Systems 1 (All Sections).txt

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  1. 1. Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis? (B/1/1)
    a. Elevator
  2. 2. The Trim Aid Device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes? (B/1/2)
    a. The TAD senses torque, altitude, airspeed, and pitch rate and computes a desired rudder trim tab position.
  3. 3. True or false? Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller. (B/1/3)
    a. True. Exhaust gases are ejected rearward providing thrust which augments that produced by the propeller.
  4. 4. Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system? (B/1/4)
    a. The generator function of the starter/generator.
  5. 5. Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which component? (B/1/5)
    a. RMU
  6. 6. True or false? The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, localizer and GPS capability. (B/1/6)
    a. False. The VHF system provides VOR, ILS, localizer, and glideslope capability.

    • 7. Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)? (B/1/7)
    • a. Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
  7. 8. Which standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power? (B/1/8)
    a. The standby altimeter, airspeed indicator, the ball in the turn and bank indicator, and the magnetic compass.
  8. 9. True or false? The entire canopy structure is engineered to be protected from bird strikes. (B/1/9)
    a. False. Only the windscreen and front canopy transparency are protected.
  9. 1. Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
    a. Hydraulic
  10. 2. Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surface(s)?
    a. Ailerons
  11. 3. What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
    a. Rocket motor

    • 4. True or false? The magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments.
    • a. False. The magnetic compass is a standby flight instrument.
  12. 5. Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
    a. 24 volt battery
  13. 6. Which aircraft system provides automatic temperature and pressure control?
    a. Environment control system
  14. 7. Control of the transponder is provided by which component?
    a. Radio Management Unit (RMU)
  15. 8. True or false? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.
    a. False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.
  16. 9. Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
    a. Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI)
  17. 10. In the event of inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
    a. The personal locator radio beacon senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 and 406.0 MHz.
  18. 1. The engine cowling does all of the following except ______. (B/1/1)
    a. secures the engine to the frame
  19. 2. The purpose of the inertial separator is to ______. (B/1/2)
    a. keep debris away from the engine
  20. 3. The compressor and power turbines are physically connected. (B/2/1)
    a. False
  21. 4. What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/2/2)
    a. Air, fuel, and heat
  22. 5. As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided. (B/3/1)
    a. True
  23. 6. Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-energized by the PMU. (B/4/1)
    a. False
  24. 7. The primary purpose of the ignition system is to ______. (B/4/2)
    a. ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
  25. 8. Friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the aft PCL. (B/5/1)
    a. True
  26. 9. When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be ______. (B/5/2)
    a. pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
  27. 10. The PMU is located ______. (B/6/1)
    a. underneath the engine, in the accessory compartment
  28. 11. The PMU performs the following functions, except: (B/6/2)
    a. releases the correct amount of fuel
  29. 12. The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU ______. (B/6/3)
    a. needs maintenance
  30. 13. After engine start, the starter becomes a generator. (C/1/1)
    a. True
  31. 14. The MANUAL starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances. (C/1/2)
    a. False
  32. 15. If oil pressure is ______ psi or below at IDLE power, the amber OIL PX annunciator will extinguish and the red OIL PX annunciator will remain illuminated. (C/2/1)
    a. 15
  33. 16. If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, ______ will be illuminated. (C/2/2)
    a. both the amber and red OIL PX annunciators
  34. 17. The chip detector sensor is located ______. (C/2/3)
    a. in the reduction gearbox
  35. 18. The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, EXCEPT ______. (C/2/4)
    a. wheel brakes
  36. 19. The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from ______ RPM to propeller speeds of ______ RPM. (D/1/1)
    a. 30,000; 2000
  37. 20. The phase shift torque probe monitors ______. (D/1/2)
    a. propeller speed
  38. 21. The PIU ______. (D/1/3)
    a. regulates oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
  39. 22. If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move towards the ______ position. (D/1/4)
    a. Feathered
  40. 23. Varying levels of thrust are achieved by ______. (D/1/5)
    a. changing propeller pitch
  41. 1. The PMU ______.
    a. keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
  42. 2. If the oil filter gets clogged ______.
    a. the system uses unfiltered oil
  43. 3. In straight-and-level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between ______ and ______.
    a. 90; 120 psi
  44. 4. The phase shift torque probe is located ______.
    a. in the reduction gearbox
  45. 5. Propeller pitch refers to ______.
    a. the angle of the propeller blades
  46. 6. Which propeller position produces the least amount of drag?
    a. Feather
  47. 7. The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by ______
    a. oil pressure
  48. 8. The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at ______.
    a. 2000
  49. 9. The power turbine is driven by ______.
    a. expanding gases
  50. 10. During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above ______.
    a. 40 psi
  51. 1. All of the functions performed by the engine data manager (EDM) are engine related. (B/1/1)
    a. False
  52. 2. The EDM is located ______. (B/1/2)
    a. in the left avionics bay
  53. 4. All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data display. (B/2/2)
    a. True
  54. 5. In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by ______. (B/2/3)
    a. changing color
  55. 6. In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the NP stabilized operation prohibited range while on the ground? (B/2/4)
    a. 62-80%
  56. 8. All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU. (B/3/2)
    a. False
  57. 9. On the alternate engine data display, ?P measures ______. (B/3/3)
    a. the difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
  58. 11. The engine/systems/NACWS displays provide ______. (B/4/2)
    a. oil temperature, oil pressure, hydraulic pressure, NACWS traffic alerts, DC volts and DC amps
  59. 12. To view the NACWS display, ______. (B/4/3)
    a. depress the trigger switch on the control stick to the second detent
  60. 13. Shutoff valves activated by the Firewall Shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing handle back in. (B/5/1)
    a. True
  61. 14. When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if ______ and the aural tone sounds. (B/5/2)
    a. the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate
  62. 1. The engine data manager does not ______.
    a. control all electronic displays in the cockpit
  63. 2. The primary engine data display system ______.
    a. provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operations
  64. 3. The engine data manager is located ______.
    a. in the left avionics bay
  65. 5. The alternate engine data displays serve as a backup to the primary engine data displays, and therefore display some of the same data.
    a. True
  66. 6. The primary engine data display provides ______.
    a. torque, ITT, N1, NP, and IOAT
  67. 7. The engine/systems/NACWS display does not ______.
    a. display outside environmental conditions in each cockpit
  68. 9. All data presented on the alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU.
    a. False
  69. 10. The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to ______.
    a. test the integrity of the fire warning system
  70. 1. What three elements are necessary for engine operation? (B/1/1)
    a. Air, fuel, and heat
  71. 2. Given indications of abnormal start, what should you do? (C/1/1)
    a. Begin abort start procedure
  72. 3. What are the types of abnormal start? (C/1/2)
    a. Hot, hung, no start
  73. 4. What are the indications of a hot start? (C/1/3)
    a. High/rapidly rising ITT, lower, N1, lower NP
  74. 5. What are the indications of a hung start? (C/1/4)
    a. Slow rising ITT, lower N1, lower, NP
  75. 6. What are the indications of no start? (C/1/5)
    a. No ITT indication, lower N1, no NP indication, no torque indication
  76. 7. What are some possible display indications of engine failure in-flight? (C/2/1)
    • a. Initial indications: Loss of power and airspeed; rapid decay of N1, torque, and ITT; MASTER WARN Lights and tone; propeller moves toward feather
    • b. Accompanying indications: Rapidly decreasing ITT, NP; lower than normal oil pressure; engine noise; GEN, FUEL PX, OIL PX, OBOGS FAIL annunciators; Possibly PMU FAIL and CKPT ALT annunciators
  77. 8. What are the indications of PMU failure? (C/3/1
    a. Power step change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, aural tone
  78. 9. What are the indications of uncommanded propeller feather? (C/4/1)
    a. Rapid loss of power, high torque, lower NP, possible PMU FAIL/PMU STATUS annunciators, engine/airframe vibration, engine noise
  79. 10. What are some sensory indications of engine fire in-flight? (C/5/1)
    a. See smoke or flames, smell oil burning, hear unusual sounds, feel engine vibration or roughness
  80. 2. The power turbine is driven by ______.
    a. Expanding gases
  81. 3. What does FEVER stand for?
    a. Fluctuating oil pressure, oil temperature or hydraulic pressure, Excessive turbine temperature, Visual indications (smoke), Erratic engine operation, Roughness or vibration
  82. 4. What are the three engine sections?
    a. Accessory compartment, gas generation section, and power turbine section
  83. 5. What are the three types of abnormal start?
    a. Hot, hung, no start
  84. 6. What functions are performed by the PMU?
    a. Maintain operating limits, process power requests, control engine and propeller, provide near linear power response.
  85. 7. What is the purpose of the PIU?
    a. Regulate oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
  86. 9. What are some possible causes of engine failure in-flight?
    a. Fuel starvation, mechanical failure, compressor stall
  87. 11. What are the engine fire warning indicators?
    a. FEVER, FIRE annunciator, MASTER WARNING light, aural tone
  88. 12. What are some possible causes of uncommanded power loss?
    a. Engine rollback due to PMU scheduling, Oil/engine/fuel system contamination
  89. 13. What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
    a. Air, Fuel, and Heat
  90. 14. What are some possible indications of engine fire in-flight that may be seen on the engine displays?
    a. High ITT; Fluctuating: oil temperature and pressure, hydraulic pressure
  91. 1. What electrical component allows isolation of the generator and battery buses? (B/1/1)
    a. Bus tie switch
  92. 2. The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by a ______ located under a panel in the aft cockpit. (B/2/1)
    a. generator control unit
  93. 3. Generator power is controlled by the ______ switch located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit. (B/2/2)
    a. generator control (GEN)
  94. 4. The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power through the ______. (B/3/1)
    a. front cockpit avionics bus
  95. 5. Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear cockpit avionics buses and are located on the front cockpit ______. (B/3/2)
    a. battery bus and generator bus circuit breaker panels
  96. 6. A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel controls the ______. (B/3/3)
    a. rear cockpit battery bus
  97. 7. Except for the backup UHF control head and UHF transceiver, power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through ______ on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit. (B/3/4)
    a. an avionics master switch
  98. 8. An amber ______ light on the annunciator panel in each cockpit will indicate an open bus tie switch. (B/3/5)
    a. BUS TIE
  99. 9. Circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the battery bus are located on the ______ in each cockpit. (B/4/1)
    a. left console panel
  100. 10. Each circuit breaker is marked with the ______ it will allow to pass before popping. (B/4/2)
    a. maximum current load in amperes
  101. 11. Battery power is controlled through ______ on the right forward switch panel in either cockpit. (B/5/1)
    a. a battery switch
  102. 12. A switch labeled AUX BAT on the front cockpit left console test panel is positioned forward to test the ______ during preflight checks. (B/5/2)
    a. auxiliary battery
  103. 13. External power is controlled by the ______ and distributed on the ______. (B/5/3)
    a. battery switch; battery bus
  104. 14. Lighting for EFIS displays, the RMU, the AOA indexer and the GPS control panel is adjusted using the knob labeled INSTR PANEL on the trim control panel. (B/6/1)
    a. False
  105. 15. ______ lights can be detached and relocated to the right canopy rail for use as an area or map light. (B/6/2)
    a. Utility
  106. 16. The landing light will only come on when the landing light switch is activated and ______. (B/6/3)
    a. the landing gear is down and locked
  107. 17. When switched on, white position lights at the trailing edge of each wing tip ______. (B/6/4)
    a. are constantly illuminated
  108. 1. The generator provides 28 VDC power, and is capable of supplying ______ amps.
    a. 300
  109. 2. The generator can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the ______.
    a. generator control switch
  110. 4. If a component or circuit malfunctions, the affected ______ will open, shutting off current flow to that component or circuit.
    a. circuit breaker
  111. 5. The battery can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the _______.
    a. battery switch
  112. 6. Light output from the instruments, control panels, and displays can be adjusted by using dimming controls located on the ______ in each cockpit.
    a. trim control panel
  113. 7. The taxi light is located aft and inboard of the ______.
    a. right main landing gear strut
  114. 8. A fault occurs in the circuit controlling the anti-collision lights. The COLL circuit breaker will pop on the battery bus circuit breaker panel located on the ______.
    a. left side of the front cockpit
  115. 10. The starter/generator provides 28 volts DC, while the battery and auxiliary battery are ______ VDC units.
    a. 24
  116. 1. The motive flow system is normally driven by the electric boost pump. (B/1/1)
    a. False
  117. 2. When using the primary refueling method, the total amount of usable fuel in the tanks is approximately ______ pounds. (B/2/1)
    a. 1100 lbs
  118. 3. The collector tank holds a maximum of approximately ______ pounds of fuel. (B/2/2)
    a. 40
  119. 4. What is the primary method of refueling the T-6A? (B/3/1)
    a. Single point pressure refueling
  120. 5. Using the single point pressure refueling method, approximately how long does it take to refuel the aircraft? (B/3/2)
    a. 3 to 5 minutes
  121. 6. The secondary or backup method for refueling the T-6A is called ______. (B/3/3)
    a. over the wing gravity refueling
  122. 7. The engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump is fed from the ______. (B/4/1)
    a. engine-driven low pressure fuel pump
  123. 8. The motive flow line routes fuel to which of the following pumps? (B/4/2)
    a. Primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps
  124. 9. The collector tank is equipped with two fuel pumps for engine feed operations. Which one is used AFTER engine start? (B/4/3)
    • a. Primary jet pump
    • 10. The transfer jet pumps ensure adequate fuel delivery to the collector tank during engine operations.
  125. 11. During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve activates, providing the engine access to fuel located in the ______. (B/4/5)
    a. collector tank
  126. 13. What is the quantity of fuel indicated by the left fuel quantity arrow in this graphic? (B/5/1)
    a. 300 lbs
  127. 15. Once the engine is running and motive flow has been activated, the boost pump is automatically turned off by the low pressure switch. (B/5/3)
    a. True
  128. 17. The wing tanks are internally vented to each other by float valves. (B/6/1)
    a. False
  129. 18. The fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank to within ______ pounds of the other wing. (B/6/2)
    a. 20
  130. 1. Using the primary refueling method, the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank is ______ lbs.
    a. 530
  131. 2. The flip-flop valve in the collector tank provides a minimum of ______ seconds of fuel regardless of aircraft orientation.
    a. 15
  132. 3. Which method of refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously?
    a. Single point pressure refueling

    • 5. Which of the following maintains fuel balance by shutting off fuel flow to the light wing tank?
    • a. Transfer (solenoid) valve
  133. 6. The primary and transfer jet pumps are operated by ______.
    a. venturi flow
  134. 8. How long does it take to defuel the T-6A through the over the wing gravity refueling ports?
    a. The T-6A cannot be defueled through the over the wing gravity refueling ports.
  135. 9. Fuel is routed from the engine-driven fuel pump to the primary jet pump through which line?
    a. motive flow line
  136. 10. The left and right fuel quantity arrows on the AEDD turn yellow when indicated fuel quantity in the respective tank is below ______.
    a. 150 pounds
  137. 1. During normal operation, while the bus tie is closed, which electrical buses does the generator supply? (B/1/1)
    a. Both generator and battery buses are powered by the generator.
  138. 2. The GCU is located under a side panel in which cockpit? (B/1/2)
    a. The GCU is under a panel on the right side of the rear cockpit.
  139. 3. Generator and battery buses are tied together through which switch? (B/1/3)
    a. Bus tie switch
  140. 4. Power for aircraft avionics is supplied by which bus? (B/1/4)
    a. Both generator and battery buses supply power to avionics and radios.
  141. 5. Battery bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the cockpit? (B/1/5)
    a. Battery bus circuit breakers are located on the left side of the cockpit.
  142. 6. Control of battery power is transferable between cockpits using what? (B/1/6)
    a. Battery power control is transferable using the battery switch.
  143. 7. True or false? The auxiliary battery will activate automatically upon failure of the primary battery. (B/1/7)
    a. False. It must be activated by the auxiliary battery switch.
  144. 8. The landing and taxi lights are activated by the LDG and TAXI switches when the gear is ______. (B/1/8)
    a. down and locked
  145. 9. The navigation lights at the leading edge wing tips are what colors? (B/1/9)
    a. Red at the left wingtip and green at the right wingtip
  146. 10. Using single point refueling, the T-6A's maximum usable fuel is how many pounds? (B/2/1)
    a. 1100 pounds
  147. 11. Which refueling method allows more fuel to be pumped into the wing tanks? (B/2/2)
    a. Over-the-wing gravity refueling
  148. 12. The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are operated by what means? (B/2/3)
    a. The primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps are both operated by venturi flow generated by fuel flowing in the motive flow line.
  149. 13. Data from the fuel flow transmitter is displayed on what instrument? (B/2/4)
    a. The AEDD (Alternate Engine Data Display)
  150. 14. AEDD fuel quantity indications are derived from how many sensors in the fuel tanks? (B/2/5)
    a. Seven
  151. 15. What is indicated if the M FUEL BAL annunciator is lighted? (B/2/6)
    a. The fuel balance switch on the right forward switch panel has been set to MAN/RESET.
  152. 16. True or false? The weight of fuel in the collector tank is included in the total fuel weight on the AEDD. (B/2/7)
    a. True. Collector tank fuel is split between the left and right fuel quantity indications.
  153. 17. Which component prevents fuel from draining from the wing tank? (B/2/8)
    a. Float valve
  154. 18. If tank loads are out of balance, the auto balance system stops motive flow to which tank? (B/2/9)
    a. Motive flow is halted to the light tank.
  155. 19. The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate if the fuel weight difference between the left and right tanks exceeds what figure for more than two minutes? (B/3/1)
    a. 30 Pounds
  156. 20. True or false? Indications of the current limiter and/or actual bus failure are shown on this annunciator panel. (B/3/2)
    a. True. Illumination of the BAT BUS annunciator accompanied by these annunciators is an indication of actual battery bus or current limiter failure. If only the CWS circuit breaker is open, only the BAT BUS light will be illuminated.
  157. 21. The BOOST PUMP annunciator is cycling on and off. This could be an indication of what? (B/3/3)
    a. Low fuel pressure
  158. 1. The generator supplies what voltage to the generator and battery buses?\
    a. 28 volts DC
  159. 2. The anti-collision strobe lights are located where?
    a. The strobe lights are located on each wingtip near the leading edge.
  160. 3. External power is distributed on which bus?
    a. Battery bus
  161. 4. Gravity refueling adds how many total pounds to the T-6A normal capacity?
    a. 100 pounds

    • 5. Generator bus circuit breakers are located on which side of the cockpit?
    • a. Right side
  162. 6. In addition to the indications shown, you have lost all electronic instrument displays except EADI and AEDD. This is an indication of a failure of what component?
    a. Failure of the generator bus
  163. 7. True or false? Single-point refueling fills all three tanks sequentially beginning with the collector tank.
    False. Single-point refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously.
  164. 8. The control for which shutoff valve is located in the cockpit?
    The firewall shutoff valve control is located on the left console of the front cockpit.
  165. 9. Which annunciator illuminates if the autobalance system has failed or if the difference in weight between the left and right tanks exceeds 30 pounds for more than two minutes?
    The FUEL BAL annunciator will illuminate in these instances.
  166. 10. Which electrical component provides power for engine starts?
    The primary battery
  167. 1. The ailerons control movement of the aircraft in the ______axis. (B/2/1)
    c. longitudinal or roll
  168. 2. Which of the following is NOT a part of the aileron control system? (B/2/2)
    c. TAD
  169. 3. The elevator controls aircraft movement around the lateral or pitch axis. (B/3/1)
    a. True
  170. 4. What is the purpose of the bobweight located on the forward control stick? (B/3/2)
    c. Enhances control feedback and helps prevent overstressing of the airframe
  171. 5. The rudder controls aircraft movement around the vertical or yaw axis. (B/4/1)
    a. True
  172. 6. Rudder pedal position is adjusted with a hand crank located on the ______ (B/4/2)
    b. lower portion of the center console
  173. 7. Which flight control electromechanical trim system(s) utilize movement of the actual primary control
    • surface? (B/5/1)
    • a. Aileron
  174. 8. In the event of conflicting aileron or elevator trim inputs from the front and rear cockpit, the front
    • cockpit input will take priority. (B/5/2)
    • b. False
  175. 9. Visual indication of pitch, roll, and yaw trim can be found on the ______. (B/5/3)
    d. trim position indicators located on both trim control panels
  176. 10. A primary purpose of the TAD system is to ______. (B/6/1)
    d. assist the pilot in maintaining directional trim
  177. 11. The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on ______. (B/6/2)
    a. engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
  178. 12. In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the
    • ______ annunciator light. (B/6/3)
    • b. TAD OFF
  179. 13. What control surfaces are locked when the gust lock is engaged? (B/7/1)
    d. All of the above
  180. 1. The primary aircraft flight controls consist of the ______.
    c. ailerons, elevator, and rudder
  181. 2. Which of the following best describes the function of the aircraft’s elevator?
    b. The elevator system is used to cause movement in the lateral or pitch axis.
  182. 3. The aileron ground adjustable trim tabs are for maintenance use only and should not be tampered with
    • by the aircrew.
    • a. True
  183. 4. Which statement best describes the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
    d. Provides higher stick forces as G-loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe
  184. 5. Which of the following is NOT included in the rudder control system?
    d. Bobweight
  185. 6. Pilot control of aileron trim is accomplished by movement of an electromechanical trim tab installed
    • on the right aileron.
    • b. False
  186. 7. The Trim Aid Device (TAD) computer relays trim input to the ______.
    b. rudder trim tab actuator
  187. 8. The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until ______ KIAS and no weight on the wheels.
    c. 80
  188. 9. A green TAD OFF annunciator will illuminate when ______.
    d. the TRIM AID switch is set to off
  189. 10. The flight control gust lock is used to ______.
    c. lock the primary flight control surfaces when parked
  190. 1. What are the four devices operated by the primary hydraulic system under normal operations? (B/1/1)
    b. Landing gear/main gear inboard doors, flaps, speed brake and nose wheel steering
  191. 2. The hydraulic system and the return side of the power package reservoir are pressurized to which levels respectively? (B/1/2)
    d. 3000 ± 120 and 50 psi
  192. 3. When you select a cockpit control to lower the flaps, which element of the primary hydraulic system is responsible for activating the corresponding actuator? (B/1/3)
    b. Electrical selector valve
  193. 5. During the loss of engine power, the primary hydraulic system, or the battery bus, the emergency package will allow a one-time extension of______. (B/2/1)
    c. flaps, landing gear and main gear inboard doors
  194. 6. The emergency package’s manifold contains which of the following? (B/2/2)
    a. 2 emergency extension selector valves
  195. 7. What is the purpose of the pressure release valve in the emergency hydraulic system? (B/2/3)
    b. To automatically release pressure should it reach 3500 psi
  196. 8. When the EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates, it means that emergency accumulator hydraulic pressure is below ______ ± 150 psi. (B/2/4)
    c. 2400
  197. 9. Which set of landing gear doors are operated hydraulically? (C/1/1)
    c. The main gear inboard doors
  198. 10. A red light illuminated in the landing gear selector handle indicates that the PCL is approaching IDLE, with the gear handle up, or which of the following? (C/2/1)
    b. The landing gear doors are not closed.
  199. 12. Before extending the landing gear______. (C/2/3)
    b. reduce airspeed below 150 KIAS
  200. 13. What is the function of the emergency landing gear extension handle? (C/3/1)
    b. It activates the emergency system
  201. 1. The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hydraulic system to which of the following?
    c. 3000 ± 120 psi
  202. 2. The primary hydraulic system operates which of the following?
    c. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, nose wheel steering, and speed brake
  203. 3. What is true about the power package reservoir?
    d. A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump
  204. 4. The primary hydraulic system’s selector manifold contains which of the following?
    b. Electrical selector valves
  205. 5. Two specific conditions in which the emergency hydraulic system is used are:
    b. Loss of engine power or the primary hydraulic system fails
  206. 6. The emergency hydraulic system specifically operates which of the following?
    d. Landing gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
  207. 7. The emergency package receives its pressure from which of the following?
    b. From the emergency accumulator
  208. 8. Before lowering the gear using either the primary or emergency systems, ensure the ______.
    d. airspeed is below 150 KIAS
  209. 9. The amber EHYD PX LO annunciator light means which of the following?
    a. Pressure in the emergency accumulator is below 2400 psi ? 150
  210. 10. The HYDR FL LO annunciator means which of the following?
    d. Reservoir fluid level is below 1 Qt
  211. 11. When the power package slide valve closes, the hydraulic pump pressure is prevented from energizing any hydraulic components except for the ______.
    b. nose wheel steering actuator
  212. 1. What does using flaps in the landing setting allow you to do? (B/1/1)
    d. Maintain approach glidepath while reducing airspeed
  213. 2. What happens if the primary hydraulic system fails? (B/1/2)
    c. The flaps can be operated using the emergency system package.
  214. 3. Before operating the flaps using the emergency system, you must ______. (B/1/3)
    d. lower the landing gear using the emergency system
  215. 4. Which of the following is a critical limitation of the speed brake? (B/2/1)
    b. The speed brake does not operate using the emergency hydraulic system.
  216. 5. Where does the pressure come from that creates the mechanical force to extend the speed brake? (B/2/2)
    a. From the primary hydraulic system
  217. 6. Which of the following is an important difference between using the NWS or differential braking?
    • (B/3/1)
    • b. NWS is more sensitive than differential braking.
  218. 7. What happens to NWS if the primary hydraulic system fails? (B/3/2)
    d. The NWS system will be inoperative and use of rudder and/or differential braking on the ground will be necessary.
  219. 8. Which is true regarding the wheel brake system? (B/4/1)
    c. The wheel brake system will continue to operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
  220. 9. Which is the procedure for activating the parking brake? (B/4/2)
    d. Pull and turn the handle 90° clockwise while pushing on the toe brakes.
  221. 1. Which is true regarding the nose wheel steering system?
    c. The NWS is separate from the selector manifold.
  222. 2. Which is true regarding the NWS and emergency systems?
    b. The NWS will not operate if the primary hydraulic system fails.
  223. 3. Which component specifically ensures the nose wheel is properly aligned before it is retracted or extended?
    b. Centering valve
  224. 4. Engaging NWS at high speeds can result in ______.
    a. directional control problems due to increased sensitivity
  225. 5. What are the functions of the speed brake?
    b. Decelerate, and increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
  226. 6. Which is true regarding the speed brake?
    a. It will not operate using the emergency system.
  227. 7. Which of the following will NOT cause the speed brake to retract?
    d. The gear is retracted.
  228. 8. If the flap indicator fails, how can flap extension be confirmed?
    b. Observing a slight nose up tendency
  229. 9. Which statement below is correct regarding flap operations?
    c. Emergency flap operation IS NOT available when the auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power.
  230. 10. Which is true regarding the parking brake?
    d. The parking brake is applied by pushing on the toe brakes while simultaneously activating the handle.
  231. 11. Before lowering the flaps, you should ensure your airspeed is less than which value?
    d. 150 KIAS
  232. 12. Which component is responsible for sending pressure to the main wheel brakes?
    c. Master cylinder
  233. 13. The ______ is (are) interconnected with the elevator trim tab actuator to automatically input pitch trim to compensate for pitch effects as it is operated.
    d. speed brake
  234. 1. The ailerons control aircraft movement around which axis? (B/1/1)
    A: Longitudinal (roll)
  235. 2. What are the aileron trailing edge traveling limits? (B/1/2)
    A: 20º up, 11º down
  236. 3. How are the ailerons mass balanced and what function does this perform? (B/1/3)
    • A: Small weights are placed along the leading edge at the point where the ailerons pivot. These
    • weights ensure the center of gravity for each aileron is at the pivot point. This is necessary
    • because the mass of each aileron is rearward of the hinge line.
  237. 4. What is the function of the bobweight? (B/1/4)
    A: Provides heavier stick force when G-load is increasing; Helps prevent overstressing of aircraft frame
  238. 5. What is the purpose of the elevator system? (B/1/5)
    A: It controls the pitch angle of the aircraft around the lateral (pitch) axis.
  239. 6. If you move the control stick forward in flight, how will the aircraft react? (B/1/6)
    A: Elevator trailing edge deflects downward and aircraft nose pitches down
  240. 7. What is the purpose of the rudder system? (B/1/7)
    A: It controls the aircraft’s yaw movement around the vertical (yaw) axis
  241. 8. What happens when you step on the right rudder pedal? (B/1/8)
    A: Moves tail left; Causes aircraft nose to yaw right
  242. 9. How does the pilot adjust the rudder pedals to position them at a more convenient setting? (B/1/9)
    A: By rotating the pedal adjustment hand crank
  243. 10. Which primary flight control surface actually moves as part of the trim system? (B/2/1)
    A: The ailerons
  244. 11. Where are the trim controls for the aileron trim setting, the elevator trim setting, and the rudder trim setting? (B/2/2)
    • A: a. The elevator/aileron trim switch located at the top of each control stick
    • b. The rudder trim switch located on the PCL in each cockpit
  245. 12. What is the function of the trim disconnect switch? (B/2/3)
    A: It removes power from the trim system and disengages the Trim Aid Device.
  246. 13. What are the indications the trim disconnect switch has been selected? (B/2/4)
    A: The green TRIM OFF and TAD OFF annunciator lights will illuminate.
  247. 14. How is electrical power provided to operate the aileron and elevator trim system? (B/2/5)
    • A: Through a circuit breaker placarded AIL/EL TRIM located on the battery bus breaker panel
    • in the front cockpit
  248. 15. What four factors does the TAD computer consider when calculating the rudder trim setting? (B/2/6)
    A: Pitch rate, airspeed, altitude and engine torque
  249. 16. If the gust lock is installed properly, how will the control surfaces appear when they are visually inspected? (B/2/7)
    • A: The ailerons and rudder will be in a neutral position and the elevator will be in a nose-down
    • position.
  250. 17. What aircraft components are operated by the primary hydraulic system? (C/1/1)
    • A: a. Landing gear and main gear inboard doors
    • b. Flaps
    • c. Speed brake
    • d. Nose wheel steering
  251. 18. What component is the source of pressure for the primary hydraulic system? (C/1/2)
    A: The engine-driven pump
  252. 19. What gauge color indicates hydraulic pressure is in the extended scale, but within safe operating limits? (C/1/3)
    A: White
  253. 20. When the HYDR FL LO annunciator light illuminates, what does it indicate? (C/1/4)
    A: The fluid level in the reservoir has dropped below one quart.
  254. 21. What is the purpose of the emergency hydraulic system? (C/1/5)
    A: It provides a one-time lowering of the landing gear, main gear inboard doors and flaps.
  255. 22. What are the normal operating ranges for the hydraulic system pressure and fluid quantity? (C/1/6)
    • A: a. Pressure at 2880-3120 psi on the Engine/Systems/NACWS display
    • b. FULL AC (accumulator charged) or FULL AD (accumulator discharged) displayed on
    • the green indicating rod in the reservoir level window
  256. 23. What is the maximum speed to operate the landing gear? (C/2/1)
    A: 150 KIAS
  257. 24. When is the emergency landing gear extension system used? (C/2/2)
    • A: Loss of either primary hydraulic system or battery bus power, or in the event of an engine
    • failure
  258. 25. What is the normal sequence for the emergency extension of the landing gear? (C/2/3)
    • A: a. Lower the landing gear selector handle
    • b. Pull the emergency landing gear extension handle
  259. 26. What is the maximum flap operating speed? (C/3/1)
    A: 150 KIAS
  260. 27. Can the flaps be operated in the event the primary hydraulic system fails? (C/3/2)
    A: Yes, after the landing gear has been lowered using the emergency system.
  261. 28. What is the purpose of the speed brake? (C/4/1)
    • A: The speed brake allows you to decelerate. It also allows you to increase descent rate without
    • increasing your airspeed.
  262. 29. Where is the SPEED BRAKE circuit breaker located? (C/4/2)
    A: On the front cockpit generator bus circuit breaker panel
  263. 30. What can happen if NWS is engaged at high taxi speeds? (C/5/1)
    A: It can result in directional control problems due to increased sensitivity.
  264. 31. Which has the larger turn radius, nose wheel steering or differential braking? (C/6/1)
    A: Nose wheel steering
  265. 32. What are the indications of abnormal primary flight control operations? (D/1/1)
    • A: a. Uncommanded pitch, roll or yaw movements
    • b. sluggish response to control inputs
  266. 33. What is the corrective action to take in the case of runaway trim? (D/1/2)
    A: Perform runaway trim checklist procedures
  267. 34. If the EHYD PX LO illuminates, what aircraft devices should you consider inoperative? (D/2/1)
    A: Emergency landing gear and flap extension
  268. 35. What are some indications of unsafe landing gear? (D/2/2)
    • A: a. Indicator lights
    • b. Lack of noticeable drag
    • c. Lack of noticeable noise
    • d. AOA indexer not active
    • e. Inability to turn on landing or taxi lights
    • f. Tendency to roll (main gear)
  269. 36. What indicator lights would illuminate with the main landing gear full down, the nose gear still fully retracted, and the PCL above IDLE? (D/2/3)
    A: Two green mains, two red mains, red gear handle light
  270. 37. When lowering flaps using the emergency system, what two conditions might result? (D/2/4)
    A: The flaps might extend only partially and they can take longer to extend.
  271. 38. What are the indications of wheel brake failure? (D/2/5)
    • A: a. Inability to maintain directional control
    • b. Inability to decelerate
    • c. “Spongy” or soft brake pedal
    • d. The aircraft pulls to one side
  272. 1. The elevator controls the aircraft around which axis?
    A: The lateral (pitch) axis
  273. 2. The ailerons move opposite each other to cause the aircraft to move about which axis?
    A: The longitudinal (roll) axis
  274. 3. The rudder causes a yaw movement around the ______ axis.
    A: vertical (yaw)
  275. 4. A “ground-adjustable” trim tab is found on ______.
    A: the ailerons
  276. 5. What are the factors used by the TAD computer to calculate proper rudder trim tab settings?
    A: Engine torque, altitude, airspeed and pitch rate
  277. 6. Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until ______.
    A: the aircraft accelerates to 80 KIAS and there is no weight on the wheels
  278. 7. The primary and emergency hydraulic systems are pressurized to what level?
    A: 3000 ± 120 psi
  279. 8. What is the function of the hydraulic system engine-driven pump?
    • A: It creates hydraulic pressure that is transferred to the primary system and to the emergency
    • accumulator.
  280. 9. The emergency hydraulic system services which aircraft components?
    A: The landing gear, main gear inboard doors and flaps, for a one-time extension
  281. 10. When extending the landing gear, which gear door ultimately closes as part of the extension sequence?
    A: The main gear inboard doors
  282. 11. What does the red light in the landing gear selector handle indicate when illuminated?
    A: The gear doors are not closed, or the PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP.
  283. 12. What happens to nose wheel steering if the hydraulic system fails?
    A: NWS will not operate because it is serviced by the primary hydraulic system.
  284. 13. What happens to the speed brake if the hydraulic system fails?
    A: The speed brake will not operate.
  285. 14. The flaps should not be operated above what airspeed?
    A: 150 KIAS
  286. 15. When completing a sharp turn, how should nose wheel steering be used?
    • A: Nose wheel steering should be turned off prior to the turn since the NWS will try to limit the
    • nose wheel castor.
  287. 16. What causes the EHYD PX LO annunciator light to illuminate?
    A: If the emergency accumulator pressure is less than 2400 psi (plus or minus 150 psi)
  288. 17. Will you have use of the speed brake with the emergency hydraulic system?
    • A: No, the emergency system services only the landing gear, the main gear inboard doors and
    • flaps.
  289. 18. Can you expect to use the wheel brakes if operating with a failure of the primary hydraulic system?
    • A: Yes, because the wheel brake system is separate from the primary and emergency hydraulic
    • systems.

Card Set Information

Author:
strent61
ID:
245557
Filename:
Systems 1 (All Sections).txt
Updated:
2013-11-07 02:30:45
Tags:
systems
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Description:
15-02 Systems I
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