Inspector

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gambit
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244907
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Inspector
Updated:
2013-11-04 12:32:07
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Capt Test
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Fire Inspector
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  1. Which Amendments to the U.S. Constitution allow an occupant to refuse entry to a building inspector?
    Fourth and Fourteenth
  2. What does the private-sector inspector that is employed by an insurance company function as?
    Risk assessor
  3. Who manages the fire and life safety program in the large municipality?
    Fire marshal
  4. Which term means when one party agrees to compensate another party for losses that are incurred if specific events occur?
    Indemnify
  5. Who should the insurance inspector work with to ensure that the insurance requirements meet or exceed the locally adopted fire code?
    Municipal inspector
  6. What should be used by the inspector to keep abreast of changes?
    Periodic training
  7. Which term is used to describe acts involving actions inspectors consider necessary to fulfill their responsibilities?
    Discretionary acts
  8. Which NFPA standard should be referenced by the inspector?
    1031
  9. Which department may be responsible for codes that govern pyrotechnic displays?
    Code enforcement department
  10. Which UL standard relates to dry chemical fire extinguishers?
    UL 299
  11. What is the primary goal of all fire-prevention code activities?
    Compliance
  12. What are the codes known as that apply to buildings which are under the jurisdiction of the United States Department of Defense?
    Unified Facility Criteria
  13. Which ASTM code contains the standard test methods for fire tests of roof coverings?
    E108-07a
  14. Which term is used to describe a set of requirement ssimilar to a standard?
    Model code
  15. If an amendment is made to the Automatic Sprinkler System Section 903 that relates to the installation of sprinklers in residential occupancies, Section 903.2.7, how should it be noted?
    Section 903.2.7.1
  16. What is the formal, open meeting by a legislative body to study the merits of the proposed legislation?
    Study session
  17. How many persons with experience in the field of fire prevention or building construction are generally on the Board of Appeals?
    Three to seven
  18. How long after the adoption of a new code is the effective enforcement date generally?
    90 days
  19. Which only becomes law when it is legally adopted by a jurisdiction?
    Standard
  20. Which is the Uniform Fire Code that an inspector should be familiar with?
    NFPA 1
  21. Which party does the inspector represent when a case must be prosecuted?
    State
  22. Which organization is involved when a manufacturer wants to contest test results of their products or materials?
    ANSI
  23. Which NFPA standard is the Building Construction and Safety Code?
    5000
  24. What do most jurisdictions issue if the violation is not corrected within a certain time?
    Sanction
  25. What is the typical life cycle of the model code edition?
    3 to 5 years
  26. What should be done when a model code does NOT address a local problem?
    Amend the code
  27. What step in the code adoption and amendment process involves soliciting public comments on the new code?
    Second
  28. Within what amount of time is an appeal most commonly required after the inspection has taken place?
    7 days
  29. Which of the following organizations performs annual testing of in-service equipment?
    UL
  30. Standards approved by which of the following are in general the basis for regulations that influence fire and life safety in Canada?
    SCC
  31. Which requirements are coupled with specific installation and construction techniques?
    Performance-based standards
  32. Which is a collection of rules and regulations enacted by a legislative body to become law in a particular jurisdiction?
    Code
  33. What is a set of principles, protocols or procedures that is developed by committees through a consensus process?
    Standard
  34. Who is usually assigned the task of preparing the new code legislation?
    Fire and life safety code official
  35. Which provide the inspector a guide of practices and designs that have proven successful?
    Standards
  36. What is an official document that grants a property owner permission to perform a certain activity?
    Permit
  37. Which of the following develops and publishes the majority of the consensus standards used in U.S. and Canadian jurisdictions?
    NFPA
  38. Which NFPA standard should the Life Safety Code Handbook be used with?
    101
  39. During which stage of the fire are alarm and suppression systems designed to react?
    Incipient
  40. What is flaming combustion an example of?
    Chemical chain reaction
  41. When which of the following elements are removed can afire continue to smolder depending on the fuel's characteristics?
    Chemical reaction
  42. What do organic fuels contain, that inorganic fuels do not?
    Carbon
  43. Which temperature range is widely accepted as to when flashover occurs?
    900 to 1,200 degrees Fahrenheit (483 to 649 degrees Celsius)
  44. From how many sides can a fuel package in a corner entrain air?
    Two
  45. What does oxidation during flaming combustion need?
    Gaseous fuel
  46. Which becomes the dominant mode of heat transfer when afire grows in size?
    Radiation
  47. During which fire stage does the fire begin to influence the environment within the compartment?
    Growth
  48. What is the fuel in a combustion reaction known as in scientific terms?
    Reducing agent
  49. At what rate do most chemical reactions increase with each 18 degree Fahrenheit (10 degree Celsius) temperature increase?
    Doubles
  50. Which is considered the most significant when changing fire behavior?
    Changing ventilation
  51. What is the temperature at which a liquid releases sufficient vapors to ignite, but not sustain combustion?
    Flash point
  52. Approximately how many times does water expand when converted to steam at 212 degrees Fahrenheit (100 degrees Celsius)?
    1,700
  53. What is one of the most common methods of fire control and extinguishment?
    Temperature reduction
  54. Where is the neutral plane located in a compartment fire?
    At an opening
  55. What is the lowest oxygen concentration at which materials can ignite and burn at normal ambient temperatures (70 degrees Fahrenheit or 21 degrees Celsius)?
    14 percent
  56. Which fuels in an adjacent compartment tend to be more quickly pyrolized?
    Upper level contents
  57. What are reactions that absorb energy called?
    Endothermic
  58. When a fire is developing in a confined area what happens to the heat energy that is not absorbed?
    It is reflected
  59. By what factor does radiant energy increase as the temperature of the heat source increases?
    To the fourth power
  60. Which of the following involves ignition of a mixture of flammable combustion products and air that is within its flammable range?
    Smoke explosion
  61. Which solid material will NOT readily convert its physical shape and melt when exposed to fire?
    Thermosetting plastics
  62. What is the turning point temperature that distinguishes flammable from combustible liquids?
    100 degrees Fahrenheit (38 degrees Celsius)
  63. Which material will mix in water in any proportion?
    Miscible
  64. Which is the most common source of heat in combustion reactions?
    Chemical
  65. Which of the following may be an indicator of developing flashover conditions?
    Ghosting
  66. Which ICC designation is used for occupancies used for viewing of indoor sporting events?
    A-4
  67. What is the minimum amount of space required for each persons by the Canadian codes for a vocational training facility?
    9.3 square meters (100 square feet)
  68. What is used to subdivide the assembly classification?
    Type of activity
  69. What does the Canadian code classify hotels under?
    Group C
  70. Which of the following is a division used by the ICC for multiple occupancies?
    Incidental
  71. Over what size does the waste and linen collection room need to be in order for an incidental usage classification to be assigned by the ICC?
    100 square feet (9.3 square meters)
  72. What is the minimum dimension requirement for all structural members in a Type IV building?
    4 inches (101.6 mm)
  73. Up to what story would NOT be considered a high-rise structure?
    7 story building
  74. What is the maximum percentage of the area of the story it is located on that the accessory occupancy is limited to?
    10 percent
  75. How many people are included in the NFPA's assembly occupancy Class C?
    50 to 300
  76. Which type of construction consists of exterior bearing walls composed entirely of wood?
    Type V
  77. Which type of construction is more stable and resistant to collapse due to the effects of fire?
    Type IV
  78. Which of the following is common in Type V construction and creates a large, open void area between the floors of a structure?
    Truss system
  79. Which class of materials are seen in the mercantile occupancy in large quantities?
    Class A
  80. What is used in the construction of the floors of a Type III building?
    Metal stud system
  81. What type of fire-separation wall must be in place for a boarding house to be located above a mercantile occupancy?
    1-hour
  82. Under which ICC classification covers residential board and care?
    R-4
  83. Which type of material is seen being used for floor joist systems in Type III buildings?
    Wood
  84. Which of the following is used in the construction of a Type II building?
    Concrete block
  85. In a Type I construction building, what fire resistance rating is there for the floor construction?
    2 hour
  86. Which codes totally restricts combinations of occupancies when a high-hazard occupancy is involved?
    Canadian codes
  87. Which of the following does the Canadian code classify as a Group F: Division 2 medium hazard occupancy?
    Mattress factory
  88. Which part of a Type I construction building is NOT allowed to be made from combustible materials?
    Wall partitions
  89. Which fences would be classified under the utility/miscellaneous occupancy?
    7 foot (2.1 m)
  90. What is the minimum fire resistance rating that must be present for any materials used in construction of a Type IV building that is not composed of wood?
    1 hour
  91. Which type of construction is commonly used when building churches and schools?
    Type III
  92. What is the maximum number of persons that will be provided with accommodations but no cooking facilities under the NFPA definition of a rooming house?
    16
  93. In a Type III construction building, what fire resistance rating is there for the exterior bearing walls?
    2 hour
  94. What is the minimum number of people needed to classify a building as an educational occupancy?
    Six
  95. How many people are allowed per 20 square feet (1.85 square meters) of classroom space according to NFPA 101 and NFPA 5000?
    One
  96. Which is the only entity that uses the utility/miscellaneous classification?
    ICC
  97. What is the height limit imposed on the sprinkler protected glass panel?
    13 feet (3.9 m)
  98. What thickness must the thermal barrier be between plastics and the interior of the building?
    1/2 inch (13 mm)
  99. With which type of steel beam and girder frame are the joints designed to primarily support a vertical force?
    Simple
  100. What can be used to determine the method of construction of a masonry wall?
    Header course
  101. Where are the vertical steel rods placed in the masonry wall for reinforcement?
    Between two adjacent wythes
  102. What material is used in conjunction with the glass to produce fire-rated glass?
    Plastic
  103. What are placed between the stories of a platform framed building?
    Double 2 X 4 (50 mm by 100 mm) pieces of lumber
  104. Up to what fire resistance rating can the intumescent coating provide?
    3 hour
  105. What is the maximum moisture content in most structural lumber?
    19 percent
  106. What is the more commonly seen span of the open web joist?
    40 feet (12 m)
  107. What is the primary advantage to precasting concrete?
    Quality control
  108. Which is a major disadvantage to the use of precast concrete?
    Transportation
  109. What is the nominal thickness of boards?
    2 inches (50 mm)
  110. In how many directions does the reinforcing steel in the formwork of the waffle construction provide reinforcement?
    Two
  111. What is used in the construction of all buildings?
    Concrete
  112. Which is considered the most common method of supporting loads over openings in masonry walls?
    Lintels
  113. What are most plastics based upon?
    Carbon atom
  114. What is usually used to enclose a building supported by a concrete frame?
    Curtain wall
  115. Which type of gypsum board is used to eliminate the vapor barrier in outside walls?
    Foil-backed
  116. What rating does wired glass provide when used in a listed fire door?
    45-minute
  117. In which direction must one-story, rigid-frame structures be braced to prevent lateral deflections?
    Diagonally
  118. Which type of joints are the crown and knees of the steel rigid frame with inclined roof members generally?
    Rigid
  119. With which type of beam and girder steel frame does no change occur in the angle between the beam and the column when loads are applied?
    Rigid
  120. What is the horizontal layer of the masonry wall called?
    Course
  121. What is the carbon content of cast iron?
    Three to four percent
  122. What maximum height building is possible when using reinforced masonry ?
    Twenty stories
  123. What is the minimum size of the columns in heavy timber construction?
    8 X 8 inches (200 mm by 200 mm)
  124. What height are nonreinforced masonry walls usually limited to?
    Six stories
  125. What acts as a thermal barrier for the membrane structure?
    Small air space
  126. At what interval will there be a header course generally in the brick-bearing wall that can enable the inspector to identify this type of building from the outside?
    Every sixth course of brick
  127. Which of the following is a disadvantage to the use of steel in building construction?
    Can melt
  128. What is the single most important factor in determining the ultimate strength of concrete?
    Water-to-cement ratio
  129. What is often used when a beam transmits a large load to a masonry wall to reduce the compress stresses on the masonry?
    Pilaster
  130. What is the minimum thickness of a masonry wall?
    6 inches (150 mm)
  131. Within what amount of time after the initial report of the fire at the McCormick Place Fire did the collapse of the roof trusses occur?
    30 to 45 minutes
  132. Which are heavy steel trusses that are used to take the place of steel beams as part of the primary structural frame?
    Joist girders
  133. The use of which thickness of foam plastic in a roof covering would require automatic sprinklers in addition to the thermal barrier?
    4 inches (100 mm)
  134. What reduction in the design strength of fire-retardant structural lumber has been used in design calculations in the past?
    10 to 20 percent
  135. Which material is NOT suitable for exterior construction due to its ability to absorb water?
    Gypsum blocks
  136. What is the most commonly used sheathing material?
    Plywood
  137. How far apart are the posts generally spaced in post and beam framing?
    4 to 12 feet (1.3 m to 4.0 m)
  138. What is used when large unobstructed floors are needed?
    Steel arches
  139. What does the Exterior Insulation and Finish System resemble?
    Stucco
  140. How thick is the flat plate used in the cast-in-place concrete system?
    8 inches (200 mm)
  141. Which type of glass has a residual surface compression of greater than 3,500 psi (24 500 kPa) and less than 10,000 psi (70 000 kPa)?
    Heat-strengthened
  142. Which serves as the bonding agent in the mortar that is used in masonry walls?
    Portland cement
  143. What acts as a reinforcement and provides tensile strength for Type X gypsum board?
    Glass fibers
  144. What is generally the maximum length of heavy timbers cut from a single log?
    20 feet (6 m)
  145. Up to what length can laminated members be created in?
    100 feet (30.4 m)
  146. What is the nominal thickness of dimension lumber?
    2 to 4 inches (50 to 100 mm)
  147. What type of course is created when bricks are placed vertically on end when constructing a masonry wall?
    Soldier
  148. Structures built before what year will most likely have lath and plaster construction in them?
    1960
  149. Which masonry wall will have an inherently high degree of fire resistance?
    20 inch thickness (500 mm)
  150. Up to what length can members for use as rafters be supplied?
    24 feet (7.3 m)
  151. What are the slender cables used in bridge construction limited to supporting?
    Tension forces
  152. Which type of forces can develop in the concrete where the slab intersects the supporting columns?
    Shear
  153. What is seen as the maximum economical height for a wood frame structure?
    Three stories
  154. Which has been completely displaced by steel in modern practice in building construction?
    Cast iron

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