Bel-Rea 1st Mini CPE

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Author:
LRussellCVT
ID:
242947
Filename:
Bel-Rea 1st Mini CPE
Updated:
2013-10-28 18:29:23
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Bel Rea CPE Veterinary Techology 1st Mini
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Description:
Medical Terminology Veterinary Science I & II Sterile Tech Anatomy and Physiology I & II Hematology Microbiology Parasitology
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  1. Define:
    Anatomy
    The study of form and structure
  2. Define:
    Physiology
    The study of function
  3. What does the dorsal plane divide on the body?
    Dorsal and Ventral aspects
  4. Palmar refers to what portion of what limb?
    Distal portion of the front limb, caudal to the carpus
  5. Define:
    Homeostasis
    Maintains physiological limits within the body
  6. What are the functions of the liver? (4 of them)
    • 1. Filtration
    • 2. Storage
    • 3. Synthesis
    • 4. Detoxification
  7. What are the 4 sphincters in the body? (Cranial to Caudal)
    • 1. Cardiac
    • 2. Pyloric
    • 3. Ileocecal Valve
    • 4. Anus
  8. What type of muscle is the diaphragm made up of?
    Skeletal muscle
  9. What is the gestation time for a dog?
    63 days
  10. Dental Formula for a Dog
    2[I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3] = 42 teeth
  11. Dental Formula for a Cat
    2[I3/3 C1/2 P3/1 M1/1] = 30 teeth
  12. Dental formula for a Horse
    2[I3/3 C1/1 P3-4/3 M3/3] 40-42 teeth
  13. Vetebral Formula for a Dog & Cat
    C7 T13 L7 S3 Ca3-24
  14. Vertebral Formula for a Horse
    C7 T18 L6 S5 Ca15-21
  15. A white plasma color indicates? What are the causes?
    • Lipemia
    • Hypothyroidism
    • DM
    • Post Prandial
  16. A red plasma color indicates? What causes it?
    • Hemolytic Plasma
    • IV Hemolysis
    • Too Small Needle with too much Negative Back Pressure
    • Shaking
  17. A yellow plasma color indicates? What causes it? Is it normal in herbivores (horses, cattle, sheep)
    • Icteric Plasma
    • Biliary Stasis
    • EV Hemolysis
    • Carotenes

    Yes, its normal due to carotenes in their diet.
  18. A Green Top Tube contains?
    It's used to run what?
    • Contains: Heparin
    • Runs: Blood Gas Analysis
  19. A Purple Top Tube contains?
    It's used to run what?
    • Contains: EDTA
    • Runs: CBC
  20. A Red Top Tube contains?
    It's used to run what?
    • Contains: Nothing
    • Use: Blood Chemistries
  21. A Blue Top Tube contains?
    It's used to run what?
    • Contains: Na Citrate (Sodium Citrate)
    • Runs: Coagulation Studies
  22. A Grey Top Tube contains?
    It's used to run what?
    • Contains: Oxylate
    • Runs: Glucose Studies
  23. A Tiger Top Tube contains?
    It's used to run what?
    • Contains: Gel
    • Runs: Biochemistries
  24. What size needle would you use for medium sized dogs? What color is it?
    Where is the ideal collection area on a dog?
    • Size: 20ga
    • Area: Jugular
  25. What size needle would you use for cats? What color is it?
    Where is the ideal collection area on a cats?
    • Size: 22ga
    • Color: Blue
    • Location: Jugular
  26. What size needle would you use for Pigs? What color is it?
    Where is the ideal collection area on a Pigs?
    • Size: 22ga
    • Color: Blue
    • Location: Ear
  27. What size needle would you use for sheep? What color is it?
    Where is the ideal collection area on a sheep?
    • Size: 20ga
    • Color: Pink
    • Location: Jugular
  28. What size needle would you use for horses? What color is it?
    Where is the ideal collection area on a horses?
    • Size:18ga
    • Color: Green
    • Location: Jugular
  29. What size needle would you use for cows? What color is it?
    Where is the ideal collection area on a cows?
    • Size: 20ga/18ga
    • Color: Pink/Green
    • Location: Tail
  30. What size needle would you use for birds? What color is it?
    Where is the ideal collection area on a birds?
    • Size: 25ga
    • Color: Red
    • Location: Jugular
  31. What two things do you look for on a blood film on 10x in the Body?
    • Agglutination
    • Rouleaux
  32. What things do you look for on 10x in the feathered edge?
    • WBC distribution
    • Abnormal Cells
    • Platelet clumping
    • Microfilaria
  33. Is vWB dz inherited or acquired?
    Inherited
  34. Toxic Change in Neutrophils
    • Dohle Bodies
    • Basophilic Cytoplasim
    • Cytoplasm vacuolization
    • Toxic azurophilic granules
    • All found in cytoplasm of seg
  35. What is the procedure for DiffQuick?
    • Fixative: 5 one second dips
    • Eosinophilic: 5 one second dips
    • Basophilic: 7-10 one second dips
    • Rinse with H20
  36. What is another name for polychromatophils?
    Reticulocytes
  37. What is the procedure for Wrights Stain?
    • Wrights: 1-3 min
    • Buffer w/ one pipette of Wrights Stain: 1 min
    • Distilled H20: 7-10 one sec dips
  38. What Does The Following Stand For:
    P/E
    Physical Exam
  39. What Does The Following Stand For:
    ER
    Emergency Room
  40. What Does The Following Stand For:
    ISO
    Isolation Unit
  41. What Does The Following Stand For:
    DMH
    Domestic Medium Hair (Cat)
  42. What Does The Following Stand For:
    OR
    Operating Room
  43. What Does The Following Stand For:
    FUO
    Fever of Unknown Origin
  44. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Pt
    Patient
  45. What Does The Following Stand For:
    DHLPP-C
    • Distemper
    • Hepatitis
    • Leptospirosis
    • Parvovirus
    • Parainfluenza
    • Corona Virus
  46. What Does The Following Stand For:
    FIV
    Feline Immunodeficiency Virus
  47. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PSS
    Physiological Saline Solution
  48. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Hx
    History
  49. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Fx
    Fracture
  50. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Ag
    Antigen
  51. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Ab
    Antibody
  52. What Does The Following Stand For:
    GDV
    Gastric Dilatation Volvulus (Bloat)
  53. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Gtt
    Drops
  54. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Ad. Lib
    As needed
  55. What Does The Following Stand For:
    EOD
    Every Other Day
  56. What Does The Following Stand For:
    SC
    Scrotal Circumference
  57. What Does The Following Stand For:
    SID
    Once a Day
  58. What Does The Following Stand For:
    BID
    Twice a Day
  59. What Does The Following Stand For:
    TID
    Three Times a Day
  60. What Does The Following Stand For:
    QID
    Four times a day
  61. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CHF
    Congestive Heart Failure
  62. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PDA
    Patent Ductus Arteriosis
  63. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CPR
    Cardiopulmonary Resuscition
  64. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IBR
    Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
  65. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PCV
    Packed Cell Volume
  66. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Lpf
    Low Powered Field
  67. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Hpf
    High Powered Field
  68. What Does The Following Stand For:
    AIHA
    Auto-Immune Hemolytic Anemia
  69. What Does The Following Stand For:
    ELISA
    Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay
  70. What Does The Following Stand For:
    WEE
    Western Equine Encephalitis
  71. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IVC
    Intavenous Catheter
  72. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Hgb
    Hemaglobin
  73. What Does The Following Stand For:
    TP
    Total Protein
  74. What Does The Following Stand For:
    ECG
    Electrocardiogram
  75. What Does The Following Stand For:
    DI
    Diabetes Insipidus
  76. What Does The Following Stand For:
    DM
    Diabetes Mellitus
  77. What Does The Following Stand For:
    WNL
    Within Normal Limits
  78. What Does The Following Stand For:
    ADH
    Antidiuretic Hormone
  79. What Does The Following Stand For:
    SOAP
    • Subjective
    • Objective
    • Assessment
    • Plan
  80. What Does The Following Stand For:
    HBC
    Hit By Car
  81. What Does The Following Stand For:
    FVRCP
    Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis Calici Virus Panleukopenia
  82. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Bx
    Biopsy
  83. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IVDD
    Intraverterbral Disk Disease
  84. What Does The Following Stand For:
    HR
    Heart Rate
  85. What Does The Following Stand For:
    NAVTA
    National Association of Veterinary Technicians of America
  86. What Does The Following Stand For:
    TPLO
    Triple Pelvic Leveling Osteotomy
  87. What Does The Following Stand For:
    FLUTD
    Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease
  88. What Does The Following Stand For:
    K
    Potassium
  89. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Na
    Sodium
  90. What Does The Following Stand For:
    SQ
    Subcutaneous
  91. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IM
    Intramuscular
  92. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IV
    Intravascular
  93. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IO
    Intraosseous
  94. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IP
    Intraparatoneal
  95. What Does The Following Stand For:
    LTT
    Lavender Top Tube (EDTA)
  96. What Does The Following Stand For:
    RTT
    Red Top Tube
  97. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PO
    By Mouth
  98. What Does The Following Stand For:
    NPO
    Nothing by mouth
  99. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CRF
    Chronic Renal Failure
  100. What Does The Following Stand For:
    GI
    Gastrointestinal
  101. What Does The Following Stand For:
    DKA
    Diabetic Ketoacidosis
  102. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PRN
    As needed
  103. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PU/PD
    Polyuria/Polydypsia
  104. What Does The Following Stand For:
    ACL
    Anterior Cruciate Ligament
  105. What Does The Following Stand For:
    THR
    Total Hip Replacement
  106. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CRT
    • Capillary Refill Time
    • Normal (<2 sec)
  107. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PU
    Perineal Urethrostomy (Block Tom sx)
  108. What Does The Following Stand For:
    PVC
    Premature Ventricular Complex
  109. What Does The Following Stand For:
    IMHA
    Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia
  110. What Does The Following Stand For:
    MCT
    Mast Cell Tumor
  111. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CNS
    Central Nervous System
  112. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CSF
    Cerebral Spinal Fluid
  113. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CVA
    Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)
  114. What Does The Following Stand For:
    EEG
    Electroencephalogram
  115. What Does The Following Stand For:
    AD
    Right Ear
  116. What Does The Following Stand For:
    AS
    Left Ear
  117. What Does The Following Stand For:
    AU
    Both Ears
  118. What Does The Following Stand For:
    OD
    Right Eye
  119. What Does The Following Stand For:
    OS
    Left Eye
  120. What Does The Following Stand For:
    OU
    Both Eyes
  121. What Does The Following Stand For:
    BSE
    Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad Cow)
  122. What Does The Following Stand For:
    CAE
    Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis Virus
  123. What Does The Following Stand For:
    TEME (TME)
    Thromboembolitic Meningoencephalitis
  124. What Does The Following Stand For:
    LLQ
    LUQ
    RLQ
    RUQ
    • Left Lower Quadrant
    • Left Upper Quadrant
    • Right Lower Quadrant
    • Right Upper Quadrant
  125. What Does The Following Stand For:
    RBC
    Red Blood Cell
  126. What Does The Following Stand For:
    WBC
    White Blood Cell
  127. What Does The Following Stand For:
    Tx
    Treatment
  128. Define:
    Hematoma
    Mass or Collection in the blood
  129. Define:
    Sarcoma
    Malignant tumor arising from connective tissue
  130. Define:
    Pericardium
    Membrane surrounding the heart
  131. Define:
    Rhinitis
    Inflammation of the nose
  132. Define:
    Oncology
    The study of tumors
  133. Define:
    Carcinogenic
    Pertaining to/producing cancer
  134. Define:
    Neurology
    The study of nerves
  135. Define:
    Electroencephalogram
    Record of electricity of the brain
  136. Define:
    Transverse Plane
    Dives the body into cranial and caudal halves
  137. Define:
    Metabolism
    Total processes of building up and breaking down food in the cell to create energy and protein synthesis
  138. Define:
    Larynx
    Voice Box
  139. Define:
    Neoplasm
    New formation
  140. Define:
    Pleural Cavity
    Space between the pleural membranes and surrounding each lung
  141. Define:
    Chondrosarcoma
    Malignant tumor of the cartilage arising from connective tissue
  142. Define:
    Dyspnea
    Difficult breathing
  143. Define:
    Gluconeogensis
    Production of new glucose
  144. Define:
    Stomatitis
    Inflammation of the mouth
  145. Define:
    Anastomosis
    Any surgical connection between two parts
  146. Define:
    Blepharoplasty
    Surgical repair of the eyelid
  147. Define:
    Lithotripsy
    To crush stones
  148. Define:
    Proptosis
    Forward protusion of the eye
  149. Define:
    Choleocystectomy
    Removal of the gall bladder
  150. Define:
    Fetotomy
    Surgical excision of a fetus through the vagina
  151. Define:
    Lagomorph
    Rabbir
  152. Define:
    Caprine
    Sheep
  153. Define:
    Equine
    Horse
  154. Define:
    Bovine
    Cattle
  155. Define:
    Gravid
    Pregnant
  156. Define:
    Anaphylaxis
    Increased or exaggerated sensativity
  157. Define:
    Aplastic Anemia
    Failure of blood cell production due to aplasia of bone marrow cells
  158. Define:
    Diaphysis
    Mid portion of the bone
  159. Define:
    Foramen
    Opening in the middle of the bone for veins and vessles
  160. Define:
    Ligament
    Connective tissue connecting BONE TO BONE
  161. Define:
    Tendon
    Connective tissue connecting muscle to bone
  162. Define:
    Arthrodesis
    Process of binding joints together
  163. Define:
    Myalgia
    Muscle pain
  164. Define:
    Diciduous Teeth
    Baby teeth
  165. Define:
    Entropion
    Inward turning of the eyelid
  166. Define:
    Hypercapnea
    Excessive amounts of CO2 in the blood
  167. Define:
    Nystagmus
    Involuntary back and forth movement of the eyes
  168. Anisocora
    Unequal pupil size
  169. Ataxia
    No coordination
  170. Gastropexy
    Surgical fixation of the stomach to the abdominal wall
  171. Pruritis
    Itiching
  172. Encephalomyelitis
    Inflammation of the spinal cord and brain
  173. Atelectasis
    Incomplete expansion of the alveoli
  174. Emetic
    Drug given to induce vomiting if a toxin has been ingested
  175. Colic
    • Acute abdominal pain.
    • Not a disease condition
  176. Peristalsis
    Wavelike movements of the tubes in the GI tract alimentary canal
  177. What is the process for Gram Staining?
    • 1. Crystal Violet: 1 Min
    • 2. Gram's Iodine: 1 Min
    • 3. Decolorizer: Use until slide runs clear
    • 4. Safranin: 1 min
  178. What color are gram positive?
    Stain Purple
  179. What color are gram negatives?
    Stain Pink
  180. How does bacteria replicate?
    By binary fission
  181. What are the two types of pathogens?
    • 1. Opportunistic
    • 2. Obligate
  182. Define:
    Nosocomial Infection
    Hospital acquired infection or disease
  183. Define:
    Endemic
    • Organism lives continuously in a certain geographic location
    • Constant present
  184. Define:
    Epidemic
    Sudden outbreak or number or increase in cases
  185. Define: 
    Pandemic
    • An epidemic occuring over a wide area.
    • Crossing international lines
    • Large amounts of people
  186. Define:
    Reservoir
    • A permanent place to reside.
    • Human, animal, soil, water, plants
  187. What are the two types of immunity? What lymphs are involved?
    1. Hummoral Immunity B Lymphs

    2. Cellular Immunity T Lymphs
  188. What is the promary type of media used?
    • TSA
    • Trypticase Soy Agar
  189. Describe:
    GPCOC
    • -Purple Circles
    • -Streptococcus
    • -Staphylococcus
    • -Can be normal flora
  190. Common Name for:
    Step Pyogenes
    • Strep Throat
    • Scarlet Fever
  191. Common name for:
    Strep agalactiae
    Bovine Mastitis
  192. Common name for :
    Step Equi
    Equine Strangles
  193. Strap canis causes what?
    • Cystitis 
    • Otitis
  194. What causes Pneumonia in humans?
    Strep pneumoniae
  195. What GPCOC causes:
    MRSA, Bovine Mastitis, Skin Infections,Otitis, Osteomyelitis, Bacteremia
    It's resistant to penicillin
    Staph aureus
  196. What is the name for "Greasy Pig Disease"?
    Staph hyicus
  197. Why do we use a catalase test?
    What does a positive test look like, what does it mean?
    • To differentiate between Staph and Strep
    • + Test: Bubbles = Staph
  198. Why do we do a coagulase test?
    What reagent do we use?
    How long to we incubate for?
    What does a positive test look like, what does it mean?
    • To determine if the GPCOC Cat+ is pathogenic or not pathogenic.
    • Use: Rabbit Plasma
    • Incubate: 24 hours
    • +: Clot = Pathogenic
  199. What bacteria is club shaped?
    Cornebacterium
  200. What bacteria causes Pigeon Fever?
    Pseudotuberculosis
  201. What causes bronchopneumonia in foals?
    Rhodococcus equi
  202. How is a motility test preformed?
    • MIO motility media
    • Use needle to pick up colonies
    • Stap into media
    • Lid loose for 24 hours
    • Cloudy= Positive
  203. How is a Urease Test preformed?
    • Urea agar slant
    • Use loop to collect colonies
    • Streak Slant
    • Lid loose for 24 hours
    • Hot Pink = Positive
  204. What does Bacillus cause?
    Anthrax
  205. What does Clostridium cause in:
    Avian
    Horses

    Is there a safe use in humans for a cosmetic procedure? Whats the procedure?
    • Avian: Limber Neck
    • Horses: Shaker Foal
    • Botox for wringles
  206. What bacteria causes Tetanus?
    What is the key effect?
    • Tetani
    • Lockjaw
  207. What bacteria causes Black Leg Disease?
    Chauvei
  208. What does Novyi cause?
    Blacks Disease
  209. What bacteria causes Lumpy Jaw?
    Actinomyces
  210. What is a common GNROD found as normal flora in intestines and colons?
    What does it cause when it is not part of normal flora in calves?
    E. Coli (Escherichia)

    Calf Scours
  211. What does Klebsiella cause in the following species?
    Dogs
    Mares
    Foals
    Cattle
    • Dogs: UTI
    • Mares: Cervicitis
    • Foals: Pneumonia
    • Cattle: Mastitis
  212. What GNROD smells like ammonia, and is "Swarmy and Stinky?"
    Proteus
  213. Is salmonella zoonotic?
    What is the cause of acquiring it?
    What species seem to be susceptible?
    • Zoonotic: Yes
    • Acquiring: Fecal Oral Route
    • Susceptible: Horses
  214. What causes the Plague?
    What are the 3 forms?

    What is the reservoir host?

    What is the vector?
    Yersenia pestis

    • 1. Bubonic
    • 2. Septiscemic
    • 3. Pneumonic

    • Host: Praire dogs
    • Vector: Flea
  215. How is a Oxidase test preformed?
    • Place 1-2gtt oxidase on filter paper
    • Smear with loop onto filter paper

    • + = Dark Color Change
    • - = No Color Change
  216. A pink test on a MacConkey's Agar test means what?
    Positive Enteric GNROD
  217. What causes Bangs disease in cattle?
    Brucella abortus
  218. What is the name for Kennel Cough?
    Bordetella bronchiseptica
  219. What does pasturella cause in the following species?

    Cattle
    Rabbits
    Birds
    • Cattle
    • Shipping Fever (Bronchopneumonia)
    • IBR (Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis)

    • Rabbits
    • Snuffles

    • Birds
    • Avian Cholera
  220. What non-enteric GNROD causes Infectious bovine ketatconjunctivitis?
    What is the more common name?
    Moraxella bovis

    Pink Eye
  221. What does Francisella tularensis cause?
    Rabbit Fever
  222. What does pseudomonas aeruginoa cause in the following species?
    Horses
    Cattle
    Dogs/Cats
    What does it smell like?
    • Horses: Abortions
    • Cattle: Mastitis
    • Dogs/Cats: Dermatitis, Cystitis

    Sweet and Fruity Odor
  223. What does campylobacter look like on a _____________________ slide? (Answer and fill in the blank)

    What does it cause in Hamsters?
    • Cytology slide
    • Look: Flying seagulls

    Hamsters: Campylobacter jejuni: Wet Tail
  224. Is leptospira zoonotic?

    What are the 4 serovars?

    Whats the reservoir host? How is it shed?

    What does is cause in the following species?
    Dog
    Horse
    Cattle
    Pigs
    Zoonotic: Yes

    • 1. Canicola
    • 2. Icterohemorrhagiae
    • 3. Pomona
    • 4. Grippotyphosa

    Host: Rodents Shed in Urine

    • Dog: Renal and Hepatic Damage
    • Horse: Moon Blindness
    • Cattle: Abortions
    • Pigs: Abortions
  225. What causes Lyme disease?


    Reservoir Host?
    Vector?

    Is there an immunization available?
    Borrelia burgdorferi

    Host: White footed mouse

    Vector: Ixodes (deer) tick

    Immunization available for humans and dogs
  226. What does mycobacterium cause in humans?

    Is it zoonotic? If yes, between what species?
    Tuberculosis

    Reverse zoonosis between non-human primates and humans.
  227. What does chlamydophila cause with the following strains? What species does each effect?
    Felis
    Psittaci
    • Chlamydophila felis: Chlamydia in Cats
    • Chlamydophila psittaci: Parrot fever in birds
  228. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and Tick Fever is caused by what?
    Rickettsia rickettsii
  229. What causes Tropical Canine Pancytopenia?

    What is the vector?

    What happens to the dog?
    Ehrlichia canis

    • Vector: Tick
    • Bone marrow suppressions
  230. What causes Patomic Horse Fever?

    Is an immunization available?
    Ehrlichia risticii

    Immunization is available
  231. Bartonella henselae causes:

    The vector is?
    Cat scratch disease

    Vector: Flea
  232. What does Mycoplasma bovis cause in cattle?
    • Pneumonia
    • Mastitis
    • Arthritis
    • Conjunctivitis
  233. FIA stands for:
    It is causes by:
    Vector:
    Feline Infectious Anemia

    Cause: Mycoplasma haemofelis

    Vector: Fleas & Ticks
  234. What pathogenic inclusion on a canine RBC does look like a cracked egg?

    What is the treatment?
    Micoplasma haemocanis

    Tx: Tetracyclines
  235. What fungi causes Thrush in humans, and causes Sour Crop in birds?
    Candida albicans
  236. What fungi would you use the _______ tape prep to see purple peanut men?
    Scotch Tape Prep

    Malassezia pachydermatis
  237. What fungi looks like blue canoos under a microscope? What is the common name?
    Is it zoonotic?
    • Dermatophytes
    • Ringworm

    Zoonotic: Yes
  238. How do you diagnose ringworm?
    Woods lamp
  239. What are the 6 steps of replication for a virus?
    • 1. Attachement
    • 2. Penetration
    • 3. Uncoating
    • 4. Replication
    • 5. Virus Assembly
    • 6. Viral release
  240. What virus causes Rabies?

    Is there a vaccination?

    Is it zoonotic?

    How long until an infected animal dies?
    Rhabdoviridae

    Vaccination: Yes, required by law

    Zoonotic: Yes

    Death: 2-7 days
  241. FeLV stands for:
    It's caused by?
    Is a vaccine available?
    Feline Leukemia Virus

    Caused by: Retroviridae

    Vaccine: Available
  242. FIV stands for:

    Can a patient be cured?

    Is a vaccine available?
    Feline Immunodeficency Virus

    Patient cannot be cured, virus is fatal.

    Vaccine: Available
  243. What causes Hard Pad Disease? What is the common name?

    Is a vaccination available?
    Can a patient be cured?
    • Paramyxoviridae
    • Canine Distemper

    Vaccination: Available

    • Yes can be cured 
  244. Besides Distemper, what else can paramyxoviridae cause in canines?
    (Hint: DHLPP-C)
    Parainfluenza
  245. What does the "C" stand for in the canine vaccination; DHLPP-C?

    What causes this virus?
    • Canine Corona Virus
    • Caronaviridae
  246. FIP stands for:
    What virus causes it?

    Is there a vaccine available?
    Feline Infectious Peritonitis

    Coronaviridae

    Vaccine: Available
  247. Parvo Virus is caused by:
    What are main effects of this virus?
    Do we see this virus in geriatrics, adults or puppies?

    Can the patient be cured?
    Is a vaccine available?

    How do you test for Parvo?
    Parvoviridae

    Diarrhea with a metallic smell

    Seen in puppies

    Yes, but the treatment can be expensive

    Vaccine: Available

    ELISA test using a fecal sample
  248. What is the feline strain of parvoviridae?
    What is the common name?
    Feline panleukopenia

    Feline Distemper
  249. FVR stands for:

    Caused by:

    Is a vaccine available?
    Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis

    Caused by: Herpesviridae

    Vaccine: Available
  250. Canine Herpes Virus is caused by:
    Herpesviridae
  251. In the other version of DHLPP-C; DA2LPP-C, what does the A2 stand for?

    What is this vaccinating patients against?
    Canine Adenovirus Type 2 

    • Infectious tracheobronchitis
    • Kennel cough serovar
  252. WEE, EEE, and VEE stand for?
    They cause what in what species?

    Transmitted by what vector?
    • Western Equine Encephalomyelitis
    • Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis
    • Venezuelan Equine Encepalomyelitis

    Causes: Equine encephalomyelitis in horses

    Vector: Mosquito
  253. What causes swamp fever in horses?

    Is there a vaccine?
    What is the test that is preformed to determine if a patient is positive? What sample do they need?
    Retroviridae

    Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)

    There is no vacinne

    Coggins Test using blood
  254. Normal RBC value for a:
    Dog
    Cat
    Dogs: 5-10 x 10^6 RBC/UL

    Cats: 5-11 x 10^6 RBC/UL
  255. Normal WBC value for a:
    Dog
    Cat
    Dogs: 6-17,000 WBC/UL

    Cats: 5.5-19,000 WBC/UL
  256. Normal PCV for a:
    Dog
    Cat
    Dogs: 37-55%

    Cats: 35-45%
  257. Normal TP for a:
    Dog

    Cat
    Dogs: 5.0-7.0g/dl

    Cats:5.0-8.0g/dl
  258. Normal BUN for a:
    Dog
    Cat
    Dogs: 7-27mg/dl

    Cats: 16-36mg/dl
  259. Normal Creatinine for a:
    Dog

    Cat
    Dogs: 0.5-1.8mg/dl

    Cats: 0.8-2.4mg/dl
  260. Normal GLU for a:
    Dog

    Cat
    Dogs:77-125mg/dl

    Cats:76-145mg/dl
  261. Normal USG for a:
    Dog

    Cat
    Dogs: 1.025

    Cats: 1.045
  262. Normal Blood PH
    7.4
  263. Normal plt count
    200-500,000 plt/ul
  264. Normal:
    Temperature
    Respiratory Rate
    Heart Rate
    • Temperature
    • 101.5oF +/- 1o

    • Respiratory Rate
    • Dog: 15-30 RPM
    • Cat: 20-30 RPM

    • Heart Rate
    • Dog: >30# 60-160 bpm
    •        <30# 160-180bpm
    • Cat: 140-240 bpm
  265. What 3 tests are preformed for a fecal exam? How do you do them?
    • 1. Direct smear: Fleck of feces, mix with 2-3gtt of PSS on slide. Add cover slip. Scan. Looking for Giardia and can see larvae. 
    • 2. Floatation: pea size amout of feces, fill devise with Fecasol, place coverslip on meniscus. Wait 10 minutes. put Coverslip on slide and scan.
    • 3. Gross Exam: Overall appearance of feces. (diarrhea, blood, hair, ect)
  266. What are you looking for on 40x on a fecal direct smear?
    Giardia
  267. If you don't find anything on 10x, and you can't ID anything on 40x what do you report out?
    NSATT
  268. What are some "pseudoparasites" you'd see in a fecal?
    • Pollen
    • Hair
    • Air Bubbles
  269. Define:
    Obligate Host
    Must live in or on a host to live
  270. Define:
    Facultative host
    Parasite can be free living or obligate
  271. Define:
    Final Host
    An animal that harbors the adult stage of the parasite
  272. Define:
    HSS
    Only one animal can harbor the adult state of the parasite
  273. Define:
    HSP
    More than one animal can harbor the adult stage of the parasite
  274. Define:
    Periodic Parasite
    Parasite is in/on or off the horse throughout it's lifecycle
  275. Define:
    PPP
    Pre-patent period: the time required for the parasite to become reproductively mature
  276. Define:
    Stationary Parasite
    Parasite attached somewhere on the host and stays there
  277. Define:
    Internal Parasites
    Permanent parasite
  278. Define:
    Indirect lifecycles
    Parasite needs at least on intermediate host
  279. Define:
    PHS
    Public Health Significance: capable of transmitting to humans
  280. Define:
    Monecious
    Parasite with both sex organs and both function
  281. Define:
    Coprophagic
    Ingestion of feces
  282. Define:
    Operculated
    One of both sides of the ova will be protruding
  283. What two forms of Giardia can be seen?
    • 1. Cyst - harder to see, some media may burst the cells
    • 2. Trophozoite: kite shaped, has 8 flagella
  284. ID this parasite:



    What is the common name:
    What is the intermediate host:
    What is the final host:
    Pathogenesis:
    TX:
    • ID: Fasciola hepatica
    • Common Name: Liver Fluke
    • Intermediate Host: Snail
    • Final Host: Ruminants
    • Pathogenesis: Hemorrhage
    • TX: Ivermectin, Albendazole
  285. ID this parasite:


    What is the common name:
    What is the intermediate host:
    What is the final host:
    Pathogenesis:
    TX:
    • ID: Paragonimus kellicoti
    • Common Name: Lung Fluke
    • Intermediate Host: Snail, Cayfish
    • Final Host: Dogs and Cats
    • Pathogenesis: Coushing, Dyspnea
    • TX: Fenbendazole, Albendazole, Prazquantel
  286. ID this parasite:

    What is the common name:
    What is the intermediate host:
    What is the final host:
    Pathogenesis:
    TX:
    • ID: Nanophyetus Salmincola
    • Common Name: Salmon Poisoning Fluke
    • IH: Snail, Salmon, Trout
    • FH: Dogs, Cats, Minks, Racoons
    • Path: V/D
    • TX: Praziquantel
  287. ID this parasite:

    What is the common name:
    What do you see under a microscope:
    What is the intermediate host:
    What is the final host:
    Pathogenesis:
    TX:
    • ID: Diplydium Caninum
    • Common Name: Flea Tape, Cucumber Seed Tape
    • Microscope: AEgg Basket
    • IH: Flea
    • FH: Dogs & Cats
    • Path: Weight loss, Poor hair coat
    • TX: Praziquantel, Espirantel
  288. ID this parasite:

    What is the common name:
    What do you see under a microscope:
    What is the intermediate host:
    What is the final host:
    Pathogenesis:
    TX:
    • ID: Taenia (pisiformis)
    • Microscope: Round with radial striations
    • IH: Rabbits & Hares
    • FH: Dogs
    • Path: Diarrhea
    • TX: Mebendazole, Fenbendazole, Praziquantel, Espirantel

    Taeniaformis "Cat Rat Tape"
  289. ID this parasite:

    What do you see under a microscope:
    What is the intermediate host:
    What is the final host:
    TX:
    • ID: Anoplocephala
    • Microscope: D Shaped
    • IH: Orbatid mite (Grain Mite)
    • FH: Horse
    • TX:Mebendazole, Fenbendazole
  290. ID this parasite:

    What is the intermediate host:
    What is the final host:
    TX:
    • ID: Moniezia
    • IH: Orbatid Mite (Grain Mite)
    • FH: Sheep, Cattle
    • TX: Fenbendazole, Albendazole
  291. ID this parasite:

    What is the common name:
    What do you see under a microscope:
    How and what is tested to determine a positive case?
    • ID: Dirofilaria immitis
    • Common Name: Heartworm
    • Microscope:Worms in feathered edge
    • Test: ELISA antigen test for adult female worms
  292. ID this parasite:

    What is the common name:
    What do you see under a microscope:
    PHS:
    • ID: Trichuris
    • Common Name: Whipworm
    • Microscope: Stewie
    • PHS: Coprophagic children
  293. ID this parasite:

    Canis & Cati
    What do you see under a microscope:
    What is the final host:
    Pathogenesis:
    TX:
    PHS:
    • ID: Toxocara
    • Microscope: Outer ropey edge, dark inside
    • Canis
    • FH: Dog
    • Path: Pot Bellied Appearance
    • TX: Ivermectin, Fenbendazole, Milbemycin, Pyrantel
    • PHS: Visceral Larval Migrans, Ocucular Larval Migrans

    • Cati
    • FH:Cat
    • Path: Pot bellied appearance
    • TX: Milbemycin, Fenbendazole
    • PHS: VLM, OLM
  294. ID this parasite:

    What do you see under a microscope:
    What is the common name:
    What is the final host:
    Path:
    TX:
    PHS:
    • ID: Toxascaris Leonina
    • Microscope: Inner ropey edge
    • Common Name: Arrowhead worm
    • Final Host: Dogs & Cats
    • Path: Pot bellied appearance
    • TX: Milbemycin, fenbendazole
    • PHS: VLM
  295. ID this parasite:


    What do you see under a microscope:
    What is the common name:
    What is the final host:
    How do you test for this parasite:
    Path:
    TX:
    PHS:
    • ID: Oxyuris equi
    • Microscope: Oval shaped
    • Common Name: Horse Pinworm
    • FH: Horse
    • Test: Scotch Tape Prep
    • TX: Fenbendazole, Moxidectin, Ivermectin
  296. ID this parasite:

    What is the common name:
    Intermediate Host:
    What is the final host:
    Path:
    TX:
    PHS:
    • ID: Dioctophyma renale
    • Common Name: Giant kidney worm
    • IH: Annelid worm
    • FH: Minks, Weasles, Canids
    • Path: Destruction of kidney
    • TX: Surgical removal
    • PHS: Do not eat raw crayfish
  297. ID this parasite:


    What is the common name:
    What do you see on the microscope:
    What is the final host Plica/Felis Cati:
    What sample will you see this in:
    SOI:
    TX:
    • ID: Pearsonema
    • Common Name: Bladder Worm
    • Microscope: Bubbly stewie
    • FH Plica: Dog  Felis/Cati: Cat
    • Sample: Urine
    • SOI: Urinary bladder
    • TX: Ivermectin
  298. ID this parasite

    What is the common name:
    What is the final host:
    PHS:
    TX:
    • ID: Ancylostoma
    • Common Name: Hookworms
    • Final Host: Dogs & Cats (Cold Weather Hookworm Dog Only)
    • PHS: Cutaneous Larval Migrans
    • TX: Invermectin
  299. ID this parasite:

    What is the common name:
    How do you report it out in ruminants:
    TX:
    • ID: Ancylostoma
    • Common Name: Hookworms
    • Report: TASE (Typical appearing Strongyle Egg)
    • TX: Ivermectin
  300. ID This Protozoan:


    TX:
    PHS:
    • ID: Giardia
    • TX: Metronidazole (Flagyl)
    • PHS: Zoonotic
  301. ID this Protozoan
    Coccidia
  302. ID This Protozoan
    Isospera
  303. ID this protozoan
    Eimeria
  304. Why should women avoid cleaning little boxes while they are pregnant? What protozoan?
    Toxoplasma
  305. ID This Tick

    Common Name:
    FH:
    PHS:
    • ID: Dermacentor Variabilis
    • Common Name: American Dog Tick
    • FH: Dog, Horse, Cattle
    • PHS: Can infest humans
  306. ID this Tick:

    Common Name:
    FH:
    PHS:
    • ID: Dermacentor Andersoni
    • Common Name: Rocky Mountain Spotted Tick, Wood Tick
    • FH: Horses, Cattle, Sheep
    • PHS: Can infest humans
  307. ID this Tick:

    Common Name:
    Final Host:
    PHS:
    • ID: Ixodes
    • Common Name: Lone Star Tick
    • FH: Ruminants, Cats, Dogs, Humans
    • PHS: Humans can get lyme disease
  308. ID

    Common Name:
    FH:
    • ID: Otodectes
    • Common Name: Ear Mite
    • FH: Dogs, Cats
  309. ID:

    Common Name
    FH:
    PHS:
    TX:
    • ID: Cheyletiella
    • Common Name: Walking Dandruff
    • FH: Dogs, cats, rabbits
    • PHS: Humans can get it
    • TX: Mitaban dip
  310. ID:

    FH:
    Cause:
    PHS:
    • ID: Ctenocephalites
    • Flea
    • FH: Everyone
    • Cause: Bubonic Plague
    • PHS: Humans can get it
  311. ID this Mite

    What do you see on a microscope:
    FH:
    Causes:
    Test Method:
    TX:
    • ID: Demodex
    • Microscope: Cigars with legs
    • FH: Canis: Dog   Felis: Cats
    • Causes: Demodectic Mange
    • Test Method:Deep skin Scraping
    • TX: Mitaban dip
  312. ID this Mite

    Causes:
    TX:
    PHS:
    • ID: Sarcoptes Scabei
    • Causes: Sarcoptic Mange
    • TX: Mitaban Dip
    • PHS: Zoonotic
  313. ID this Mite

    Common Name:
    Causes:
    TX:
    • ID: Knemidokoptes
    • Common Name: Scaly Leg Mite
    • Causes: Mange
    • TX: Ivermectin
  314. ID This Fly:

    Common Name:
    FH:
    PHS:
    • ID: Cuterebra
    • Common Name: Rabbit Bot Fly
    • FH: Cats, dogs, rabbits, rodents
    • PHS: Dermal and nasal infx
  315. How many days is a gas sterilized pack good for?
    90 days
  316. What gas is used for gas sterilization
    • Anprolene
    • Ethylene Oxide
  317. What color tape is used with gas sterilization?
    • Green tape with tan stripes before sterilization
    • Green tape with black stripes after steilization
  318. How many days is a steam sterilized pack good for?
    30 days
  319. What color tape is used for steam sterilization?
    • Tan with white stripes before sterilization
    • Tan with black stripes after sterilization
  320. What duties does the scrub nurse have?
    • Drapes patient
    • Loads and passes scalpel handle/blade
    • Begins draping and setting up mayo stand
    • Counts sponges prior to use
  321. What duties does the circulator have?
    • Mediator between sterile and non sterile fields
    • Tie in surgeon
    • Clip and scrub pt
    • Count used sponges
  322. Vicryl suture is absorbable or non-absorbable?
    Absorbable
  323. PDS suture is absorbable or non-absorbable?
    Absorbable
  324. Dexon suture is absorbable or non-absorbable?
    Absorbable
  325. Prolene suture is absorbable or non-absorbable?
    Nonabsorbable
  326. Ethilon suture is absorbable or non-absorbable?
    Nonabsorbable
  327. The Lower the ott in suture the _________ in diameter
    Larger
  328. Where do the following ECG leads go on a patient in right lateral?
    • White: Right Front
    • Green: Right Rear
    • Black: Left Front
    • Red: Left Rear
    • Tan: Chest
  329. Define:
    Piloerection
    Hair standing up
  330. What are the 5 lymph nodes? Which ones are palpable?
    • 1. Prescapular
    • 2. Mandibular
    • 3. Axillary
    • 4. Inguinal
    • 5. Popliteal
  331. What are in the following layers of a bandage?
    Primary Layer

    Secondary Layer


    Tertiary Layer
    • Primary
    • Telfa Pad
    • Stirrups
    • Secondary
    • Cast Padding 
    • Polled Cotton
    • Tertiary
    • Kling Gauze
    • Vet Wrap
    • Elasticon
  332. An ________ sling provides immobilization to the hind limb.
    Ehmer
  333. A velpeau sling provides immobilization of the _____ joint.
    Shoulder
  334. What bandage is think, bulky. Is used to stabilize fractures distal to the elbow/stifle?
    Robert Jones Bandage
  335. Which catheter is a long term, indwelling catheter that can be used for many other uses in a clinic?
    Red Rubber Catheter
  336. What instrument is very traumatic and is used for a chest tap?
    Trocar
  337. What catheter is used on a cats femoral blood draw?
    Butterfly Catheter
  338. What type of catheter is a Tom Cat Catheter?
    Polypropylene
  339. What is in the 4 Way Feline Vaccine?
    FVRPCC
    Where is it administered?
    • Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis
    • Panleukopenia
    • Chlamydia
    • Calici Virus
    • Location: SQ, Left Back Limb, Distal to Hip
  340. What is in the 6-way Canine Vaccine?
    DHLPP-C
    Where is it administered?
    At what age do canines first get their vaccine?
    • Distemper
    • Hepatitis/Adenovirux Type 2
    • Leptospirosis
    • Parvo VirusParainfluenze
    • Carona Virus

    Location: SQ, Right front Leg Distal to midscapula

    • First Dose: 6-8 weeks
    • Second Dose: 10-12 weeks
  341. Where is the Rabies vaccine administered?
    SQ, right back leg, distal to hip
  342. What is an:
    Orogastric Tube
    How do you measure it?
    • Stomach tube through mouth
    • Measure: Mouth to 13th rib
  343. What is an:
    Nasogastric Tube
    How do you measure it?
    • Through the nose into the stomach
    • Measure: Nost to the 13th rib
  344. What is an:
    Endotracheal Tube
    How do you measure it?
    • Placed via the mouth into the trachea, used for anesthesia
    • Measure: Mouth to the thoracic inlet
  345. What nutrient is essential in cats?
    Taurine
  346. What is the purpose of Vitamin K?
    Blood clotting cascade
  347. Is distemper a modified live, or killed vaccine?
    Modified Live Vaccine
  348. Is rabies a modified live, or killed vaccine?
    Killed Vaccine
  349. What two methods of vaccination are available for Bordatella?
    Intranasal and IM
  350. Where is FeLV vaccine given?
    SQ, Left hind limb distal to hip joint
  351. What are the two forms of immunity?
    • Active: Vaccinations
    • Passive: Colostrum
  352. IgA immunoglobulins are able to pass into ________. They attach to ___ directly at the site.
    IgA immunoglobulins are able to pass into tissues They attach to ag directly at the site.
  353. IgG immunoglobulins are passed from ____ to _____ in ______________________________.
    IgG immunoglobulins are passed from mom to neonate in colostrum.
  354. The nervous tunic in the eye is also known as the:
    Retina
  355. The cornea is:
    • A structure found in the anterior portion of the eye.
    • Focuses images
  356. Define:

    Vitreous Humor
    Thick jelly like substance found in the posterior portion
  357. Define:
    Aqueous Humor
    • Produced by the ciliary process
    • Serous fluid
    • Found in the anterior portion of the eye
  358. What part of the eyeball is white?
    The sclera
  359. Where is the canthus located?
    Areas where eyelids meet; medial and lateral
  360. Define:
    Entropion
    Can cause:
    • Inward deviation of the eyelid
    • Causes: Keratitis, "Steamy eye", Corneal Abrasions
  361. Define:
    Ectropion
    What breed is this common in?
    Outward deviation of the eyelide

    Bloodhounds, bulldogs
  362. Define:
    Enopthalmos

    What can cause this?
    • Inward turning of the eyeball, or sinking eyeball
    • Causes: acute corneal pain, absorption of post-orbital fat, dehydration, anterior uveitis.
  363. What is Cherry Eye?
    Protrusion of the gland of the 3rd eyelid. (Nictitating Membrane)
  364. Define:
    Mydriasis
    Dialated pupil
  365. Define:
    Myosis
    Constricted pupil
  366. Define:
    Anisocoria
    Pupils of unequal size
  367. Define:
    Tapedum Lucidum
    Reflective layer in the back of the eye, aids in night vision
  368. Define:
    Pannus
    Autoimmune disorder where pigment is deposited on the surface of the cornea
  369. When do puppies get their permanent teeth in?
    4-6 months, can be up to 9 months
  370. What ophthalmic tests are preformed during an ophthalmic exam?
    • Gross Exam
    • Pupillary Light Reflex Test
    • Schirmer Tear Test
    • Flourescein Test
    • Mydriatic Drops
    • Fundus Exam
  371. what is the surgery called for treatment of cataracts?
    Photoemulsification
  372. What is the condition called where there is pus in the anterior chamber?
    Hypopyon
  373. What species is a corpora nigra common in?
    Horses
  374. What is it called on small dogs such as poodles where they have red tears from their eyes?
    Epiphora
  375. What is a Manace test?
    Bring something to the eye quickly and see if they blink for a positive response..
  376. What is the use for a Schiotiz Tonometry test?
    What is the normal range?
    • Diagnose Glaucoma
    • Normal Range: 12-24mmHg
  377. What are the two types of photoreceptors?
    What are their functions?
    • Rods: Interpret shapes
    • Cones: Interpret colors
  378. Define:
    Nasolacramal Duct
    Duct between the eyes and the nose, tears form from the eye to the sinus
  379. ID this RBC Morphology
    Acanthocyte
  380. ID This RBC Morphology
    Anisocytosis
  381. ID This RBC Inclusion

    What causes it?
    Basophilic Stippling

    Lead Poisoning
  382. ID This RBC Morphology

    Give another name for this morph?
    Echinoctye or Crenation
  383. ID This inclusion:

    What stain do you use so that they stain blue/purple?
    • Heinz Bodies
    • NMB stain
  384. ID this Inclusion:
    Howell Jolly Bodies
  385. What is another name for a metarubrictye?
    nRBC
  386. For all RBC morphology's click HERE

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