaline
Coarsely granular
Finely granular
Waxy
The presence of crystals in the urine is dependent on what factors?
pH
solubility
temp
concentration of urine
specific gravity
Calcium oxalate dihydrate
seen in acidic urine
"X" seen in the middle
Calcium oxalate monohydrate
indicate ethylene glycol poisoning
"picket fence" apperance
Struvite
AKA: magnesium ammonium phosphate
"coffinlid apperance"
_______ crystals are a normal finding in dalmations.
Uric acid
Calcium carbonate
"dumbell" shaped
Normal in horse urine
What is the formula for Mcmasters?
(c1 + c2) X 100/ #g feces used
What are three differences between a platelet count and a WBC count?
Examine under 40X rather than 10X
Look at the center primary square
Allow hemocytometer to sit in a moist petri dish for 10 mins
when performing a platelet count you should use ____ light
low
How do you prepare a sample for a reticulocyte count?
Place a volume ( typically 2-3 drops) of EDTA blood in a small test tube and an equal volume of NMB stain. Let sit 20 mins
Where is fibrinogen made?
Liver
What can a high fibrinogen indicate?
inflammation
What can a low fibrinogen indicate?
clotting disorders
When performing a fibrinogen test, the second tube is placed in a water bath at ______ degrees Celsius.
56
When doing a skin scraping, examine the sample on ____ objective.
10X
What objective should an ear mite check be done on?
10X
Ear cytology samples should be examined under what objective?
100X
What is the main abnormality that we search for on an ear cytology?
Malassezia (yeast)
Toxocara
Toxascaris
Taenia
Mcmasters should be viewed under ____ objective
10X
Calcitonin comes from what gland?
Thyroid
What four tests are run for large animal chemistries?