JP101 thru 112

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  1. What is the approximate percentage of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases at 18,000 feet MSL?
    21 percent oxygen, 78 percent nitrogen and 1 percent other gases.
  2. Which of the following is the best description of atmospheric pressure and its cause?
    The combined weight of all the atmospheric gases which is caused by gravity pulling the gas molecules earthward and thermal and solar radiation expanding the gases outward toward space.
  3. What are the common units used to measure atmospheric pressure?
    Inches of mercury (inHg) , Millimeters of mercury (mmHg), AND Pounds per square inch (psi)
  4. What is the notation for the partial pressure of gases?
    PO2 partial pressure of oxygen, PCO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide, PN2 partial pressure of nitrogen.
  5. TRUE OR FALSE:  PO2 increases and the percentage of oxygen decreases as the altitude increases.
  6. What is the temperature lapse rate up to approximately 35,000 feet?
    About 2°C per 1,000 feet
  7. The human body is adapted to what physiological division of the atmosphere?
    Physiological zone
  8. WHAT LAW....Explains why a balloon expands as it ascends and also why a volume of air expands when trapped in a body cavity when the pressure is reduced aound it.
    Boyle's Law
  9. WHAT LAW...Explains why a soda pop bubbles after it is opened.
    Henry's Law
  10. WHAT LAW...Explains how exposure to a high altitude can reduce the available oxygen
    Dalton's Law
  11. WHAT LAW...Explains why the temperature increases in a cylinder that is being pressurized.
    Charles' law
  12. WHAT LAW...Explains how oxygen moves out of the lungs into the bloodstream.
    Law of Gaseous Diffusion
  13. The purpose of respiration is to get __________________ into the body and remove excess
    __________________ _____________.
    Oxygen, carbon dioxide
  14. What is/are the site(s) of gas exchange in the lung between the atmosphere and the blood?
  15. What is the normal breathing rate of an average adult?
    12-16 Breaths per minute
  16. What is the most important factor in the control of ventilation under normal conditions?
  17. What is the main function of red blood cells?
    Carry oxygen
  18. During ascent (as ambient pressure decreases), gases trapped within body cavities will __________________.
  19. The four areas of the body influenced by the mechanical effects of trapped gases are:
    • Ears
    • Sinuses
    • G.I. Tract
    • Teeth
  20. What is the best method of preventing problems with the ears and sinuses in-flight?
    Do not fly with a cold.
  21. Type of DCS associated with:
    Deep, dull boring pain in a joint
  22. Type of DCS associated with deep, sharp pain centrally located under the sternum?
  23. Type of DCS associated with difficultly with aspiration?
  24. Type of DCS associated with visual disturbance?
    Central Nervous System
  25. Type of DCS associated with mottled and diffuse rash?
    Skin Manifestations
  26. Type of DCS associated with pain in the muscles?
  27. Type of DCS associated with itching sensation?
    Skin Manifestations
  28. Type of DCS associated with partial paralysis, loss of speech or hearing?
    Central nervous system
  29. Type of DCS associated with severe or persistent headache?
    Central nervous system
  30. Type of DCS associated with vertigo and loss of orientation?
    Central nervous system
  31. Type of DCS associated with tingling of one arm, leg, or side of body?
    Central nervous system
  32. Type of DCS associated with regions such as shoulders, knees, elbows and ankles?
  33. DCS is caused by _______________________ coming out of solution in the tissues and blood.
  34. List, in order, the corrective actions for any suspected or observed DCS.
    a. ________________ oxygen.
    b. ________________ the affected area.
    c. ________________ as soon as practical.
    d. Obtain ________________ ________________ (flight surgeon).
    e. ________________ therapy (if required).
    • a. 100% or maximum
    • b. immobilize
    • c. land
    • d. medical assistance
    • e. hyperbaric
  35. Adequate protection against DCS can be established by __________________ ________________ and or
    cabin pressure, denitrogenation
  36. The USAF and USN forbid flight within _______________ hours of a compressed air exposure for all normal flying operations.
  37. ________________ ________________ is usually caused by exposure to low barometric pressure.
  38. Type of hypoxia resulting from LOSS OF CABIN PRESSURIZATION
    Hypoxic Hypoxia
  39. Type of hypoxia resulting from COLD TEMPERATURES.
    Stagnant Hypoxia
  40. Type of hypoxia resulting from SHOCK.
    Stagnant Hypoxia
  41. Type of Hypoxia associated with ALCOHOL.
    Histotoxic Hypoxia
  42. Type of hypoxia resulting from DRUGS.
    Histotoxic Hypoxia
  43. Type of hypoxia resulting from CARBON MONOXIDE.
    Hypemic Hypoxia
  44. Type of hypoxia resulting from CYANIDE
    Histoxic Hypoxia
  45. Type of hypoxia resulting from HYPERVENTILATION.
    Stagnant Hypoxia
  46. Type of hypoxia resulting from OXYGEN EQUIPMENT MALFUNCTIONS.
    Hypoxic Hypoxia
  47. Type of hypoxia resulting from IMPROPER USE OF OXYGEN EQUIPMENT.
    Hypoxic Hypoxia
  48. Type of hypoxia resulting from "G" FORCES.
    Stagnant Hypoxia
  49. Type of hypoxia resulting from BLOOD DONATION.
    Hypemic hypoxia
  50. The most dangerous characteristic of hypoxia is its ________________ ________________.
    insidious onset
  51. Only 2 symptoms not associated with hypoxia:
    Muscle ache and Pain on Inhalation
  52. TRUE or FALSE:  The time of onset of hypoxia and the severity of symptoms are identical with all crewmembers from one day to the next.
  53. ________________ of ________________ ________________ is the period of time from the interruption of the oxygen supply or exposure to an oxygen poor environment, to the time when useful function is lost.
    Time, useful consciousness
  54. Which of the following factors decrease TUC?
    a. Increased phys activity
    b. Stress
    c. Sufficient oxygen sypplies
    d. Hypoxia (histotoxic, hypemic, stagnant)
    e. Rapid decompression
    f. Anxiety
    g. Increased altitude
    All but c. "sufficient oxygen supplies"
  55. A________________ ________________ can reduce your TUC by as much as ________________ percent.
    rapid decompression, 50%
  56. Hyperventilation is a condition in which the ________________ and or ________________ of breathing is abnormally increased
    rate, depth
  57. Hyperventilation causes an excessive loss of ________________ ________________ from the lungs and blood.
    carbon dioxide
  58. List five signs of hyperventilation
    • 1. muscle tightness/spasms
    • 2. increased rate/depth of breathing
    • 3. paleness
    • 4. Cold, clammy skin
    • 5. unconsciousness
  59. List 5 symptoms of hyperventilation
    • 1. diziness
    • 2. faintness
    • 3. slight nausea
    • 4. numbness
    • 5. tingling
    • 6. coolness
    • 7. muscle tremors
  60. TRUE or FALSE: The most frequent cause of hyperventilation in flying training is stress.
  61. TRUE or FALSE: Hyperventilation can be voluntarily induced or corrected by consciously increasing or decreasing your rate and depth of breathing.
  62. Complete the crewmember’s emergency procedures for the treatment of hyperventilation and or hypoxia.
    a. _____________ oxygen under _____________
    b. Connections —
    c. Breathe at a _____________ and depth slightly less than normal until symptoms _____________.
    d. Descend below _____________ feet MSL and land as soon as _____________.
    • a. maximum, pressure
    • b. check security
    • c. rate, disappear
    • d. 10,000, possible
  63. The main reasons for aircraft pressurization are to
    eliminate pressure breathing and 100 percent oxygen.
  64. List additional advantages of aircraft pressurization.
    • a. reduced need for supplemental oxygen
    • b. reduced expansion of G.I. gas
    • c. control temp and humidity
    • d. move with encumberance of oxygen equipment
    • e. minimize fatigue
    • f. protect ears and sinuses from rapid pressure changes
  65. The primary, and most critical, disadvantage of aircraft pressurization is the potential for a ________________.
  66. TRUE or FALSE: The retina is the innermost layer of tissue of the eye.
  67. TRUE or FALSE: The rods and cones are light sensitive cells distributed over the retina.
  68. Characteristic of rods or cones?

    Most dense at the periphery of the retina
  69. Characteristic of rods or cones?

    Require high light levels to function
  70. Characteristic of rods or cones?

    Allow you to see gray tones under conditions of dim light
  71. Characteristic of rods or cones?

    Densest in the center of the retina
  72. Characteristic of rods or cones?

    Provide for peripheral vision
  73. Characteristic of rods or cones?
    Allow you to see detail under bright light conditions
  74. Characteristic of rods or cones?

    More sensitive to light
  75. What is the primary function of focal vision?
    Recognize and identify objects
  76. What is the primary function of peripheral vision?
    To orient oneself relative to the environment
  77. TRUE or FALSE: An object requires less motion to be seen in a clear blue sky than an object in a partly cloudy sky.
  78. In midair collisions, the primary peripheral visual cue of ________________ is not available. Therefore, you must acquire the target aircraft with your ________________ vision, using the scanning technique.
    motion, central
  79. TRUE or FALSE: Perception/reaction time is affected by physiological and perceptual limitations.
  80. TRUE or FALSE: Maximum scanning effectiveness is achieved by a series of short (long enough for the eye to focus), regularly spaced eye fixations.
  81. What is the acronym used for reporting laser exposures?
    • Location
    • Appearance
    • Scanning (or tracking)
    • Effects
    • Regularity
  82. The retina contains two blind spots, the ___________ blind spot formed by the optic disk and the __________ blind spot caused by the concentration of cones in the fovea.
    Anatomical, night
  83. _____ are found outside the fovea and in the peripheral areas of the retina.
  84. Most dangerous category of spatial disorientation is...
    Unrecognized (Type I)
  85. The rarely experienced, but dangerous type of spatial disorientation is...
    Incapacitating (Type III)
  86. The least dangerous type of spatial disorientation is...
    Recognized (Type II)
  87. List the 4 sensory systems enabling you to maintain orientation, equilibrium and balance.
    • 1. visual
    • 2. vestibular
    • 3. seat-of-the-pants
    • 4. auditory
  88. The system primarily used for orientation is the ________________ system. In the absence of ________________cues, the ________________system becomes dominant.
    visual, visual, vestibular
  89. The primary means the visual system uses to collect orientation cues is ________________ ________________.
    peripheral vision
  90. The vestibular system’s two subsystems are the ________________ ________________ and the ________________ ________________.
    semicircular canals, otolith organs
  91. The ________________ ________________ detect angular accelerations and are responsible for________________ illusions
    semicircular canal, somatogyral
  92. The ________________ ________________ detect linear accelerations and are responsible for________________ illusions.
    otolith organs, somatogravic
  93. The ________________ system is useless as an orientation system in the absence of accurate visual cues
  94. Somatogyral illusion which results when you move your head out of a plane of motion and perceive a tumbling sensation.
    Coriolis Illusion
  95. Somatogyral illusion that is set up by a roll rate below the threshold of 0.14°/sec2 to 0.5°/sec2 and then correcting with a roll in the opposite direction at a roll rate greater than the threshold
    The Leans
  96. Somatogyral illusion that results when you correct for a spin or spiral and sense you have entered a spin in the opposite direction or are turning in the opposite direction.
    The graveyard spin/spiral
  97. Somatogravic illusions result from the stimulation of which organs?
    Otolith organs
  98. The ________________ ________________ occurs when the aircraft is in a turn and you are head-up looking towards the inside of the turn or head-down looking towards the outside of the turn.
    G-excess effect
  99. The interconnection of the vestibular system with the visual system causes _________________: a reflexive response of the eyes to stimulation of the semicircular or otolith organs.
  100. TRUE or FALSE: Like all other vestibular illusions, the elevator illusion is increased when external visual cues are limited or absent.
  101. Environmental or physiological factor influencing succeptibility to spatial-D?

    You have little or no control over
  102. Environmental or physiological factor influencing succeptibility to spatial-D?

    Mental and physical fatigue
  103. Environmental or physiological factor influencing succeptibility to spatial-D?

    Alcohol and self-medication
  104. Environmental or physiological factor influencing succeptibility to spatial-D?

    You have some control over
  105. Environmental or physiological factor influencing succeptibility to spatial-D?

    Flight weather
  106. Environmental or physiological factor influencing succeptibility to spatial-D?

    Type and duration of mission
  107. List three methods you can use to prevent or minimize the threat of spatial disorientation.
    • a. understand limitations
    • b. remedy correctable factors
    • c. use capabilities properly
    • d. recognize high-risk situations
    • e. stay alert!
  108. List four techniques you can use to overcome spatial disorientation.
    • a. transition to instruments
    • b. believe the instruments
    • c. back up the pilot flying on instruments
    • d. minimize head movements
    • e. fly straight and level
    • f. be prepared to transfer/assume control
    • g. egress
  109. TRUE or FALSE
    Motion sickness increases if good outside visual references exist.
  110. Noise is ___________  ___________.
    unwanted sound
  111. The primary characteristics of noise concerning crewmembers are ________________, ________________, and ________________.
    intensity, frequency, duration
  112. The number of times (each second) compression and rarification of air occurs is ________________.
  113. Noise (sound) intensity perceived by the human ear is measured in ________________.
  114. The two types of hearing loss you can suffer are ________________ hearing loss and ________________ hearing loss.
    conductive, sensorineural
  115. Crewmembers on the flightline are being exposed to 97 dB of noise. Their time of maximum unprotected exposure to this noise before they must leave is ________________ minutes
    30 (this question's answer relies on figure 10-2 in the workbook)
  116. What is the most practical method of noise protection for you?
    Combination of protective devices
  117. Select the statements describing vibration.
    a. Approximate range hazardous to humans is 1 to 100 Hz.
    b. Relaxes the crewmember.
    c. Occurs throughout the frequency spectrum.
    d. Midfrequency and intensity are of most concern.
    a , c
  118. Select the effects of severe vibration on crewmember performance.
    a. Low frequency vibrations can significantly impair horizontal tracking, increasing tracking error by up to 40
    b. Vibration reduces reaction time for those events/tasks executed at the conscious level.
    c. Vibration can cause blurred vision and degrade visual acuity.
    d. Vibration is a major contributor to fatigue
    c , d
  119. An F-15E crew is on takeoff roll. They accelerate to 165 KIAS in 10 seconds. They experience________________ acceleration and ________________ G forces.
    linear, transverse
  120. An F-18 rolls into a dive toward a target, releases weapons, and begins a pullout. He is climbing, turning, and increasing speed from 360 KIAS to 450 KIAS. This time the pilot experiences ________________ acceleration.
  121. A positive Gz force is defined as the force being applied from the ________________ toward the________________.
    head, feet
  122. Define negative Gz force.
    Force acting from feet to head
  123. An aircrew is having problems figuring out the attitude of their aircraft. As the pilot makes a control input, the crew experiences congestion in their heads and lightweight feeling. What type of G force causes these symptoms?
  124. List the five factors determining the physical effects of G forces.
    • a. magnitude
    • b. rate
    • c. duration
    • d. direction
    • e. previous exposure
  125. Why would it be unadvisable to give aircraft control back to a crewmember immediately after recovering consciousness after a G-LOC incident?
    G-LOC victims may be disoriented for some time after regaining consciousness
  126. During a dual T-6A sortie, a student pulls 5 Gs in less than a second and experiences a G-LOC. When questioned by an Aerospace and Operational Physiology Officer about symptoms, the student said grayout or blackout did not occur prior to the G-LOC. Why would the student not experience any visual cues prior to G-LOC?
    Rapid G-onset rate give little or no visual warning prior to G-LOC
  127. The elements of the AGSM are
    a. ________________ ________________ tensing.
    b. ________________ breathing
    • a. skeletal muscle
    • b. cyclic
  128. The most common cause of G-LOC is an improperly performed AGSM. What do the most common errors involve?
    a. ________________ ________________
    b. ________________of the ________________
    c. Insufficient ________________ ________________ muscle ________________.
    • a. breathing cycle
    • b. timing, strain
    • c. lower body, tensing
  129. TRUE or FALSE:  A properly performed AGSM can increase your +Gz tolerance by as much as 4 Gs.
  130. Differentiate between blackout and G-LOC.
    • G-LOC = Unconsciousness
    • Blackout = Only loss of vision
  131. TRUE or FALSE: You can decrease your overall G tolerance by not eating properly and/or getting insufficient rest.
  132. Effects of acceleration due to positive or negative G?

    Visual Loss
  133. Effects of acceleration due to positive or negative G?

  134. Effects of acceleration due to positive or negative G?

    Mental confusion
  135. Effects of acceleration due to positive or negative G?

    Blood pooling in lower extremeties
  136. Effects of acceleration due to positive or negative G?

    Extreme feeling of congestion in the head
  137. Effects of acceleration due to positive or negative G?

    Feeling of increased weight with resultant loss of mobility
  138. Effects of acceleration due to positive or negative G?

    Blackout and possible unconsciousness
  139. What type of OTC drug produces 
    THESE undesirable side effects.

    Stomach irritation, dizziness, skin rashes, heartburn, blurred vision
    Pain Killers
  140. What type of OTC drug produces THESE undesirable side effects.

    Nervousness, tremors, increased blood pressure and heart rate, dehydration due to increased sweating, sleep and disturbances
    Diet pills
  141. What type of OTC drug produces THESE undesirable side effects.

    Shakiness, increased heart rate, blurred vision, increased dehydrations, dizziness, nausea, headaches
  142. What type of OTC drug produces THESE undesirable side effects.

    Dizziness, blurred vison, tremors, headaches
  143. What type of OTC drug produces THESE undesirable side effects.

    Drowsiness, diminished alertness, increased reation times
  144. Air Force policy does not allow crewmembers to fly within _________ hours after consuming alcoholic beverages.

    Furthermore, you must not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or
    its __________________.
    12, aftereffects
  145. Navy Policy is _________ hours from bottle to ___________.
    12, mission plan (brief)
  146. What is the best way to avoid the effects alcohol has on your performance as a crewmember?
    practice abstinence
  147. What is the immediate danger of carbon monoxide from cigarette smoke?
    It inhibits the blood's oxygen carrying capacity
  148. Bagels, pretzels, granola bars, fresh fruits, vegetables, etc. are recommended snacks containing complex carbohydrates. What is the advantage of these foods over a coke and a candy bar?
    Avoids hypoglycemia
  149. List five signs and symptoms of dehydration.
    • a. thirst
    • b. sleepiness
    • c. nausea
    • d. mental impairment
    • e. fatigue
  150. TRUE or FALSE
    Chronic fatigue is caused by the normal daily activities of a crewmember and is remedied with a good night’s sleep and rest.
  151. Caffeinated beverages can increase your dehydration rate. As a result, your _________ and _________ fatigue increases and your _________ decreases as you become dehydrated.
    mental, physical, performance
  152. Identify four methods of combating stress in the flying environment
    • a. place demands into perspective
    • b. maintain a healthy diversity in your life
    • c. eliminate self-imposed stress
    • d. exercise
Card Set
JP101 thru 112
JP 101 thru 112
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