Systems 1 (All Sections).txt

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Systems 1 (All Sections).txt
2013-11-05 22:57:47
15 02

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  1. 1. Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis? (B/1/1)
    a. Elevator
  2. 2. The Trim Aid Device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes? (B/1/2)
    a. The TAD senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.
  3. 3. True or false? Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller. (B/1/3)
    a. True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by the propeller.
  4. 4. Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system? (B/1/4)
    a. The generator function of the starter/generator.
  5. 5. Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which component? (B/1/5)
    a. RMU
  6. 7. Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)? (B/1/7)
    a. Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
  7. 6. True or false? The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer and GPS capability. (B/1/6)
    a. False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and glideslope capability.
  8. 8. Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power? (B/1/8)
    a. The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the magnetic compass.
  9. 9. True or false? The entire canopy structure is engineered to be protected from bird strikes. (B/1/9)
    a. False. Only the windscreen and front canopy transparency are protected.
  10. 4. True or false? The magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments.
    a. False. The magnetic compass is a standby flight instrument.
  11. 1. Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
    a. Hydraulic
  12. 2. Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surface(s)?
    a. Ailerons
  13. 3. What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
    a. Rocket motor
  14. 5. Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
    a. 24 volt battery
  15. 6. Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?
    a. Environment control system
  16. 7. Control of the transponder is provided by which component?
    a. Radio Management Unit (RMU)
  17. 8. True or false? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.
    a. False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.
  18. 9. Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
    a. Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
  19. 10. In the event of inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
    a. The personal locator radio beacon senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 and 406.0 MHz.
  20. 1. The engine cowling does all of the following except ______. (B/1/1)
    a. secures the engine to the frame
  21. 2. The purpose of the inertial separator is to ______. (B/1/2)
    a. keep debris away from the engine
  22. 3. The compressor and power turbines are physically connected. (B/2/1)
    a. False
  23. 4. What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/2/2)
    a. Air, fuel, and heat
  24. 5. As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided. (B/3/1)
    a. True
  25. 6. Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-energized by the PMU. (B/4/1)
    a. False
  26. 7. The primary purpose of the ignition system is to ______. (B/4/2)
    a. ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
  27. 8. Friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the aft PCL. (B/5/1)
    a. True
  28. 9. When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be ______. (B/5/2)
    a. pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
  29. 10. The PMU is located ______. (B/6/1)
    a. underneath the engine, in the accessory compartment
  30. 11. The PMU performs the following functions, except: (B/6/2)
    a. releases the correct amount of fuel
  31. 12. The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU ______. (B/6/3)
    needs maintenance
  32. 13. After engine start, the starter becomes a generator. (C/1/1)
    a. True
  33. 14. The MANUAL starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances. (C/1/2)
    a. False
  34. 15. If oil pressure is ______ psi or below at IDLE power, the amber OIL PX annunciator will extinguish and the red OIL PX annunciator will remain illuminated. (C/2/1)
    a. 15
  35. 16. If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, ______ will be illuminated. (C/2/2)
    a. both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
  36. 17. The chip detector sensor is located ______. (C/2/3)
    a. in the reduction gearbox
  37. 18. The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, EXCEPT ______. (C/2/4)
    a. wheel brakes
  38. 19. The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from ______ RPM to propeller speeds of ______ RPM. (D/1/1)
    a. 30,000; 2000
  39. 20. The phase shift torque probe monitors ______. (D/1/2)
    a. propeller speed
  40. 21. The PIU ______. (D/1/3)
    a. regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
  41. 22. If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move towards the ______ position. (D/1/4)
    a. Feathered
  42. 23. Varying levels of thrust are achieved by ______. (D/1/5)
    a. changing propeller pitch
  43. 1. The PMU ______.
    a. keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
  44. 2. If the oil filter gets clogged ______.
    a. the system uses unfiltered oil
  45. 3. In straight-and-level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between ______ and ______.
    a. 90; 120 psi
  46. 4. The phase shift torque probe is located ______.
    a. in the reduction gearbox
  47. 5. Propeller pitch refers to ______.
    a. the angle of the propeller blades
  48. 6. Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?
    a. Feather
  49. 7. The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by ______
    a. oil pressure
  50. 8. The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at ______.
    a. 2000
  51. 9. The power turbine is driven by ______.
    a. expanding gases
  52. 10. During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above ______.
    a. 40 psi
  53. (T/F) All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related.
  54. 2. The EDM is located ______. (B/1/2)
    a. in the left avionics bay
  55. 4. All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data display. (B/2/2)
    a. True
  56. 5. In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by ______. (B/2/3)
    a. changing color
  57. 6. In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the NP stabilized operation prohibited range while on the ground? (B/2/4)
    a. 62-80%
  58. 8. All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU. (B/3/2)
    a. False
  59. 9. On the alternate engine data display, ?P measures ______. (B/3/3)
    a. the difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
  60. 11. The engine/systems/NACWS displays provide ______. (B/4/2)
    a. oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, NACWS traffic alerts, DC volts and DC amps
  61. 12. To view the NACWS display, ______. (B/4/3)
    a. depress the trigger switch on the control stick to the second detent
  62. 13. Shutoff valves activated by the Firewall Shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing handle back in. (B/5/1)
    a. True
  63. 14. When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if ______ and the aural tone sounds. (B/5/2)
    a. the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate
  64. 1. The engine data manager does not ______.
    control all electronic displays in the cockpit
  65. 2. The primary engine data display system ______.
    a. provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operations
  66. 3. The engine data manager is located ______.
    a. in the left avionics bay
  67. 4. This display shows torque at ______.
    a. 72%
  68. 5. The alternate engine data displays serve as a backup to the primary engine data displays, and therefore display some of the same data.
    a. True
  69. 6. The primary engine data display provides ______.
    a. torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT
  70. 7. The engine/systems/NACWS display does not ______.
    a. display outside environmental conditions in each cockpit
  71. 8. This display is the ______.
    a. alternate engine data display
  72. 9. All data presented on the alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU.
    a. False
  73. 10. The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to ______.
    a. test the integrity of the fire warning system
  74. 1. What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/1/1)
    a. Air, fuel, and heat
  75. 2. Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do? (C/1/1)
    a. Begin abort start procedure
  76. 3. What are the types of abnormal start? (C/1/2)
    a. Hot, hung, no start
  77. 4. What are the indications of a hot start? (C/1/3)
    a. High/rapidly rising ITT, lower, N1, lower NP
  78. 5. What are the indications of a hung start? (C/1/4)
    a. Slow rising ITT, lower N1, lower, NP
  79. 6. What are the indications of no start? (C/1/5)
    a. No ITT indication, lower N1, no NP indication, no torque indication
  80. 7. What are some possible display indications of engine failure in-flight? (C/2/1)
    a. Initial indications: Loss of power and airspeed; rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT; MASTER WARN Lights and tone; propeller moves toward feather

    b. Accompanying indications: Rapidly decreasing ITT, NP; lower than normal oil pressure; engine noise; GEN, FUEL PX, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL annunciators; Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators
  81. 8. What are the indications of PMU failure? (C/3/1
    a. Power step change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, aural tone
  82. 9. What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather? (C/4/1)
    a. Rapid loss of power, high torque, lower NP, possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators, engine/airframe vibration, engine noise
  83. 10. What are some sensory indications of engine fire in-flight? (C/5/1)
    a. See smoke or flames, smell oil burning, hear unusual sounds, feel engine vibration or roughness
  84. 2. The power turbine is driven by ______.
    a. Expanding gases
  85. 3. What does FEVER stand for?
    a. Fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature or hydraulic pressure, Excessive turbine temperature, Visual indications (smoke), Erratic engine operation, Roughness or vibration
  86. 4. What are the three engine sections?
    a. Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section
  87. 5. What are the three types of abnormal start?
    a. Hot, hung, no start
  88. 6. What functions are performed by the PMU?
    a. Maintain operating limits, process power requests, control engine and propeller, provide near linear power response.
  89. 7. What is the purpose of the PIU?
    a. Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
  90. 9. What are some possible causes of engine failure in-flight?
    a. Fuel starvation, mechanical failure, compressor stall
  91. 11. What are the engine fire warning indicators?
    a. FEVER, FIRE annunciator, MASTER WARNING light, aural tone
  92. 12. What are some possible causes of uncommanded power loss?
    a. Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling, Oil/engine/fuel system contamination
  93. 13. What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
    a. Air, Fuel, and Heat
  94. 14. What are some possible indications of engine fire in-flight that may be seen on the engine displays?
    a. High ITT; Fluctuating: oil temperature and pressure, hydraulic pressure
  95. 1. What electrical component allows isolation of the generator and battery buses? (B/1/1)
    a. Bus tie switch
  96. 2. The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by a ______ located under a panel in the aft cockpit. (B/2/1)
    a. generator control unit
  97. 3. Generator power is controlled by the ______ switch located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit. (B/2/2)
    a. generator control (GEN)
  98. 4. The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power through the ______. (B/3/1)
    a. front cockpit avionics bus
  99. 5. Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear cockpit avionics buses and are located on the front cockpit ______. (B/3/2)
    a. battery bus and generator bus circuit breaker panels
  100. 6. A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel controls the ______. (B/3/3)
    a. rear cockpit battery bus
  101. 7. Except for the backup UHF control head and UHF transceiver, power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through ______ on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit. (B/3/4)
    a. an avionics master switch
  102. 8. An amber ______ light on the annunciator panel in each cockpit will indicate an open bus tie switch. (B/3/5)
    a. BUS TIE
  103. 9. Circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the battery bus are located on the ______ in each cockpit. (B/4/1)
    a. left console panel
  104. 10. Each circuit breaker is marked with the ______ it will allow to pass before popping. (B/4/2)
    a. maximum current load in amperes
  105. 11. Battery power is controlled through ______ on the right forward switch panel in either cockpit. (B/5/1)
    a. a battery switch
  106. 12. A switch labeled AUX BAT on the front cockpit left console test panel is positioned forward to test the ______ during preflight checks. (B/5/2)
    a. auxiliary battery
  107. 13. External power is controlled by the ______ and distributed on the ______. (B/5/3)
    a. battery switch; battery bus
  108. 14. Lighting for EFIS displays, the RMU, the AOA indexer and the GPS control panel is adjusted using the knob labeled INSTR PANEL on the trim control panel. (B/6/1)
    a. False
  109. 15. ______ lights can be detached and relocated to the right canopy rail for use as an area or map light. (B/6/2)
    a. Utility
  110. 16. The landing light will only come on when the landing light switch is activated and ______. (B/6/3)
    a. the landing gear is down and locked
  111. 17. When switched on, white position lights at the trailing edge of each wing tip ______. (B/6/4)
    a. are constantly illuminated
  112. 1. The generator provides 28 VDC power, and is capable of supplying ______ amps.
    a. 300
  113. 2. The generator can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the ______.
    a. generator control switch
  114. 4. If a component or circuit malfunctions, the affected ______ will open, shutting off current flow to that component or circuit.
    a. circuit breaker
  115. 5. The battery can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the _______.
    a. battery switch
  116. 6. Light output from the instruments, control panels, and displays can be adjusted by using dimming controls located on the ______ in each cockpit.
    a. trim control panel
  117. 7. The taxi light is located aft and inboard of the ______.
    a. right main landing gear strut
  118. 8. A fault occurs in the circuit controlling the anti-collision lights. The COLL circuit breaker will pop on the battery bus circuit breaker panel located on the ______.
    a. left side of the front cockpit
  119. 10. The starter/generator provides 28 volts DC, while the battery and auxiliary battery are ______ VDC units.
    a. 24
  120. 1. The motive flow system is normally driven by the electric boost pump. (B/1/1)
    a. False
  121. 2. When using the primary refueling method, the total amount of usable fuel in the tanks is approximately ______ pounds. (B/2/1)
    a. 1100 lbs
  122. 3. The collector tank holds a maximum of approximately ______ pounds of fuel. (B/2/2)
    a. 40
  123. 4. What is the primary method of refueling the T-6A? (B/3/1)
    a. Single point pressure refueling
  124. 5. Using the single point pressure refueling method, approximately how long does it take to refuel the aircraft? (B/3/2)
    a. 3 to 5 minutes
  125. 6. The secondary or backup method for refueling the T-6A is called ______. (B/3/3)
    a. over the wing gravity refueling
  126. 7. The engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump is fed from the ______. (B/4/1)
    a. engine-driven low pressure fuel pump
  127. 8. The motive flow line routes fuel to which of the following pumps? (B/4/2)
    a. Primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps
  128. 9. The collector tank is equipped with two fuel pumps for engine feed operations. Which one is used AFTER engine start? (B/4/3)
    a. Primary jet pump
  129. 10. The transfer jet pumps ensure adequate fuel delivery to the collector tank during engine operations.
  130. 11. During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve activates, providing the engine access to fuel located in the ______. (B/4/5)
    a. collector tank
  131. 15. Once the engine is running and motive flow has been activated, the boost pump is automatically turned off by the low pressure switch. (B/5/3)
    a. True
  132. 17. The wing tanks are internally vented to each other by float valves. (B/6/1)
    a. False
  133. 18. The fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank to within ______ pounds of the other wing. (B/6/2)
    a. 20
  134. 1. Using the primary refueling method, the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank is ______ lbs.
    a. 530
  135. 2. The flip-flop valve in the collector tank provides a minimum of ______ seconds of fuel regardless of aircraft orientation.
    a. 15
  136. 3. Which method of refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously?
    a. Single point pressure refueling
  137. 6. The primary and transfer jet pumps are operated by ______.
    a. venturi flow
  138. 8. How long does it take to defuel the T-6A through the over the wing gravity refueling ports?
    a. The T-6A cannot be defueled through the over the wing gravity refueling ports.
  139. 9. Fuel is routed from the engine-driven fuel pump to the primary jet pump through which line?
    a. motive flow line
  140. 10. The left and right fuel quantity arrows on the AEDD turn yellow when indicated fuel quantity in the respective tank is below ______.
    a. 150 pounds
  142. 21. The BOOST PUMP annunciator is cycling on and off. This could be an indication of what? (B/3/3)
    a. Low fuel pressure
  143. 7. True or false? Single-point refueling fills all three tanks sequentially beginning with the collector tank.
    False. Single-point refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously.