Neurogenics Test 3

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megxcorkie
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243669
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Neurogenics Test 3
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2013-10-29 22:26:14
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CMDS 4400
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Class game
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  1. What does intensity refer to? perceived magnitude or strength of stimulus
    perceived magnitude or strength of stimulus
  2. What does mediation refer to?
    elicitation of one response by another response
  3. What is aphasia?
    loss of language due to brain damage
  4. What is the name for facial recognition deficits?
    Prosopagnosia
  5. ____ is the most important patient-related variable for predicting recovery from TBI.
    Age
  6. Which of the following is NOT a fluent type of aphasia?
    A. Broca’s
    B. Conduction
    C. Anomic
    D. Wernicke’s
    A. Broca’s
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. What is anosognosia?
    Denial of illness
  8. __________ is/are the leading cause of Apraxia of Speech.
    A. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
    B. Increasing age
    C. Strokes
    D. Aphasia
    C. Strokes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Which of the following is diagnosed in patients with dementia?
    a. Personality change
    b. Impaired language
    c. Impaired judgment
    d. All of the above
    d. All of the above
  10. Give an example of a factor that affects a clinician’s decision in what to treat in therapy.
    The clinician’s attitudes about the nature and purpose of treatment.
  11. What are accommodation tasks?
    Tasks the patient has mastered in previous sessions
  12. Irreversible aphasic syndrome is also known as _______ ________.
    A. global aphasia
    B. fluent aphasia
    C.broca's aphasia
    D. receptive aphasia
    A. global aphasia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. A condition in which affected individuals fail to respond to stimuli on the side of the body opposite the side of brain injury is called _____.
    neglect
  14. Which type of personality is more likely to experience traumatic brain injuries?
    A. type B
    B. type A
    C. type I
    D. type II
    B. type A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. In which type of brain injury do the meninges remain intact and foreign substances do not enter the brain?
    A. post-traumatic amnesia
    B. penetrating brain injuries
    C. non-penetrating brain injuries
    C. non-penetrating brain injuries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. T or F- In crossover designs, 2 or more behaviors are measured in baseline sessions.
    True
  17. T or F- Aphasia is a loss of total brain functioning.
    False
  18. T or F- All types of Aphasia have trouble with naming things.
    True
  19. Dementia is caused by traumatic brain injuries
    False
  20. Dementia incidence increases rapidly with age
    True
  21. What does PACE stand for?
    Promoting Aphasics’ Communicative Effectiveness
  22. List the parts of the 3-part program for enhancing aphasic adults’ word retrieval in connected speech as described by Rosenbeck and associates.
    • 1) Diagnosis,
    • 2) Strategy Development and Practice,
    • 3) Stabilization and Generalization
  23. Which of following methods are used in treating the comprehension of spoken sentences?
    A) Answering Questions
    B) Following Spoken Directions
    C) Sentence Verification
    D) All of the above
    D) All of the above
  24. Define mediation
    The elicitation of one response by another response
  25. Which of the following is NOT typically a part of the treatment team?
    A) Physical Therapists
    B) Neurologists
    C) Occupational Therapists
    D) All of these are a part of the treatment
    D) All of these are a part of the treatment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. "The relevance of a skill, process, or ability to a client's daily life" is the definition for -----------?
    functionality
  27. What is the difference between feedback and clinician comments?
    feedback is contingent upon client's responses (specific); clinician comments are not (general)
  28. What is another name for irreversible aphasic syndrome?
    global aphasia
  29. Which of the following is considered the most constrained, simplest sentence production elicitation task?
    A. picture-story elaboration drills
    B. sentence imitation drills
    C. sentence construction drills
    D. story completion drills
    B. sentence imitation drills
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Name at least 4 possible members of the treatment team for a brain-injured patient?
    neurologist, physiatrist, physical therapist, occupational therapist, vocational therapist, corrective therapist, recreation therapist, neuropsychologist, clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, dietician, speech-language pathologist, social worker, etc.
  31. T or F: According to Holdred Schuell unidimensional aphasia is a general language impairment that crosses all language modalities: speaking, listening, reading, and writing.
    True
  32. Right Hemisphere Syndrome includes which of the following perceptual impairments
    A. Attentional impairments
    B. Recognition and expression of emotion
    C. Facial Recognition deficits
    D. All of the above
    D. All of the above
  33. T or F: Most traumatic brain injuries are caused by drugs, alcohol, or genetics.
    False
  34. To qualify as dementia, the person’s impairments must meet certain criteria. Name at least 3 criteria
    • 1)Insidious onset
    • 2)not caused by delirium, schizophrenia, or major depression
    • 3)acquired
    • 4)persistent
    • 5)affects several areas of mental functions
    • 6)severe enough to interfere with work, social activities, and relationships with others.
  35. T or F: All patients with severe Apraxia of Speech regain enough volitional speech to permit them to communicate even simple messages by talking.
    False
  36. In the ___________________ approach to treatment, clinicians attempt to identify impairments in underlying processes that are thought to contribute to several related linguistic, cognitive, or communicative abilities.
    Fundamental processes
  37. What type of medical facilitator is responsible for the medical care of patients on rehabilitation wards?
    A) a clinical psychologist
    B) a neurologist
    C) a vocational therapist
    D) a physiatrist
    D) a physiatrist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. __________ is a procedure for evaluating generalization of skills or behaviors acquired in treatment to a person's daily life.
    A) sequential modification
    B) social validation
    C) mediating generalization
    D) training generalization
    B) social validation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Wernicke's area receives a large part of it's input from what part of the brain?
    A) arcuate fasciculus
    B) primary auditory cortex
    C) Broca's area
    D) primary motor cortex
    B) primary auditory cortex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. True or False: Apraxia denotes simplicity in carrying out sequences of volitional movements in the absence of weakness, paralysis, sensory loss, or incoordination in the muscles used for the movements.
    False
  41. List three professionals that could be a part of a patient’s treatment team.
    • -neurologist
    • -physiatrist
    • -physical therapist
    • -occupational therapist
    • -vocational therapist
    • -corrective therapists
    • -recreation therapist
    • -clinical psychologist
    • -psychiatrist
    • -SLP
    • -social workers
  42. (T or F) Sometimes clinicians who use the relative level of impairment treat in areas of greatest impairment (valleys), less often they treat areas of minimal impairment (peaks).
    False
  43. When do you increase the difficulty of a task for a brain injured patient?
    when 90% or more of the patient’s responses are immediate and correct
  44. ______ validation is a way of evaluating the daily life significance of changes created by treatment.
    social
  45. _______ feedback entails delivery of consequences that are intrinsically rewarding or punishing.
    incentive
  46. T/F: Dieticians are a part of a treatment team that an SLP might work with.
    True
  47. Which of these is not a type of aphasia?
    A. Global Aphasia
    B. Wernike’s Aphasia
    C. Abstract Aphasia
    D. Transcortical Motor Aphasia
    C. Abstract Aphasia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. T/F: For the average patient, a good general rule is to keep patient performance at 90-100% immediate and correct responses during the beginning of a given task and to increase difficulty of the task when correct and immediate responses exceed 90-95% over two or three administrations of task. False
    False
  49. T/F: Aphasia is an impairment in one’s ability to make propositions
    True
  50. Repetition is the ability to repeat verbatim what is said across levels from words to complex sentences.
    True
  51. True or False: A Neuropsychologist is part of the treatment team that works with patients.
    True
  52. True or False: In Conduction Aphasia patients can comprehend and are also fluent.
    True
  53. What is memory for past events and experiences?
    Declarative Memory
  54. What is it called when someone believes in existence of duplicate persons, places, body parts, or events?
    Reduplicative Paramnesia
  55. What does RHS stand for?
    Right Hemisphere Syndrome
  56. True or False: TBI is the leading cause of neurologic disability in people under the age of 50
    True
  57. Which of the follow is NOT a communication impairment associated with Right Hemisphere Syndrome?
    A. issues with organization of speech
    B. Articulation Problems
    C. diminished speech prosody
    D. pragmatic issues
    E. impaired comprehension
    B. Articulation Problems
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Name the four language parameters of the Boston Classification System for Aphasia:
    fluency, comprehension, repetition, naming
  59. True or False: Beginning clinicians do not provide nearly enough instructions to the patients and they become confused
    False
  60. What is the most common diagnosis of nursing home patients?
    Dementia
  61. T/F Strokes are the leading cause of AOS.
    True
  62. Clinicians decide what to treat based on all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. Clinician’s previous success and failures
    B. The pts DOB
    C. The clinician’s attitude about the nature and purpose of tx
    D. Conclusions about the nature of the pts communicative impairment
    B. The pts DOB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which of the following signs would NOT indicate Dementia?
    A. Changes in mood
    B. Apathy and loss of initiative
    C. Slow and effortful speech
    D. Memory failure
    C. Slow and effortful speech
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. T/F Aphasia only causes impairment in spoken language.
    False
  65. T/F TBI is more prevalent among adult males than females.
    True
  66. What is an early sign of dementia?
    • -memory failure 
    • -lapses of judgement 
    • -change in mood 
    • -misplacing things
  67. 3 main ways to help people cope with dementia?
    • 1. Information and support (caregivers and people with dementia)
    • 2. Books
    • 3. Support groups
  68. Dementia is the most commonly single diagnosis for nursing home residents
    TRUE
  69. Alzheimer's is an example of cortical dementia.
    TRUE
  70. Allie Hamilton from The Notebook suffers from what disease?
    dementia
  71. What are 2 symptoms of RHD?
    • 1. Insensitive to others
    • 2. Verbose, tangential, and rambling speech
  72. T/F- Right Hemisphere Language Battery is used to test the right hemisphere?
    True
  73. Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with TBI?
    A. Personality
    B. Place of birth
    C. Substance Abuse
    D. Socioeconomic status
    B. Place of birth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. T/F- Least severe TBI is defined as physiologic injury to the brain without evidence of structural alteration.
    TRUE
  75. T/F- Aphasia is the inability to use abstract language.
    TRUE
  76. What type of attention is sometimes known as orienting and has a lot in common with phasic alertness?
    A. Selective attention
    B. Alternating attention
    C. Sustained attention
    D. Focused attention 
    D. Focused attention
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. "Presence of information in a stimulus beyond that needed to specify the target response under ideal conditions" refers to:
    A. Redundancy  
    B. Contingency
    C. Elicit
    D. Context
    A. Redundancy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. T/F: PICA stands for "Porch Insight of Communicative Ability"
    False
  79. Which of the following is NOT a behavioral characteristic of right-hemisphere brain damage?
    A. Sensitive to others
    B. Oblivious to social conventions
    C. Unaware of their physical limitations
    D. Rambling speech
    A. Sensitive to others
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. What percentage of patients that are admitted into the hospital with a traumatic brain injury were intoxicated when admitted?
    A. 40-60% 
    B. 15-35%
    C. 70-90%
    D. 10-15%
    A. 40-60%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. What are 3 types of feedback?
    • 1. Incentive
    • 2. Information
    • 3. General encouragement
  82. T/F: Aphasia is the inability to use abstract language.
    TRUE
  83. What is a type of Subcortical Dementia?
    Parkinson’s Disease
  84. What is reception and recall of information about past experiences?
    Retrospective memory
  85. What does WAB stand for?
    Western Aphasia Battery
  86. What testing gives the most direct indication of phasic alertness?
    A. paper-and-pencil cancellation tasks
    B. choice reaction-time tests
    C. Stroop test
    D. reaction-time testing
    D. reaction-time testing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. What means that the context in which behavior is trained is purposely made to resemble the context to which the behavior is to generalize?
    A. Social validation
    B. Sequential modification
    C. Programming Common Stimuli
    D. training generalization
    C. Programming Common Stimuli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. T/F Surface dyslexia and deep dyslexia sometimes accompany aphasia
    true
  89. Which of the following is not a visuospatial skill? A. Clock drawing
    B. scanning and tracking
    C. Following written directions
    D. Checkbook entry and balancing
    D. Checkbook entry and balancing
  90. What does GOAT stand for?
    Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test
  91. Which type of feedback tells the recipient about the appropriateness, correctness, or accuracy of responses?
    Information Feedback
  92. Which member of the treatment team evaluates the patient’s nutritional needs and recommends dietary adjustments to correct nutritional deficiencies?
    Dietitian
  93. True/False: Using indiscriminable contingencies makes the generalization of behavior easier for the patient.
    True
  94. What type of attention refers to attending to more than 1 activity at the same time?
    Divided Attention
  95. True/False: Aphasia is a loss of language that only crosses into one modality (reading, writing, speaking, etc.) but not all.
    False
  96. What type of memory is being tested when the examiner asks the patient for personal info such as birthplace, school attendance, and employment history?
    Remote memory
  97. What is it called when the examiner doesn’t deliver a stimulus for a new trial until the last response has been recorded?
    Continuous scoring
  98. What type of task is popular with clinicians but may not produce lasting effects or improve the client’s daily life communication?
    Confrontation-naming tasks
  99. What type of impairment involves difficulty following familiar routes, reading maps, giving directions, etc?
    Topographic impairment
  100. What are caused by blows to the head that strike off center, causing it to to rotate and move at an angle away from impact?
    Angular acceleration injuries
  101. In which of the following designs are two or more behaviors measured in baseline sessions then the behaviors treated one after another?
    A) Crossover Designs
    B) Multiple Baseline Designs
    C) Baseline Treatment Designs
    D) Changing Criterion Designs
    A) Crossover Designs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. Which type of attention denotes basic responsiveness to stimulation?
    A) Focused Attention
    B) Selective Attention
    C) Alternating Attention
    D) Sustained Attention
    A) Focused Attention
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Which type of aphasia is caused by massive damage in the perisylvian region of the language dominant hemisphere?
    A) Wernicke's aphasia
    B) Broca's aphasia
    C) Conduction aphasia
    D) Global aphasia
    D) Global aphasia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Which type of drills are popular with clinicians but may not produce lasting effects?
    A) Sentence Production Drills
    B) Sentence Completion Drills
    C) Connected Speech Drills
    D) Confrontation Naming Drills
    D) Confrontation Naming Drills
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. What is the term that means denial of illness?
    Anosognosia
  106. What is "functional communication"?
    communication in contexts resembling daily life
  107. Increasing _____ & _____ of treatment stimuli can help brain-injured patients with impaired perception and attention.
    intensity & salience
  108. Which type of global aphasia slowly evolves to a less severe form?
    evolving global aphasia
  109. What does "neglect" mean in regards to perceptual impairments?
    affected individuals fail to respond to stimuli on the side of the body opposite to the side where the brain injury occurred
  110. What is component training?
    training designed to stimulate and reactivate cognitive and linguistic processes by means of drill activities that usually have little surface similarity to natural contexts
  111. What is the retention span for normal adults?
    7+/- 2 items
  112. What is a procedure for evaluating the functional significance of changes created by a treatment program?
    Social Validation
  113. Which is NOT a type of aphasia?
    --Anomic aphasia
    --Wernicke’s aphasia
    • Retrospective aphasia
    • --Broca’s aphasia
  114. What is PHW?
    Penetrating Brain Injuries
  115. What is a type of cortical dementia?
    Alzheimer's Disease
  116. Who might Word Recognition Drills be appropriate for?
    Patients who cannot read at the sentence level and who exhibit signs of either surface dyslexia or deep dyslexia
  117. What does Social Validation do?
    It attempts to determine whether a patient is better in a real world sense than he or she was before.
  118. Name one of the ways Tompkins suggests to enhance right-hemisphere damaged adult’s generalization of behavior across settings.
    Train self-instruction and verbal mediation.
  119. What does the Glascow Coma Scale rate?
    Head-Injured patient’s level of consciousness.
  120. Who does the Brief Test of Head Injury screen?
    Adults with severe impairments following traumatic brain injury.
  121. What are the major cognitive processes supporting communication?
    attention, memory, and executive function
  122. What are the two ways social validation can be accomplished?
    Compare the socially relevant behavior of the patient with the behavior of a normal group of peers & obtain subjective evaluations of behaviors from patient’s family
  123. What are the three types of global aphasia?
    acute,evolving, and chronic
  124. Name 3 symptoms that people with right hemisphere brain injury might have
    • 1. insensitive to others, preoccupied with self
    • 2. oblivious to social conventions
    • 3. unaware of or inattentive to their physical and mental limitations….
  125. What percentage of patients admitted to hospitals with traumatic brain injuries are intoxicated?
    about half 40-60%
  126. ________ _________ is a perceptual impairment with which and individual has difficulty orienting to extra-personal space.
    Topographic impairment
  127. (T/F) TBI is the result of gradual, external forces acting on the skull and brain.
    False
  128. ________ _________ drills are used to move patients from repetition to less constrained responses.
    Repetition-elaboration
  129. What are three types of generalization procedures?
    (choose 3) Loose training, sequential modification, training generalization, mediating generalization, programming common stimuli, training sufficient exemplars or using natural maintaining contingencies
  130. What is a generic label for speech in which a person produces several utterances in response to a stimulus, topic, or event?
    Connected speech
  131. The “immediate memory” places info into what type of storage?
    short term storage/memory
  132. How can “procedural memory” be accessed?
    through actually performing the task
  133. What are the 4 types of memory that are tested?
    retention span, recall new info, retrieval info from remote memory, visual memory
  134. With what skills do the SLP collaborate with the OT?
    visual perception, reading & writing
  135. What are two different methods/designs for assessing the effects of treatment?
    baseline treatment design/multiple-baseline designs/crossover designs/changing criterion designs
  136. Name 2 people that are included in a treatment team?
    Neurologists, psychiatrists, physical therapists, occupational therapists, vocational therapists, corrective therapists, recreation therapists, SLPs, social workers, dietician
  137. True/false: TBI is leading cause of neurologic disability in persons under age of 50.
    TRUE
  138. What is a loss of language as a result of brain damage?
    Aphasia
  139. What are the three components of working memory?
    Central executive, phonological loop, and Visuospatial sketch pad
  140. What are 2 early signs of dementia?
    Memory failure, disorientation, lapses in judgement, difficulty performing ADLs, misplacing things, apathy and loss of initiative, and changes in mood
  141. _______ is a way of evaluating the daily life significance of changes created by treatment.
    Social Validation
  142. _____ Recognition drills may be appropriate for patients who cannot read at the sentence level and who exhibit signs of either surface dyslexia or deep dyslexia.
    Word
  143. ___________ means denial of illness and is common in right hemisphere injury patients
    Anosognosia
  144. This test is designed to measure the effects of of neglect on everyday activities.
    Behavioral Inattention Test
  145. ______ provide a dependable way for clinicians to help patients correct or recover from error responses
    Cues

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