Capstone Microbiology

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  1. The ability of Staphylococcus epidermidis to colonize an indwelling medical device is associated with the ability to produce which of the following?
    B.Slime layer
    C.Pigment on blood agar.
    D.Beta lactamase
    B.Slime layer
  2. Three sets of blood cultures were drawn on a patient. One aerobic culture of the three was found to have coagulase negative Staph growing on the 5th day of incubation. This probably indicates:
    A.Patient had low grade bacteremia.
    B.The organism is likely a contaminant.
    C.The sub-cultured plates were contaminated.
    D.A subculture should have been done sooner.
    B.The organism is likely a contaminant.

  3. In the latex agglutination test for the presence of coagulase activity, there are 2 components of S. aureus that a positive test will detect. What are they?
    A.Free coagulase, Protein A
    B.Bound coagulase, Catalase
    C.Free coagulase, Teichoic acid
    D.Bound coagulase, Protein A
    D.Bound coagulase, Protein A
  4. On a Gram stain, if an MLT saw Gram positive cocci, it could be ____ or ____, and you could tell the difference between the two by the ____ test.
    A.Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, coagulase.
    B.Staphylococcus, Stenotrophomonas, coagulase.
    C.Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, catalase.
    D.Streptococcus, Enterococcus, catalase
    C.Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, catalase.
  5. Which of the following is true of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
    A.Lancet shaped diplococci
    B.Alpha hemolytic
    C.Optochin (P) disc sensitive
    D.All of the above.
    D.All of the above.

  6. A patient presents with lower quadrant pain and elevated WBC on urinalysis. The urine culture only had growth on the blood plate, not the MacConkey plate. Gram stain indicated Gram positive cocci, which was found to be PYR positive and able to hydrolyze esculin in the presence of bile salts. The organism was:
    A.Streptococcus pyogenes
    B.Streptococcus pneumoniae
    C.Enterococcus faecalis
    D.Streptococcus bovis
    C.Enterococcus faecalis

  7. If a known Strep is beta hemolytic and sensitive to Bacitracin, to which Lancefield group would it belong?

  8. If a known Strep is beta hemolytic and has a positive CAMP test, to which Lancefield group would it belong?

  9. Which of the following may be used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from another Staphylococcus species?
    A.Slide coagulase
    B.Tube coagulase
    D.All of the above
    • D.All of the above
  10. What Gram positive coccus is catalase +, DNase +, and may be beta hemolytic on blood agar?
    A.S. aureus
    B.S. saprophyticus
    C.S. pyogenes
    D.S. bovis
    A.S. aureus

  11. Which organism is often indicated in neonatal sepsis?
    A.S. pneumoniae
    B.S. agalactiae
    C.S. bovis
    D.S pyogenes
    B.S. agalactiae
  12. A 5 year old has meningitis, confirmed by her CSF being positive for an alpha hemolytic organism. On the Gram stain, it appears to be lancet shaped diplococci, but it appears gram negative. What organism is this?
    A.Neisseria meningitidis
    B.Haemophilus influenzae
    C.Streptococcus pneumoniae
    D.No organism fits this criteria
    D.No organism fits this criteria

  13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the family Enterobacteriaceae?
    A.Cytochrome oxidase negative
    B.Ferment lactose
    C.Catalase positive
    D.GNB on Gram stain
    • B.Ferment lactose
  14. The TSI (KIA) medium shows ferrous sulfide precipitation, obscuring the color of the TSI butt completely. How should this reaction be interpreted?
    A.Assume it to be acid,since H2S cannot be produced otherwise
    B.Cannot be read, repeat test
    C.Produced gas, report as aerogenic GNB
    D.Reincubation is needed to complete the reaction.
    A.Assume it to be acid,since H2S cannot be produced otherwise
  15. What describes a positive citrate reaction?
    A.Green slant, growth present
    B.Blue slant, green butt
    C.Yellow slant, red butt
    D.A and B
    E.A and C
    B.Blue slant, green butt
  16. After 18 hours of incubation at 35C, an MIO test demonstrated the following: Visible stab line (growth only on the stab line), Control tube yellow, Test tube yellow, Red-pink color after adding reagent. How should this be reported?
    A.Non-motile,ornithine --, indole --
    B.Motile,ornithine +,indole +
    C.Non-motile,ornithine --,indole +
    C.Non-motile,ornithine --,indole +
  17. Which of the following is produced when the bacterial enzyme tryptophanase breaks down the amino acid tryptophan?

  18. Identify the organism based on the following reactions: GNB, cytochrome oxidase--, lactose--, Indole--, Swarming on TSA or BAP
    A. E. coli
    B. Proteus mirabilis
    C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    D. Salmonella typhi
    B. Proteus mirabilis

  19. Enterobacteriaceae that produce acetyl-methyl-carbinol (acetoin) produce a positive...
    A.Indole test
    B.Methyl Red test
    C.Oxidase test
    D.Voges-Proskauer test
    D.Voges-Proskauer test
  20. What organism causes bacillary dysentary and has no known animal reservoirs?
    A. Shigella spp.
    B. Salmonella spp.
    C. E. coli O157
    D. Yersinia pestis
    A. Shigella spp.

  21. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an endotoxin?
    A. Contains antigenic determinants
    B. Excreted by the bacteria
    C. Part of the LPS layer
    D. Gives a + LAL test
    B. Excreted by the bacteria

  22. A GNB has produced an A/A TSI. What sugars have been fermented?
    A. Glucose, sucrose, and/or lactose
    B. Lactose, glucose, and/or maltose
    C. Sucrose, lactose, and/or fructose
    D. Maltose, glucose, and/or sucrose
    • A. Glucose, sucrose, and/or lactose
  23. Which of the following is Methyl Red positive?
    A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    B. Serratia marcescens
    C. Escherichia coli
    D. Enterobacter aerogenes
    C. Escherichia coli

  24. Identify the TSI reactions for Morganella morganii.
    A. A/A, gas+,H2S+
    B. A/A, gas+,H2S--
    C. K/A, gas--,H2S+
    D. K/A, gas+,H2S--
    D. K/A, gas+,H2S--

  25. Which of the following is the bacterial species most commonly recovered in the entire clinical laboratory, and has been identified in infectious diseases involving almost every part of the human body?
    A. Salmonella spp.
    B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    C. Escherichia coli
    D. Proteus mirabilis
    C. Escherichia coli

  26. What organism has a natural habitat associated with surface and potable waters and is never transferred person to person?
    A. Legionella pneumophilia
    B. Bordetella pertussis
    C. Campylobacter jejuni
    D. Cardiobacterium hominis
    A. Legionella pneumophilia

  27. Which of the following organisms is a prevalent pathogen in subgingival plaques, oxidase+, catalase--, pits blood agar plates approximately half the time, and possesses a distinctly "bleachy" odor?
    A. Cardiobacterium hominis
    B. Eikenella corrodens
    C. Vibrio cholerae
    D. Aeromonas hydrophila
    B. Eikenella corrodens

  28. A female is in the ER with an infected leg, she acquired the injury while swimming in the ocean. The organism is beta hemolytic on BAP and cytochrome oxidase+. When gram stained, the organism  has a curved GNB appearance. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this infection?
    A. Cardiobacterium hominis
    B. Helicobacter pylori
    C. Vibrio cholera
    D. Eikenella corrodens
    C. Vibrio cholera

  29. A 3 year old male is brought to a physician's office with a red eye showing purulent discharge. A culture of the eye is sent to the laboratory. Which of the following organisms is most likely causing the infection?
    A. Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius
    B. Haemophilus influenzae type b
    C. Haemophilus aphrophilus
    D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
    A. Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius

  30. Which of the following is true of Haemophilus species?
    A. Tiny,pleomorphic GNB
    B. Requires X and/or V factors
    C. Tiny, pinpoint colonies
    on CHOC
    D. All of the above.
    D. All of the above.
  31. Which of the following organisms is not considered a HACEK organism?
    A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
    B. Campylobacter jejuni
    C. Eikenella corrodens
    D. Kingella sp.
    B. Campylobacter jejuni

  32. Which of the following is the most appropriate agar for isolating Bordetella pertussis?
    A. Regan-Lowe agar
    B. Triple sugar iron agar
    C. BCYE agar
    D. TCBS agar
    A. Regan-Lowe agar

  33. Which of the following is the most appropriate agar for isolating Legionella pneumophila?
    A. Regan-Lowe agar
    B. Triple sugar iron agar
    C. BCYE agar
    D. TCBS agar
    C. BCYE agar

  34. Which of the following is the most appropriate agar for isolating Vibrio cholerae?
    A. Regan-Lowe agar
    B. Triple sugar iron agar
    C. BCYE agar
    D. TCBS agar
    • D. TCBS agar
  35. Which of the following diseases is caused by Brucella species?
    A. Tularemia
    B. Pontiac fever
    C. LJP
    D. Undulant fever
    • D. Undulant fever
  36. Which of the following organisms is a GNB in a "gull's wings" formation, cytochrome oxidase+, microaerophilic, and grows at 42 C?
    A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
    B. Campylobacter jejuni
    C. Eikenella corrodens
    D. Kingella spp.
    B. Campylobacter jejuni

  37. How can Francisella tularensis be transmitted?
    A. Rabbit bite
    B. Inhalation
    C. Ticks, flies, mosquitoes
    D. All of the above
    • D. All of the above
  38. Which of the following organisms is a small, curved, plump GNB, cytochrome oxidase+, catalase+, and urease+?
    A. Cardiobacterium hominis
    B. Helicobacter pylori
    C. Vibrio cholera
    D. Eikenella corrodens
    B. Helicobacter pylori

  39. What organism is a GN coccobacilli, cytochrome oxidase+, catalase+, indole+, that grows on BAP and CHOC but not MAC, and curiously looks like Haemophilus but is NOT Haemophilus?
    A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
    B. Campylobacter jejuni
    C. Eikenella corrodens
    D. Pasteurella multocida
    D. Pasteurella multocida

  40. The following results were obtained from a culture of unknown origin: Gram stain = Gram negative diplococci, Indophenol oxidase++, Glucose++, Maltose--,Sucrose--. The most likely source of the specimen would be the:
    A. Respiratory tract
    B. Blood
    C. Genitourinary tract
    D. Cerebrospinal fluid
    C. Genitourinary tract
  41. A urethral swab obtained from a man with a urethral exudate was plated directly on CHOC and modified Thayer-Martin agar, and lture pla Gram stain was made. The Gram stain showed Gram negative diplococci. The culture plates were incubated at 35C but had no growth at 48 hrs. The most likely failure for organism growth is that the:
    A. Wrong media were used
    B. Gram stain was misread
    C. Organism only grows at RT or cooler
    D. Organism requires CO2 for growth
    • D. Organism requires CO2 for growth
  42. A Gram stain performed on a sputum specimen revealed Gram negative diplococci within PMNs. Oxidase testing is positive and carbohydrate degradation tests were inert. The organism is:
    A. Neisseria lactamica
    B. Moraxella catarrhalis
    C. Neisseria meningitidis
    D. Neisseria sicca 
    B. Moraxella catarrhalis

  43. Clinical resistance to penicillin correlates most frequently with beta-lactamase production in:
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    B. Neisseria meningitidis
    C. Streptococcus agalactiae
    D. Streptococcus pyogenes
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  44. Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria meningitidis?
    A. Acid from maltose
    B. Growth on modified Thayer-Martin agar
    C. Lactose degradation
    D. Nitrite reduction to nitrogen gas
    C. Lactose degradation

  45. An autopsy performed on an 8 year old child revealed Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. Blood and throat cultures taken just prior to death were positive for which organism?
    A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    B. Neisseria meningitidis
    C. Haemophilus influenzae
    D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    • B. Neisseria meningitidis
  46. Which organism commonly causes food poisoning by consumption of foods containing excessive populations of organisms or preformed enterotoxin?
    A. Salmonella enteritidis
    B. Shigella sonnei
    C. Bacillus cereus
    D. Escherichia coli
    • C. Bacillus cereus
  47. An organism recovered from a sputum has the following characteristics: C
    Culture= Growth at 7 days on Lowenstein-Jensen agar, incubated under aerobic conditions with CO2 at 35C
    Gram stain= Delicate branching gram positive bacilli
    Acid Fast Stain= Branching,filamentous, "partially" acid fast bacterium.
    These results are consistent with which of the following genera?
    A. Nocardia
    B. Mycobacterium
    C. Actinomyces
    D. Streptomyces
    • A. Nocardia
  48. The best procedure to differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from Corynebacterium species is:
    A. Catalase
    B. Motility at 25°C
    C. Motility at 35°C
    D. Gram stain
    B. Motility at 25°C
  49. Which feature distinguishes Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae from other clinically significant non-spore-forming, gram positive, facultatively anaerobic bacilli?
    A. "Tumbling" motility
    B. Beta-hemolysis
    C. More pronounced motility at 25°C than 37°C
    D. H2S production
    D. H2S production

  50. After 18 hours of incubation at 35C there is no growth on MAC, but 3+ growth on BAP. The colonies were nonhemolytic, nonmotile, 4-5mm in diameter and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony had an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stood up like "beaten egg whites" when gently lifted with an inoculating needle. Gram stain of a typical colony showed large, gram+ rectangular bacilli. This organism is most likely:
    A. Clostridium perfringens
    B. Aeromonas hydrophila
    C. Bacillus anthracis
    D. Mycobacterium marinum
    • C. Bacillus anthracis
  51. Gram stain of a thigh wound showed many Gram positive spore-forming bacilli. The specimen was placed on brain heart infusion blood agar and incubated aerobically at 35C for 3 days. At the end of that time, the plates showed no growth. The most likely explanation is that some of the specimen should have been incubated:
    A. On chocolate agar
    B. For 5 days
    C. Under 5% CO2
    D. Anaerobically
    D. Anaerobically
  52. Which of the following pairs of organisms usually grow on Kanamycin, vancomycin, laked blood agar?
    A. Bacteroides and Prevotella
    B. Mobiluncus and Gardnerella
    C. Porphyromonas and Enterococcus
    D. Veillonella and Capnocytophaga
    A. Bacteroides and Prevotella
  53. Propionibacterium acnes is most often associated with:
    A. Normal oral flora
    B. Post-antibiotic diarrhea
    C. Tooth decay
    D. Blood culture contamination
    D. Blood culture contamination
  54. The etiologic agent of botulism is:
    A. Highly motile
    B. Non-spore forming
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. An exotoxin producer
    D. An exotoxin producer
  55. The reverse CAMP test, lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis, and gram stain morphology are all useful criteria in the identification of:
    A. Clostridium perfringens
    B. Streptococcus agalactiae
    C. Propionibacterium acnes
    D. Bacillus anthracis
    A. Clostridium perfringens
  56. Which of the following genera include anaerobic, gram negative, non-sporulating bacilli?
    A. Brucella
    B. Pasteurella
    C. Actinomyces
    D. Bacteroides
    D. Bacteroides
  57. Endogenous bacteria would most likely be found:
    A. In a jar of honey
    B. In the crevices between your teeth
    C. In the much on a riverbank
    D. In a container of rancid potato salad
    B. In the crevices between your teeth
  58. Which of the following in not indicative of an anaerobic infection?
    A. Abundance of pus
    B. Foul smell
    C. Gas production
    D. Profuse bleeding
    D. Profuse bleeding
  59. Associated with broad spectrum antibiotic use:
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    B. Clostridium difficile
  60. Causes "Floppy Baby" Syndrome:
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    A. Clostridium botulinum
  61. Produces most potent exotoxin known to man:
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    A. Clostridium botulinum
  62. Spores resemble a drumstick or tennis racket:
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    D. Clostridium tetani
  63. Most commonly involved in gas gangrene:
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    C. Clostridium perfringens
  64. Causes a disease associated with a characteristic grin, termed "Risus sardonicus."
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    D. Clostridium tetani
  65. Rarely causes disease in the U.S. due to the DPT vaccine:
    A. Clostridium botulinum
    B. Clostridium difficile
    C. Clostridium perfringens
    D. Clostridium tetani
    D. Clostridium tetani
  66. Many fungal infections are transmitted to man via inhalation of infectious structures. Which of the following is usually contracted in this manner?
    A. Sporothrix schenkii
    B. Trichophyton rubrum
    C. Malassezia furfur
    D. Histoplasma capsulatum
    D. Histoplasma capsulatum
  67. An organism that demonstrates budding yeast cells with wide capsules in an India ink preparation of spinal fluid is probably:
    A. Cryptococcus neoformans
    B. Histoplasma capsulatum
    C. Blastomyces dermatitidis
    D. Candida albicans
    A. Cryptococcus neoformans
  68. The formation of germ tubes presumptively identifies:
    A. Candida tropicalis
    B. Candida parapsilosis
    C. Candida glabrata
    D. Candida albicans
    D. Candida albicans
  69. The most sensitive test for the initial diagnosis of cryptococcal disease is:
    A. India ink
    B. Gram stain
    C. Cryptococcal antigen
    D. Giemsa stain
    C. Cryptococcal antigen
  70. Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus?
    A. Sporothrix schenkii
    B. Candida albicans
    C. Cryptococcus neoformans
    D. Aspergillus fumigatus
    A. Sporothrix schenkii
  71. A bronchial washing is processed for acid-fast bacilli. Which of the following precautions should be taken in order to prevent infection of laboratory personnel?
    A. Add an equal amount of NALC to the specimen
    B. Process all specimens under ultraviolet light
    C. Centrifuge the specimen only after the addition of preservative
    D. Process all specimens in a biological safety hood
    D. Process all specimens in a biological safety hood
  72. A positive niacin test is most characteristic of Mycobacterium?
    A. chelonae
    B. marinum
    C. tuberculosis
    D. xenopi
    C. Tuberculosis
  73. In a suspected case of Hansen disease (leprosy), a presumptive diagnosis is established by:
    A. Isolation of organisms on Lowenstein-Jensen medium
    B. Detection of weakly acid-fast bacilli in infected tissue
    C. Isolation of organisms in a cell culture
    D. Detection of niacin production by the isolated bacterium
    B. Detection of weakly acid-fast bacilli in infected tissue
  74. The best medium for culture of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
    A. Bordet-Gengou agar
    B. Loeffler medium
    C. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
    D. Cystine blood agar
    C. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
  75. Artifacts found in a stool specimen that can be confused with ova or cysts are:
    A. Partially digested meat fibers
    B. Degenerated cells from the  gastrointestinal mucosa
    C. Dried chemical stains
    D. Pollen grains
    D. Pollen grains
  76. A 27 year old scuba driver has an abrasion on his left thigh. A culture of this wound grew an acid-fast organism at 30C. This isolate is most likely:
    A. Mycobacterium chelonae
    B. Mycobacterium marinum
    C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    D. Mycobacterium xenopi
    B. Mycobacterium marinum
  77. The best method to demonstrate the ova of Enterobius vermicularis is:
    A. Acid-ether concentration
    B. Cellophane tape preparation
    C. Formalin-ether concentration
    D. Zinc sulfate flotation
    B. Cellophane tape preparation
  78. The causative agent of cysticercosis is:
    A. Taenia solium
    B. Taenia saginata
    C. Ascaris lumbricoides
    D. Trichuris trichiura
    A. Taenia solium
  79. The scolex of Taenia saginata has:
    A. 4 suckers
    B. No suckers and 14 hooklets
    C. 24 hooklets
    D. 26-28 sucking discs
    • A. 4 suckers
  80. "ground glass" appearance
    large boxcar shaped GPR
    grows on BAP, CA, and CNA
    Bacillus anthracis
  81. Small GNCB
    grows on BAP/CA
    endemic to SE Asia and Australia
    causes glanders
    Burkholderia mallei
  82. GNCB
    Grows on BAP/CA/MAC
    "earthy odor"
    Causes melioidosis
    Burkholderia pseudomallei
  83. Isolated from wounds, lymph nodes, blood, & sputum.
    Causes "rabbit fever"
    Transmitted by rabbits
    Looks like Haemophilus
    Francisela tularensis
  84. Transmitted by flea of rodents
    Caused the plague
    Grows on BAP/CA/MAC
    Colony has "fried egg" appearance
    Yersinia pestis
  85. Transmitted by ingestion of unpasteurized milk, aerosols, and skin breaks
    Grows on BAP/CA
    Endemic to Mexico
    Most common laboratory infection
    Brucella spp.
  86. Gram-negative bacilli
    Cytochrome oxidase negative
    Glucose fermenters
    Reduce nitrates to nitrites
    Catalase positive
    Most are motile by peritrichous flagella
    Enteric Trends
  87. Gram positive cocci in clusters
    Catalase positive
    Coagulase positive
    DNase positive
    Beta-hemolytic on BAP
    Staphylococcus aureus
  88. Name the Gram positive organism most associated with infections involving foreign bodies
    Staph epicreates a slime layer on artificial heart valves causing endocarditis
  89. GPC in pairs
    Lancet shape
    Alpha hemolytic on BAP
    May cause: pneumonia, septicemia, meningitis
    Strep pneumo
  90. Throat swab culture
    Beta hemolytic on BAP
    Bacitracin sensitive
    CAMP negative
    May cause: Acute pharyngitis, Necrotizing fasciitis
    Strep pyogenes
  91. Lancefield Group A
    Streptococcus pyogenes
  92. Lancefield Group B
    Streptococcus agalactiae
  93. Lancefield Group D
    Streptococcus pneumoniae
  94. GPC
    CAMP positive
    Beta hemolytic on BAP
    Bacitracin resistant
    May cause: Neonatal meningitis & sepsis
    Streptococcus agalactiae
  95. What are the 2 enteric genera and 1 specific organism that are NOT motile?
    • Klebsiella
    • Shigella
    • Yersinia pestis
  96. Which 3 enteric genera will cause a positive Voges-Proskauer (VP) test?
    • Klebsiella
    • Enterobacter
    • Serratia
  97. What 4 enterics do NOT produce gas?
    • Salmonella typhi
    • Shigella
    • Yersinia
    • Providencia
  98. What is the compound produced that is responsible for a positive Voges-Proskauer test?
  99. Which Salmonella species is somatic Group D positive, with the Vi capsular antigen?
    Salmonella typhi
  100. What one test can differentiate Yersinia pestis and Yersinia enterocolitica?
    Yersinia pestis is  non-motile and Yersinia enterocolitica is motile.
  101. Tiny pleomorphic GN coccobacilli
    Requires X and/or V factors
  102. Which Haemophilus species requires both X and V factors for growth?
    Haemophilus influenzae
  103. Of all the Haemophilus spp., which one (with serotype) is the most pathogenic, and why has its incidence of infection been drastically decreased in young children since 1985?
    • Haemophilus influenzae type b
    • Anti-type b H. influenzae vaccine
  104. Which H. influenzae biogroup can cause a particularly contagious case of pink eye?
    Haemophilus aegyptius
  105. Which Haemophilus species causes chancroid?
    Haemophilus ducreyi
  106. GNCB
    Oxidase negative 
    Mousy odor
    Grows on CHOC only
    Haemophilus influenzae
  107. What is the normal habitat for Aeromonas species?
    Fresh water
  108. Gram negative bacilli
    Oxidase positive
    Lactose fermenter
    Indole positive
    Found in fresh water
  109. Name the HACEK organisms
    • Haemophilus aphrophilus
    • Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
    • Cardiobacterium hominis
    • Eikenella corrodens
    • Kingella kingae
  110. Where are H. aphrophilus and H. paraphrophilus usually found?
    Upper respiratory tract
  111. What HACEK organism does not require X and/or V factor to grow, and may grow on sheep blood agar?
    Haemophilus aphrophilus
  112. Which two biochemical tests can distinguish A. actinomycetemcomitans from H. aphrophilus?
    • A. actinomycetemcomitans = Catalase++ and Lactose--
    • H. aphrophilus= Catalase--, Lactose++
  113. Which two biochemical tests can distinguish A. actinomycetemcomitans from C. hominis?
    • A. actinomycetemcomitans= Catalase++ and Indole--
    • C. hominis= Catalase-- and Indole++
  114. Which two biochemical tests can distinguish A. actinomycetemcomitans from Kingella species?
    • A. actinomycetemcomitans=Catalase++ and Nitrite++
    • Kingella species= Catalase-- and Nitrite--
  115. What common selective media do many HACEK organisms NOT grow?
    MacConkey agar
  116. What HACEK organism pits agar media, has a distinctive bleach-like odor, and is asaccharolytic (producing no acid from glucose)?
    Eikenella corrodens
  117. Which Kingella species is especially significant pathogen in children?
    Kingella kingae
  118. Which Kingella species can grow on Modified Thayer-Martin agar and might be misidentified as Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
    Kingella kingae
  119. What is the target organism for Regan-Lowe media? What type of blood does it contain?What critical component is within the media to detoxify the specimen so that the target organism may grow?
    • Bordetella pertussis
    • Contains horse blood
    • Contains antibiotic cephalexin and antifungal  amphotericin B.
  120. True or False: Humans are the only known hosts for Bordetella pertussis.
  121. What is the biggest disease concern caused by Bordetella pertussis?
    Whooping cough
  122. What Bordetella organism can cause kennel cough in dogs?
    Bordetella bronchiseptica
  123. What is absolutely required when working with cultures suspected of containing Brucella species?
    Level 2 Bio-safety cabinet
  124. What organism causes the disease in horses known as Glanders?
    Burkholderia mallei
  125. What well-known nosocomial pathogen and aerobic organism is commonly found wth liquid reservoirs, moist environments, ventilator - associated pneumonias, cystic fibrosis patients, and in the past has been linked to outbreaks from contaminated alcohol-free mouthwash?
    Burkholderia cepacia
  126. What are the criteria necessary to presumptively identify Campylobacter jejuni?
    • Gram negative bacilli,curved rods, "gulls wings"
    • CO positive
    • Growth at 42C
    • Microaerophilic in CAMPY gas bag
    • Hippurate hydrolysis ++
  127. What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?
    Rabbit fever, tuluremia
  128. How is Francisella tularensis transmitted?
    Inhalation of aerosols
  129. Small, curved, GNB
    Found in gastric biopsy
    Helicobacter pylori
  130. What are the two major illnesses caused by Legionella pneumophila?
    • Legionnaires disease
    • Pontiac fever
  131. What is the target organism of BCYE media?
    • Legionella pneumophila
    • Buffered-Charcoal-Yeast extract
    • Contains cystine
    • Legionella pneumophila will turn the media blue/green and it will be glistening/shiny
  132. Gram negative coccobacilli
    Looks like Haemophilus
  133. Pasteurella multocida is most often associated with what type of infection?
    Deep tissue infection
  134. GNR
    Grape like odor
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  135. For what enzyme must Neisseria species always be tested?
    Beta lactamase
  136. Glucose++
    Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  137. Glucose++
    Neisseria meningitidis
  138. Glucose++
    Neisseria lactamica
  139. Glucose++
    Neisseria sicca
  140. Glucose--
    Moraxella catarrhalis
  141. What does Neisseria meningitidis cause?
    Meningococcal meningitis
  142. What unique term has been used to describe Moraxella catarrhalis colonies, and why is it used?
    Hockey puck, it slides on the agar
  143. What distinctive term has been used to describe the colonies of Bacillus anthracis?
    "medusa-head" colonies
  144. What type of infection is Bacillus cereus most commonly associated with?
    Food poisoning
  145. Describe the characteristic arrangement is present on a Gram stain containing Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
    Chinese lettering
  146. What is the most prevalent normal organism present in the female vaginal area?
  147. Describe the Gram stain morphology of Gardnerella vaginalis.
    Gram-variable rod
  148. What 3 specific patient populations are at particular risk for Listeria monocytogenes infections?
    • Pregnant women
    • Babies
    • Immunocompromised
  149. What is the optimal temperature for Listeria to grow?
    • Room temp 25C
    • Can grow at 4C (unique)
  150. Describe Listeria monocytogenes motility.
    • Umbrella at 25C
    • Tumbling on a wet mount
  151. Which genus of bacteria is considered partially acid-fast?
  152. List four indications of an anaerobic infection in the body.
    • Foul smell
    • Gas production
    • Purulence
    • Tissue necrosis
  153. What is the clinical significance of clue cells?
    Gardnerella vaginalis
  154. What is the anaerobe known for its double zone of hemolysis?
    Clostridium perfringens
  155. Which anaerobe genus commonly seen in the lab tends to be present on post-surgical gastrointestinal specimens, especially in patients with appendicitis?
  156. What specific reaction is used to identify Clostridium perfringens?
    Reverse CAMP test
  157. What disease is most often associated with Clostridium botulinum?
  158. What is the most potent exotoxin known to exist?
    Clostridium botulism
  159. What disease is most often associated with Clostridium tetani?
    • Tetanus
    • Risus sardonicus-characteristic grin
  160. What disease is most often associated with Clostridium difficile?
    Antibiotic associated diarrhea from broad spectrum antibiotic use
  161. Define the term "dimorphic fungus?
    It has a yeast and mold state
  162. What organism causes Rose Gardner's Disease?
    Sporothrix schenkii (dimorphic fungi)
  163. What four main organisms cause malaria?
    • Plasmodium falciparum
    • Plasmodium ovale
    • Plasmodium malariae
    • Plasmodium vivax
  164. Which mycobacterial organism will not survive outside a host and cannot be cultured?
    Mycobacterium leprae is diagnosed by infected tissue showing positive AFB, it is not growable
  165. Pinworm
    Enterobius vermicularis
  166. Pork tapeworm 
    Taenia solium
  167. Why are mycobacteria not easily stained by the Gram stain technique?
    • They have a high lipid content in the cell wall,
    • Carbol fuchsin is the primary stain
Card Set:
Capstone Microbiology
2013-11-05 04:27:15
Capstone Microbiology review

Review of the quizzes in Microbiology capstone.
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