Fire Officer

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  1. When were hand-powered pumpers introduced to the fire service?
  2. When were provisions prohibiting the building of wooden houses adopted after the British burned Washington, D.C.?
  3. When was the first documented fire in North America that led to a requirement to use less flammable building materials?
  4. Which of the following is generally in charge of training and emergency operations?
    Division chief
  5. Which is the set of guidelines that a department sets for fire fighters?
  6. Which function of management includes training and motivating?
  7. Which NFPA standard contains the requirements for the Fire Officer?
  8. When was the first insurance company in America established?
  9. When were water distribution systems developed to support fire suppression efforts?
  10. When was the first organized volunteer fire company established in Philadelphia by Benjamin Franklin?
  11. In which type of list are the candidates listed as "Highly Qualified", "Qualified" and "Not Qualified"?
  12. In which assessment center event does the candidate have to deal with a stack of correspondence and related items that have accumulated on a fire officer's desk?
    In-basket exercise
  13. What is used to determine the number of questions that should be included on the promotional exam?
    Knowledge, skills and abilities technical worksheet
  14. What should be in the second section of the candidate's personal study journal?
  15. Which items in the in-box should follow-up be performed on?
    All delegated items
  16. Which method of exam creation is most often used in a larger fire department?
    Internal development
  17. Which section of the candidate's personal study journal should contain information about the announced components of the promotional exam?
  18. When did some public safety agencies begin to use assessment centers in promotional exams?
    Late 1970's
  19. Which term is used to describe the candidate that performs the most effectively in role-playing exercises?
    Extreme supervisor
  20. In what year was the Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act enacted in response to the abuses at Tammany Hall in New York?
  21. Which of the following is a combination of the fire officer's internal value system and the fire department's official organizational value system?
    Moral code
  22. Who could be the battalion chief's supervisor in a municipal fire department?
    Deputy chief
  23. Employers with what minimum number of employees were affected by the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972?
  24. What is the ability of an officer to project an image of being in control of the situation?
    Command presence
  25. Which of the following provides additional compensation and punitive damages in cases of intentional discrimination under Title VII and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?
    Civil Rights Act of 1991
  26. Which NFPA standard contains subject headings for James O.Page's personal training library?
  27. When did the EEOC amend the guidelines on sexual harassment?
  28. Up to what percentage of the first-level supervisory examination focuses on the technical aspects of a first-line company commander?
  29. Which emergency incident simulation allows the candidate to demonstrate a depth of knowledge about a particular subject?
    Data-dump question
  30. What act provides additional compensation and punitive damages in cases of intentional discrimination under Title VII and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?
    Civil Rights Act of 1991
  31. Which NFPA standard contains subject headings for James O.Page's personal training library?
  32. What is a combination of the fire officer's internal value system and the fire department's official organizational value system?
    Moral code
  33. What is the ability of an officer to project an image of being in control of the situation?
    Command presence
  34. How should all personnel matters be handled?
    Basis of merit
  35. Who could be the battalion chief's supervisor in a municipal fire department?
    Deputy chief
  36. Which is the bottom level on Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
    Physiological needs
  37. Which type of person is usually highly trained, organized and qualified to lead a team to success, but has a low concern for others?
  38. Which behavioral model is preferred for a candidate to become a successful fire officer?
  39. In which situation would a Theory X managerial style NOT be needed?
    Steering effectiveness of the fire fighter in training
  40. At what level is the staffing function typically accomplished?
  41. Which level on Maslow's hierarchy of needs involves the earning of gold badges and special awards?
    Esteem and status
  42. Who was the creator of the scientific management method?
    Frederick Winslow Taylor
  43. What department provides a great deal of information on the laws that affect fire fighters?
    Department of Labor
  44. With which type of pay system is the fire fighter paid abase salary and then receives additional compensation for good performance?
    Merit-based pay
  45. Which level on Maslow's hierarchy of needs would be affected if a fire fighter is transferred away from a "good" assignment?
    Social and affection
  46. What do conversations with accommodating people tend to neglect?
    Concrete issues
  47. Which person has the objective to work toward acceptable solutions that follow proven methods?
    Status quo
  48. What is the security element of Maslow's hierarchy of needs more closely associated with?
    Maintaining employment
  49. Which human resource management function is being accomplished when the fire department determines a new recruit class needs to begin prior to retirement vacancies?
    Human resource planning
  50. What is management as we know it today a product of?
    Industrial Revolution
  51. Which style on Blake and Mouton's managerial grid is best described with the word neutral?
    Evade and elude
  52. Which type of manager according to Douglas MacGregor believes that people like to work and that they need to be encouraged?
    Theory Y
  53. What length day-shift was created in California in 1975 by Proposition Q?
  54. In how many states are strikes by state employees legal?
  55. How long after the layoffs on July 2,1975 was it before New York City could rehire the laid-off fire fighters?
    2 years
  56. Which organization is the most dominant in representing fire fighters?
    International Association of Fire Fighters
  57. Who is a step-three grievance usually submitted to?
    Battalion chief
  58. What did fire fighters in Memphis, Tennessee gain after threatening to strike in 1918?
    Two-platoon work schedule
  59. Which step initiates the formal part of the grievance procedure?
    Step two
  60. In how many states can fire fighters bargain collectively?
  61. Which is a method whereby representatives of employees and employers determine the conditions of employment through direct negotiation?
    Collective bargaining
  62. In which U.S. city did the city's police officers strike in an effort to gain the right to form a union on September 9,1919?
  63. At what point in history have the number of fire fighter strikes decreased?
  64. Which law specified that an employee could not be forced into a contract by an employer in order to obtain and keep a job?
    Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932
  65. Which state requires bargaining for fire fighters but not for law enforcement?
  66. How often must unions file a report with the government listing the assets of the organization as well as the names and assets of every officer and employee under the Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959?
  67. How many hours per week do most municipal fire fighters work today?
    42 to 56 hours
  68. When did the Supreme Court strike down the National Industrial Recovery Act as unconstitutional?
  69. When were federal employees given the right to bargain collectively under restricted rules?
  70. When was the physical fitness and wellness program package released at both the IAFF Redmond Symposium and the IAFC Conference?
    August 1997
  71. allows workers to decide, by majority vote, which organization will represent them at the labor-management bargaining table?
    Wagner-Connery Act of 1935
  72. What did yellow dog contracts attempt to prevent?
  73. Where was the only documented large loss fire that occurred during a labor action in 1918?
    Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania
  74. Which law states a worker cannot be compelled, as a condition of employment, to join or not to join a union?
  75. What was the "cooling off" period that was created by the Taft-Hartley Labor Act of 1947?
    60 days
  76. How many days does the fire chief have to respond to a step-four grievance?
    14 to 30 days
  77. How long did the strike in Chicago, Illinois last that occurred in 1980?
    23 days
  78. When was the IAFC/IAFF Fire Service Leadership Partnership developed to address the needs of today's fire chiefs and union presidents?
  79. Which is a the political action committee that was created by the IAFF in 1991?
  80. In what year did the country witness the first general strike that shut down Seattle, Washington?
  81. How long does the supervisor have to reach a decision and provide a written reply to the grievant?
    10 calendar days
  82. How many of the 105 fire fighters who died in 2003 actually died on the fire ground as per the NFPA annual report?
  83. How many fire fighter fatalities could be prevented each year if all fire fighters wore seat belts?
    10 to 15
  84. Which NFPA standard provides a structure and resources fora fire officer to develop a health-related fitness program?
  85. With which type of death event is the fire the direct cause of the fire fighter's death?
  86. What is the leading cause of fire fighter death since 1993?
    Heart attack
  87. What accounts for the largest number of fire fighter injuries?
  88. What is needed for the rapid intervention crew to be able to recognize in a timely manner that a fire fighter is missing?
    Personnel accountability system
  89. What percentage of line-of-duty deaths in the U.S. Fire Administration's retrospective study were the result of motor vehicle collision?
  90. What should the incident commander establish is there is a need for assistant safety officers?
    Safety unit
  91. Which line of defense for ensuring that fire fighters obtain appropriate rehabilitation is the incident safety officer considered to be?
  92. What starts the risk/benefit analysis?
    Preincident plan
  93. What percentage of fatal fire suppression activities involved single fire fighters in the U.S. Fire Administration retrospective study?
  94. Which is the most common type of heart arrhythmia seen when a patient is found collapsed without a pulse?
    Ventricular fibrillation
  95. Which level of Fire Officer must the incident safety officer meet as a minimum?
  96. What percentage of fire fighter deaths between 1984 and2000 were the result of heart attack?
  97. What is the first phase of an accident investigation usually?
    Identification and collection of physical evidence
  98. Which organization has the standards that define the minimum performance standards for each piece of personal protective equipment?
  99. Which NFPA standard identifies six components of an infection control plan?
  100. What is the real value of a post incident analysis?
    The learning process that can result from the information obtained during the process
  101. Which NFPA standard establishes driver training standards?
  102. Which piece of protective equipment is needed during overhaul operations to prevent wounds?
  103. Which level management unit is responsible for the incident scene rehabilitation?
  104. the special program to help reduce the impact of an emotionally stressful event begin?
    Critical incident stress debriefing
  105. What is the minimum number of properly trained and equipped fire fighters must be positioned outside the IDLH environment according to 29 CFR 1910.134?
  106. How many fire fighter injuries is it estimated there are for every fire fighter death?
  107. When did the first organized instruction of fire officers begin in New York City?
  108. What is the first step in the four-step method?
  109. What is the next to highest psychomotor skill level?
  110. In what year was the document "The Fire Service and Education: A Blueprint for the 21st Century" produced?
  111. In which step will the fire officer determine how the training will be delivered?
    Develop training program
  112. What is the first step taken by the fire officer when developing a specific training program?
    Needs assessment
  113. What should be the maximum size of each functional crew at a live fire training site?
  114. What is the maximum number of fire evolutions allowed at a time in an acquired structure?
  115. How many gallons per minute (L per minute) should each attack and back-up hoseline be capable of flowing at the live fire training site?
    95 gallons per minute (360 L per minute)
  116. What is the final preparation activity?
    Check the physical environment where the presentation will be made
  117. When did the four-step method of skill training originate?
  118. When was there national consensus on the knowledge and skills a fire fighter should possess?
  119. When has success been achieved during the application step of the four-step method?
    Student can perform the task safely without input from the supervisor
  120. Which group accredits fire-related degree programs at the college and university levels?
  121. What percentage of the minimum needed water supply at the training site should the water supply sources be capable of delivering from two separate sources?
  122. About how long does the training about the department's exposure control plan, personal protective equipment used by the fire fighter and the reporting requirements after an exposure?
    4 hours
  123. When the goal is to have the new driver know the addresses in the fire district from memory, and the driver knows the main streets and has a basic understanding of how the street grid and numbering system works, what level psychomotor skill level has been achieved?
  124. Which NFPA standard provides essential information for any type of live fire training session?
  125. What should be the maximum amount of time spent on any lecture or video presentation when teaching a new skill set?
    15-20 minutes
  126. How many work-related goals should the fire officerre quest each fire fighter set for the next evaluation period after completing probation?
  127. What helps fire fighters set personal goals for professional development and performance improvement?
    Evaluation process
  128. How many weeks before the scheduled review is common practice to notify the fire fighter if the review will be substandard?
    10 weeks
  129. What information would identify the tools that others have used to achieve success within the fire department?
    Success 102
  130. What is the first level in negative discipline?
    Oral admonishment
  131. Which is being used when the fire officer helps the firefighter learn how to control his or her own destiny?
  132. At what time period before the scheduled formal evaluation should the fire fighter be instructed to perform a self-evaluation?
    4 weeks
  133. What is the ultimate goal of negative discipline?
    Improve fire fighter performance
  134. What starts the formal "paper trail" of a progressive disciplinary process?
    Written reprimand
  135. How should negative feedback be issued to the firefighter?
    In a private meeting
  136. What could be the first step taken with progressive discipline?
    Verbal counseling
  137. What is the second progressive step taken when negative discipline must be used?
    Verbal reprimand
  138. Which evaluation error has occurred when the fire fighter is evaluated based on the fire officer's personal ideals instead of the classified job standards?
    Frame of reference
  139. What is usually the duration of suspensions?
    1 to 30 days
  140. What is the longest amount of time before a written reprimand will expire?
    12 months
  141. Which evaluation error has occurred when only events that occurred during the 6 weeks before the evaluation period are taken into account?
  142. How long after issuance does a formal written reprimand usually stay on file?
    1 year
  143. How often is it recommended the fire officer conduct an informal performance review with each fire fighter?
    2 or 3 months
  144. How often do most career fire departments require a supervisor to perform a performance evaluation of each assigned employee?
  145. What should the scheduled evaluation be used for primarily?
    Discuss future goals and objectives
  146. How often do structured probationary programs usually require the fire officer to assess the fire fighter's progress in skill competency?
  147. What is the starting point for positive discipline?
    Establish a set of expectations for behavior and performance
  148. What is the process of conducting a formal disciplinary hearing before a suspension is issue?
    Loudermill hearing
  149. Which evaluation error has occurred when the fire officer compares the performance of one subordinate to another subordinate instead of the classified job standards?
    Contrast effect
  150. Which is an effective leadership style when working with experienced fire fighters and handling routine duties that pose little personal hazard?
  151. Which method of motivation relies on the competitiveness of people?
  152. Which leadership style can be used when planning a project?
  153. What is often the strongest force that influences the volunteer fire fighter's performance and commitment?
    Effective leadership
  154. Which type of leadership responsibility does the fire officer always have for the company he or she is commanding?
  155. What is a complex process by which a person influences others to accomplish a mission?
  156. What is the method of assigning tasks that allows for more participation in the process yet reduces the number of decisions the officer must make on the scene?
    Broad standard operating procedures
  157. Which motivational theory is based on the premise that people act in a manner that they believe will lead to an outcome they value?
  158. What establishes the tone of the incident?
    Initial report
  159. Which types of reinforcement reduces the specific bad behavior?
    Extinction and punishment
  160. What is the first obligation when a Mayday is issued?
    Maintain radio discipline
  161. What are the two most important values that every firefighter needs to respect?
    Responding to emergencies and preserving the public trust
  162. Which leadership style is needed when conducting the primary search at an incident scene?
  163. What is the first step to take when interacting with the news media?
    Build a strong foundation
  164. What is the first task in the five step planning process to create and develop public education programs?
    Identify a life-safety problem
  165. Which is the first comprehensive injury prevention program available for use in schools?
    Risk Watch
  166. Where is the public education program developed in many cases?
    At the local level to meet local needs
  167. Which type of needs can be addressed by the fire department through the development of programs to eliminate risk?
  168. How much has the number of immigrants in the United States increased since 1970?
  169. What allows the fire officer to identify the characteristics of a community before delivering a safety message?
    Demographic information
  170. For how many hours after a catastrophic event does the CERT program train residents to effectively function?
    72 hours
  171. Which fire event in history is the roots for Fire Prevention Week?
    Great Chicago Fire
  172. Which fire department developed and first implemented the Community Emergency Response Team in 1985?
    Los Angeles City Fire Department
  173. What type of response is a program that is designed in response to a catastrophic event?
  174. How far apart should your feet be placed when standing and conducting a television interview per the NFPA recommendations?
    18 inches (46 cm)
  175. What is the ideal length of a press release?
    One to two pages
  176. When was the CERT training program made available nationally by FEMA?
  177. How does the progressive fire department realize their responsibility to save the lives and the property of its citizens from all types of incidents should be performed?
    Through prevention
  178. What should be the maximum number of key message points prepared when delivering a specific message during an interview?
  179. Where does the most significant information about a community come from in most cases?
    Understanding who lives in the community
  180. What is the most important media asset you will ever have?
    Good relationship with the media
  181. In what year did national observation of Fire Prevention Week begin?
  182. Which session of the FEMA version of the CERT training program covers evaluating patients with a head-to-toe assessment?
  183. Which type of feedback is most effective in evaluating the mechanics of the class presentation?
  184. How often does the federal government undertake a national census?
    Once a decade
  185. Who should be asked for feedback once the solution has been implemented?
    People who originally identified the problem
  186. Which is often the most challenging aspect of problem solving?
  187. In which step of Michael Taigman's conflict resolution model does the fire officer ask the complainant what the department can do to resolve the issue?
  188. What can be used to drain the emotional bubble?
    Active listening
  189. Which is an expression of regret or pain?
  190. What focuses effort and help prioritize activities?
  191. How many different responses are there for the fire officer to give once the investigation is completed?
  192. How often does Peter Drucker encourage managers to question the value of each organizational activity?
    Once per year
  193. Where should complaints about personnel be forwarded when the complainant would like it escalated?
    Individual's supervisor
  194. What is the first step in Michael Taigman's  conflict resolution model?
    Drain the emotional bubble
  195. Which is one of the most difficult situations for a fire officer within the company?
    Interpersonal conflict
  196. Which type of problem involves the assignment of duties to different individuals in the fire station?
    In-house issues
  197. What can be done to determine how widespread a perceived problem is?
    Talk to other officers about it
  198. What factors into the nature of the evaluation during the problem solving process?
    Complexity of the problem and the solution
  199. When are new policies frequently presented to subordinates?
    Morning roll call
  200. What is a detailed inquiry or systematic examination?
  201. What is the only way the fire officer can best identify the problem?
    With the best information
  202. Which phrase did Tom Peters use to describe a practice he observed in the successful businesses he profiled in the 1982 best seller "In Search of Excellence"?
    Management by walking around
  203. What amount of time for generating ideas during brainstorming tends to be effective for groups of four to 16 people?
    15 to 25 minutes
  204. What is the first step taken when brainstorming?
    Write out the problem statement
  205. Which is a result of defective judgment?
  206. Which is considered one of the most important rooms in the fire station and is used to solve many internal problems?
  207. Which type of issues include any fire department activities that involve another organization?
  208. What includes the property lines and locates the building within those boundaries?
    Plot plan
  209. What amount of time can be given to correct less critical issues found during the fire inspection?
    30 to 90 days
  210. Which of the following can be used to protect a printing press?
    A.) Dry chemical
    B.) Foam system
    C.) Carbon dioxide
    D.) Halon
    Carbon dioxide
  211. Which type of residential occupancy provides sleeping accommodations for a total of 16 or fewer people without separate cooking facilities for individual occupants?
    Lodging house
  212. In which step of developing the preincident plan should the distance to exposures and access routes be evaluated?
    Step 1
  213. Which class of standpipe system is intended for occupant use with a 1.5 inch (3.8 cm) hose coupling?
    Class II
  214. What phase of fire involves other objects?
  215. Which type of occupancy is an automobile assembly plant?
  216. Which establish legally enforceable minimum safety standards within a state, providence or local jurisdiction?
    Building codes
  217. Where should the officer inspect once the exterior has been evaluated?
  218. Which type of hazard is represented by the color blue?
  219. Which is a drawing of the interior of the building which shows arriving companies a general layout of the structure?
    Floor plan
  220. Which type of building is a strip mall an example of?
    Type IIB
  221. Which type of building construction contains exterior load-bearing walls made from non-combustible masonry with interior elements made of combustible elements?
    Type III
  222. What should be taken when inspecting the standpipe system in a detention facility?
  223. Which NFPA standard covers performing a water supply test?
  224. Which type of construction is evidenced by mill construction from the 1800's?
    Heavy timber
  225. Which type of building construction involves noncombustible construction elements which are protected by an encasement?
    Type I
  226. What is often used to eject smoke from a detention facility?
    HVAC system
  227. What should be performed in Step 4 of preincident planning?
    Evaluate special hazards
  228. Which is the most important issue during the fire inspection?
    Access and egress
  229. As of what date can Halon not be manufactured or imported into the United States?
    January 1, 2000
  230. What should be the first step taken when performing the fire inspection?
    Circle the area to be inspected
  231. At the local level, what is used to enact fire and safety codes?
  232. What is a good reference for general information about a large variety of processes, equipment and systems and can be used before an inspection?
    NFPA Fire and Life Safety Inspection Manual
  233. What is the best method to ensure the fire protection systems will work as designed?
  234. What position should all control valves be found in during inspection?
    Open and locked
  235. Which type of sprinkler system is found in ordnance plants?
  236. Who is usually the authority having jurisdiction for a state fire code?
    State fire marshal
  237. Which NFPA standard covers preincident planning?
  238. How often is the code updated by the model code process?
    Every 2 to 4 years
  239. At which phase has the fire already flashed over?
    Fully developed
  240. Who should the preincident plan be valuable to?
    Fire department and the owner
  241. With how many people being able to be treated as a minimum will a facility be classified as a health care facility?
  242. Which of the following often works closely with the fire department when sheltering of evacuated people is required?
  243. What event is being looked at when evaluating the construction of the building during preincident planning?
    Potential for collapse
  244. What are documents developed by a professional code-making organization and made available for adoption by authorities having jurisdiction?
    Model codes
  245. What is the second most important reason for a fire company to perform an ongoing code compliance inspection?
    Status of built-in fire protection features
  246. In which step are life safety considerations evaluated during the preincident plan?
    Step 2
  247. What size hose outlets are found on a Class I standpipe system?
    2.5 inch (6.3 cm)
  248. Which NFPA standard contains the marking system for hazardous materials?
  249. Which item is placed in a special section of the capital budget?
  250. Which of the following allows for a member of the fire department to be the custodian of an amount of cash that is provided by the organization?
    Petty cash system
  251. How is the cost of a vehicle to the fire department calculated?
    Per mile basis
  252. What was proposed to be activated when Philadelphia proposed closing four engine companies and four ladder companies in 2004?
    Medic units
  253. What is a method to ensure there are funds available in a budget account to cover a medium sized purchase?
    Purchase order
  254. How many shifts do some fire departments close selected fire companies in an effort to reduce overtime?
    One per day
  255. Which part of the numbering system (02-12301-876543) of aline-item budget identifies the fund?
    First two digits (02)
  256. What should the repayment period of the bond be equal to at least?
    Once the anticipated life span of the facility
  257. Where have some of the most challenging economic situations occurred in recent history?
  258. What is used to ensure funds are available when purchasing a new hydraulic extrication tool?
  259. What is the amount of money it would take to maintain the current level of fire services?
    Base budget
  260. What is a certificate of debt issued by a government or corporation?
  261. Which type of funding is available to fire fighters via the Assistance to Firefighters Program?
  262. How often does an ambulance have to be replaced?
    Every 3 or 4 years
  263. Which is a separate local government unit that is specifically organized to collect taxes in order to provide fire protection?
    Fire district
  264. Which bidding process is often used for very large or complex purchases?
    Request for proposal
  265. When does the fiscal year begin?
    July 1
  266. How much of the annual budget of the career fire department is allocated to personnel expenses?
  267. Which is often done to increase efficiency by reducing duplication in staff and services?
    Consolidate services
  268. Which is one of the more traditional methods of fundraising for volunteer fire departments?
    Sponsoring gaming activities
  269. Over what period of time are bonds repaid?
    10-30 years
  270. Which type of communications approach is necessary in emergency communications?
  271. What contains all of the instructions that tell the computer how to function?
  272. What is the minimum sized margins that should be used when submitting a news release?
    1-inch (3 cm)
  273. How many input sources can the human brain process at onetime easily?
  274. Which of the following is responsible for ensuring the message is understandable?
    The sender
  275. Which is a narrative of the actions taken at an incident or accident?
    Chronological statement of events
  276. What is the first step when preparing a news release?
    Formulate a plan
  277. At what frequency is a report documenting the company's number of emergency responses and inspections made?
  278. Who must contribute to an expanded incident report?
    All company members
  279. How far should the microphone be held from your mouth when using a radio during emergency communications?
    2 inches (5 cm)
  280. Which type of document has the goal to provide enough information and persuasion to make the intended individual comfortable with accepting your recommendation?
    Decision document
  281. What should be used to separate the heading from the text of the news release?
    Five to seven pound signs
  282. What is a good method to keep the conversation on the topic at hand?
    Directed questioning
  283. Which report is required by most state worker's compensation agencies when an employee is injured?
    Supervisor's report
  284. What are formal documents that address a specific subject, policy, condition or situation?
    General orders
  285. How long should the statement of the problem be in the decision document?
    One- or two-sentence
  286. Who should be contacted when reports or documentation are requested?
    Legal counsel
  287. What is the second thing the officer should do during a verbal presentation?
    Make an interest statement
  288. What completes the communication cycle?
  289. Within what time period after the incident should the supervisor's first report be submitted?
    24 to 72 hours
  290. Which of the following is an item the fire officer should communicate to the chief officer?
    Matters that may cause controversy
  291. What provides a record of all of the emergency, routine and special activities that occur at the fire station?
    Company journal
  292. Which is the most common form of reporting?
    Verbal communication
  293. In which direction does the designation of the sides of the building move?
  294. In which level of staging do only the predesignated units respond directly to the scene, and later-arriving units remain uncommitted and wait for further instruction?
    Level I
  295. In which mode does the incident commander establish a command post immediately?
  296. In which ESF is the U.S. Forest Service the primary agency?
    ESF 4
  297. Which system was designed to be used on everyday incidents, but could be expanded for larger scale situations?
  298. How many single resources are used to form a task force?
    Two to five
  299. At what level are the overall direction and goals for the incident set?
  300. How is the span of control maintained?
    Adding levels of management
  301. What should be the primary purpose of the review process?
    Educational and training tool
  302. In which of the following is the incident commander's role to direct incoming units to take effective action?
    Command mode
  303. What is the standard procedure used to manage uncommitted resources at an incident?
  304. Who is responsible for developing and maintaining the FRP?
  305. Which incident management resource includes community relations and financial management?
    Support annexes
  306. Which section is responsible for providing supplies, services and facilities during the incident?
  307. Which section is responsible for updating the incident action plan?
  308. Which has been formed when five units of the same type are combined together with an assigned leader?
    Strike team
  309. When did the National Fire Academy begin teaching ICS as the model system for emergency management?
  310. Which is responsible for the management of all actions that are directly related to controlling the incident?
    Operations section
  311. Which section usually performs its function after the smaller incident has been completed?
  312. What is the front of a building generally designated as?
    A (Alpha)
  313. Which types of assignments are usually defined by a geographical location?
  314. At what level is the physical work actually accomplished?
  315. When was the first requirement for fire fighter accountability as required in the first edition of NFPA 1500?
  316. Which represent functional operations?
  317. Which was created by the major fire agencies in Southern California to develop a more effective system to deal with major incidents involving multiple agencies?
  318. In which ESF is FEMA the primary agency?
    ESF 9
  319. Which is a supervisory level established in either the operations or logistics function to provide a span of control?
  320. Which fire department developed the Fireground Command System?
    Phoenix Fire Department
  321. Which space does the R-13 automatic sprinkler system protect?
    Living room
  322. When does the second phase of the NFA's size-up process begin?
    On receipt of an alarm
  323. How many flues exist in a zero-clearance chimney, which can catch fire when the temperature is raised above its design parameters?
  324. What is the activity that drives most fire department training, operations and organizational structures?
    Offensive attack
  325. Which of Lloyd Layman's five-step process must be estimated?
  326. What is the third tactical priority?
  327. Which type of construction, common until the 1930's, incorporated void spaces in the exterior walls?
    Balloon frame
  328. Up to what distance from the fire building is considered an exposure with the NFA fire flow formula?
    100 feet (30 meters)
  329. What is at the top of the tactical priorities list?
  330. What are specific assignments that are typically performed by one company or a small number of companies working together?
  331. What amount of time is used when determining the flow rate needed with the Iowa State University Rate-of-Flow Formula?
    30 seconds
  332. Which type of leadership is required at the emergency scene?
  333. What can the fire officer use to determine the number of hoselines that will be needed and number of engine companies required to mount an effective attack?
    Fire flow
  334. What rough rule of thumb did Kimball present for estimating the needed fire flow per 100 cubic feet?
    3 gpm (11 L per minute)
  335. Generally how often does a personnel accountability report occur?
    10 minutes
  336. Which formula can be used to determine the flow rate needed for a building that is partially involved and accounts for water needed for exposure protection?
    NFA fire flow
  337. Which step of Layman's size-up process does phase one of the NFA's size up process closely mirror?
  338. What is the fourth step in Layman's size-up procedure?
  339. When should size-up of an incident begin?
    Before arrival
  340. In which type of attack are operations changing?
    Transitional attack
  341. What is the key factor in selecting the appropriate strategic mode for the incident?
    Risk/benefit analysis
  342. What is implemented when a significant emergency occurs and requires the response of multiple agencies?
    Local emergency plan
  343. Which operational branch is responsible for communications and fire fighter rehabilitation at the high-rise fire?
  344. Which operation involves securing the building and protecting it from weather?
  345. What is one of the most significant factors in size-up?
  346. Which motivation for arson is centered around an abortion clinic or religious institutions?
  347. Which fires are the most deadly form of arson?
  348. Who is the only person who should conduct interviews when it is determined that a crime has been committed?
    Police officer
  349. What is the blackened remains of a carbon-based material after it has burned?
  350. What should the report begin with when describing the results of the fire scene investigation?
    Description of exterior damage
  351. What characterizes the best investigation report?
  352. Which type of evidence includes incendiary devices?
  353. How do wildland fires spread through convection?
  354. What is the leading cause of home fires in the United States?
  355. Where is a disabled sprinkler system most likely to be encountered with an incendiary fire?
    Large industrial fire loss
  356. What is the flammable liquid of choice for amateur arsonists and has resulted in many being burned?
  357. Which type of questions are most beneficial when conducting interviews to gather information about a fire event?
  358. What are materials that are used to move fire from one room to another?
  359. Where on the list of common fires does smoking come into play?
  360. Which NFPA standard contains the procedures for fire and explosion investigations?
  361. How do most investigators document physical evidence before collecting it?
    Taking 35-mm photographs
  362. Once the investigator has determined where the fire started, how is his or her scope of the search authority changed?
    It is limited to that area
  363. Which type of reasoning must be used when determining the cause of the fire?
  364. Which is the most common cause of fire?
  365. Which fire cause classification includes fires that do not involve a deliberate human act?
  366. What is a catastrophic event usually the result of according to the research by Dr. Robert Helmreich?
    Chain of error events
  367. What is the first step in a successful debriefing?
    Just the facts
  368. In the mid-1980's how did urban fire commanders report making decisions on the fireground?
    From previous experience
  369. Who is it recommended facilitate the debriefing?
    Someone who was not at the incident
  370. Which of the following helps prevent task overload from occurring?
    Soliciting input from others
  371. Soliciting input from others
    What do we all need to know?
  372. What amount of extra time have seasoned officers found canmake the difference in decisions at an incident scene?
  373. What amount of extra time have seasoned officers found can make the difference in decisions at an incident scene?
    30 to 60 seconds
  374. What is the focal point of CRM in conflict resolution?
    What is right
  375. Which is the behavior modification system that is designed to achieve maximum mission effectiveness in a time-constrained environment?
    Crew resource management
  376. Which of the following results in tunnel vision at an incident?
  377. What is in the triangle of leadership?
    Trust and respect, Leadership skills, Effective leadership
  378. Which step in Todd Bishop's five-step assertive statement process would involve the following statement, "That smoke is really pushing from those windows. I have a bad feeling about it."?
    State your concern
  379. What is the rule as the first challenge in the journey to reduce fire fighter injuries?
    Human error
  380. How many fire fighters are experiencing lost-time injuries each year despite the advancements in technology?
  381. What is often the first link in a chain of errors that leads to a calamity?
    Loss of situational awareness
  382. What is quickly compromised when task overload occurs?
  383. What is the informal authority to lead derived through?
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Fire Officer
Fire Officer Principles and Practices
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