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  1. what do we have to do in order to avoid injury when lifting a heavy object, a radiographer should
    bend at the knees and keep objects close to body as possible
  2. T or F:
    the patient must always be a part of the planning process and be given the opportunity to refuse a treatment or procedure
  3. T or F:
    a radiographer should push heavy objects rather than pull them
  4. T or F:
    A radiographer is not responsible for a patients belongings
  5. T or F:
    Always transfer patients across the shortest distance
  6. During a patient transfer having the patient put their arms across their chest do what two things
    • reduce friction be reducing surface area
    • increase the patients feeling of stability
  7. a position in which the the patients head is lower than that of the rest of the body that increases venous return is called
  8. A position used when a patients exhibits signs of respiratory distress is called
    fowlers position
  9. T or F:
    immobilization devices must be padded
  10. T or F:
    Devices should always be put on tight to restrict movement
  11. T or F:
    If leg immobilizers are necessary, wrist immobilizers must also be used
  12. T or F:
    Immobilizers must be ordered by the physician in charge of the patients care
  13. During early signs of skin breakdown, the blanching and feeling of coldness over pressure area is a sign of what condition
  14. the heat and redness that occur as a result of blood rushing into nourish the skin that follow is called _____
  15. Name 3 of the 7 signs of impaired circulation or nerve compression from casted limb
    • skin discoloration
    • numbing
    • inability to move
  16. state 3 ways that you as a student radiography can reduce radiation exposure to yourself
    time shielding and distance
  17. name the 3 factors associated with the increase of nosocomial infections
    therapeutic regimen environmental equipment
  18. name the four groups of microorganisms that produce disease
    • fungi
    • parasites & prions
    • viruses
    • bacteria
  19. a pathogenic microorganism is one that causes what?
  20. what is the organization that protects healthcare workers from work related injuries or illnesses is
    OSHA (occupational safety & health Admin)
  21. Name five potentially infectious substances for which standard precautions
    blood csf seminal fluid saliva nasal secretions
  22. the best mean for preventing the transmission of germs is
  23. the removal of pathogenic organisms through the use of water friction and soap and chemical disinfection is _____
    medical asepsis
  24. the 3 modes of transmission of diseases are _____
    contact droplets airborne
  25. What is used for patients with highly contagious diseases transmitted by contact or airborne routes
    expanded or strict isolation
  26. what is assault
    • threat of touching in an injurious way
    • if patient feels harmed he or she can file for assault
  27. what is battery
    • touching a person without permission
    • it implies a willful act to harm or provoke or even the most harmful touch is prohibited if it has not been expressed by the patient
  28. what is false imprisonment
    intentional confinement without authorization by one who physically constricts a person using force
  29. what is libel
    written defamation of character
  30. what is slander
    oral defamation of character
  31. what is malpractice
    a lawsuit against a health care professional
  32. what is the doctrine of res ipsa loquttur
    if an injury happens that could not have occurred if there had no negligence
  33. what is rescinding consent
    cancelling treatment with verbal or in writing at any time
  34. What are the two organizations of the radiologic technologists?
    ASRT and ARRT
  35. What is the JRCERT?
    are a group of persons appointed by sponsoring organizations to oversee the accreditation process
  36. What is the definition of a profession?
    implies that an occupation requires extended training and education of its members who have skills and serve a specific social need
  37. What members deal with the accreditation of certain schools?
    JRCERT (Joint Review Committee Education in Radiologic Technology)
  38. Explain the accreditation process:
    • Starts w/ application from program to JRCERT
    • then a self study must be taken place on the standards by accrediting agency
    • then a team of visitors are sent to the site to verify the info provided in the self study
    • the site visitors then send a report to acc. agency
    • Report is reviewed by agency staff and presented to the board accreditation status
  39. How many credits are required for radiologic techs for continuing education?How many years
    • 24 credits
    • per 2 years
  40. What are ethics?
    Ethics is defined as a set of moral principles that govern ones course of action
  41. What are moral principles?
    they are a set of standards that establish is right or wrong
  42. What are bioethics?
    it is a branch of ethics that was established because of the advanced technical methods of prolonging life

    it pertains solely to the ethics in the field of the health care
  43. What are the 2 parts of the "Code of Ethics"?
    Explain both
    Code of ethics - is intended to assist RT's and candidates in maintaing a high level of ethical conduct and in providing for the protection, safety and comfort to patients.

    rules of ethics - they are mandatory and directive specific of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all RT's and candidates
  44. What are the two types of torts and explain both?
    • Intentional tort = is a purposeful deed
    • committed with the intention of producing the consequences of the deed

    • unintentional tort = when a radiographer is
    • negligent in the performance of patient care and the patient is injured as a
    • result
  45. Explain examples of intentional tort?
    • –Immobilizing a patient against
    • his or her will (false imprisonment)

    • –Falsely stating a patient has
    • AIDS (defamation of character)

    • –Causing extreme emotional
    • distress-resulting illness through outrages or shocking conduct
  46. List examples of unintentional tort?
    • –Improper marking radiographic
    • images

    –Omitting to apply gonadal shielding

    • –Handing the Radiologist the
    • incorrect syringe during a procedure with the incorrect medication

    • –Leaving a patient unattended with
    • bed rails down and having the patient fall off the gurney
  47. What is the informed consent?
    A consent is a contract wherein the patient voluntarily gives permission to perform a service

    • Many procedures performed
    • in the diagnostic imaging departments require special consent forms to be signed by the patient or parent/guardian
  48. What is simple consent?
    obtaining a patient’s permission to perform a procedure, without knowledge of that procedure.
  49. What is express, implied, inadequate consent?
    Express consent occurs when the patient does not stop the procedure from taking place.

    • Implied consent occurs in emergency
    • situations when it is not possible to obtain consent.

    • Inadequate consent – aka- Ignorant
    • consent.  This occurs when the patient
    • has not been informed adequately to make a responsible decision
  50. What was passed by the congress in 1996?
    HIPPA - enacted to protect the privacy of patients health information
  51. Since perfect health is almost nearly unachievable, what is health considered on a spectrum?
    a continuum (which means there are different aspects of health)
  52. what 4 categories are required for learning
    cognitive, effective and psychomotor, didactic skills
  53. what is subjective data in data collection
    anything that the patient says "spoken words"

    patient might say "i had an xray, they gave me medicine in my vein that me itch all over"
  54. what is objective data in data collecting
    anything that the radiographer observes like hearing seeing reading on patients chart, feels or smells
  55. what method requires all levels of critical thinking
    data analysis
  56. what concept requires all modes of thinking
    planning and implementation
  57. define culture
    • A shared system of beliefs, values and behavioral expectations that provide social structure in daily living.
    • habits and routines, ethnicity, customs and rituals
  58. what 2 factors are a part of the radiographers assessment and plan of care?
    cultural and ethnic diversity
  59. what are the 4 elements of self concept
    • body image
    • role
    • identity
    • self esteem
  60. what is self concept
    how we see our selves (self acceptance & achivement and having a positive self concept is good)
  61. what is self esteem?
    our personal worth based on feedback from behavious in our life which is the goal of self acceptance
  62. what is the nonverbal aspects of communication
    all stimuli other than the spoken word involved in communication
  63. what is paralanguage
    has to do with the sounds of speed, rather than the content
  64. what is a key factor in maintain a positive clinical experience
  65. what are all the phases of loss & grief and explain
    p1 denial - experiences denial from knowledge of terminal illness, pt usually senses it before doc comes

    p2 anger - pt is verified of illness, pt is angry, begins to lash out at family or HCW, feels an injustice, anger is therapeutic for patient, not to take personally on HCW

    p3 bargaining - pt is a good patient, he/she follows medical advice becomes submissive, experience feelings of guilt and they may seek alternative treatments

    • p4 depression - patient accepts reality of the situation, begins to mourn, pt is often quite and submissive
    • Give support

    • p5 acceptance - loss of interest outside world, desire to discuss grief, can last a yr or 2, attempts rehab, deals with the suffering
    • HCW role = quite support relfective communication, be understanding
  66. what is an advanced directive that is the oldest and is rquested at the time of the death
    • living will
    • usually happens when there are no more measures to prolong life and no chance of recovery
  67. what is the DNR or No Code
    do not resuscitate - means that no CPR (chest compressions, cardiac drugs, or placement of a breathing tube) will be performed

    it is part of the legal document that staes no CPR or other life saving measures are implented if the need may arise
  68. what is the DPOA
    dual power of attorney is used when the patient authorizes another to carry out his/her wishes
  69. what is the DNI and Full code
    Do not intubate order means that chest compressions and cardiac drugs may be used, but no breathing tube will be placed

    CPR (code blue)
  70. what are the higher modes of thinking
    and the lower
    • inquiry and creativity
    • recall and habit
  71. what decubitus ulcers
    are localized injuries to the skin and/or underlying tissue that usually occur over a bony prominence as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
  72. what is tissue necrosis
    death and destruction of tissue cells
  73. what is an iatrogenic infection
    what are nosocomial infections
    A nosocomial infection that results from a particular treatment or therapeutic procedure

    Infections acquired at the HOSPITAL or other medical care institutions during the course of care
  74. what is community acquired infection
    a person who enters the health care facility with an infection
  75. what are the natural microorganisms in every humans body
  76. what is a colorless, minute one celled organism that contains bothe DNA and RNA
  77. what is microorganism needs oxygen to survive (aerobic)
  78. what are some diseases caused by bacteria
    • TB
    • Streptococcal Infections of the throat
    • Staphylococcal Infections
    • Salmonella Poisoning
    • Lyme Disease
    • Gonorrhea
    • Syphilis
    • Tetanus
  79. what are examples of fungi
    mold and yeast
  80. how does fungi reproduce
    by budding (yeasts) or spores (molds) formation
  81. what is a complex one celled microorganism that moves by flagella and cilia
  82. what are helminths microorgansims and where do they live
    • parasitic worms
    • in the intestines
  83. what is the smallest microorganism
  84. what microorganism has either DNA or RNA but never both
  85. how must a virus survive
    must invade a host cell to live and reproduce
  86. what are the five elements needed to transmit infection are
    • entrace to host
    • reservoir
    • infectious agent
    • mode of transmission
    • exit portal
  87. list some common viral diseases
    • herpes
    • influenza
    • common cold
    • mumps
    • measles
    • hepatits
    • aids
  88. what microorganism exists in all mammals brain cells and can be malformed due to disease or genetic predisposition
  89. what is a reservoir
    list examples
    • where pathogens can live and multiple
    • human being
    • animal
    • plant
    • food
    • water
    • soil
  90. what is an exit portal
    list examples
    • microbes leave the reservoir through one or more exit areas or portals
    • human beings (nose mouth open wound urinary tract intestines)
  91. in what stage must a patient reach of the disease before it is classified as AIDS
  92. what is called when a persons body that does not adequately defend itself against disease
    so their body cannot do what ?
    • they are immunodepresses or immunocompromised
    • their body is unable to neutralize destroy or eliminate invading antigens from his or her body
  93. what are antibodies produced by
    b -  lymphocytes
  94. what type of virus is HIV
    retrovirus - converts RNA to DNA when it enter the host cell
  95. what do retroviruses have that increases their ability to destroy host cell (t4)
    reverse transcriptase
  96. which hepatitis virus is transmitted only through fecal oral transmission
    hep A & E
  97. what is surgical asepsis
    Microorganisms and their spores have been completely destroyed by means of heat or chemical process
  98. patients with what disease carry resistant germs on their skin even when they dont have any wounds or broken skin
    • mRSA methicillin-resistant S. aureus
    • VRE vancomycin-resistant enterococci
  99. what is the most important airborne (microbes spread on evaporated droplets suspended in air & inhaled) precautions
    • priv room neg. air pressure ventilation and mask
    • tb particulate air filter
    • mask for pt via trasnportation
  100. what is colonization
    the presence of microbes on skin without the symptoms of disease
  101. what are expanded strict isolation precautions used for
    • diseases that are highly infectious
    • diseases that are different to control
Card Set:
2013-10-26 19:16:20

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