Plt MQF 2013_cards.txt

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Plt MQF 2013_cards.txt
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HH 60G MQF
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Air Force HH-60G MQF
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  1. Name: HH-60G Pilot QUAL MQF Dec 2011 Squadron: ACC
    • Master Creation Date: 16 Oct 2007 21:10
    • Last Modified Date: 20 Dec 2011 00:12
    • Source: ACC Number of Questions: 200
  2. AFCS
  3. 1(10). With the SAS/FPS computer, _________ is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-69 Chap: 1
    A. roll attitude less than 3 degrees
    B. airspeed less than 60 KIAS
    C. roll rate less than 5 deg/sec
    D. all of the above
    B. airspeed less than 60 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. 2(11). If the Ground BITE check (AFCC) is inadvertently initiated, _________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-70 Chap: 1 Para: WARNING

    A. hold a 10 foot hover while resetting the AFCC
    B. no corrective action is necessary, the FPS will function normally
    C. reset the AFCC after takeoff, once straight and level flight is established
    D. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes to ensure FPS authority has been reenabled
    D. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes to ensure FPS authority has been reenabled
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. 3(12). Flight near high power RF emitters such as microwave antennas or shipboard radar may cause uncommanded AFCS and/or stabilator inputs.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-79 Chap: 1 Para: NOTE

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  6. 4(172). If _____ of the stabilator check fails, do not fly the helicopter.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-20 WARNING Chap: 2
    A. all parts
    B. any part
    C. two parts
    D. one part
    B. any part
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. 5(9). With the AFCC, _________ is required for turn coordination to disengage and transition to heading hold.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-69 Chap: 1
    A. roll attitude less than 3 degrees
    B. roll rate less than 5 deg/sec
    C. airspeed less than 60 KIAS
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  8. AIE operations
    6(151). Do not conduct hoist training with the hoist operator's intercom inoperative.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.4
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  9. 7(153). For live hoist training, hoist riders will not be lifted higher than _____ feet over terrain, obstacles, or water; but may be lifted up to _____ feet to meet unique training requirements with concurrence of both the Aircraft Commander and Team Leader.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.2

    A. 25, 40
    B. 30, 50
    C. 25, 50
    D. 40, 40
    C. 25, 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. 8(154). ____________ determine eligibility of personnel authorized to ride the hoist during training.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.1

    A. OG/CC
    B. Unit Commanders
    C. WG/CC
    D. Aircraft Commander
    B. Unit Commanders
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Air Refueling
    9(176). Once the tankers assume ________, the ________ will be responsible for all navigation, weather avoidance, and position reporting.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 204 b.

    A. formation lead, receivers
    B. formation lead, tankers
    C. 1/2 NM trail, tankers
    D. 1/2 NM trail, RAPCON
    B. formation lead, tankers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 10(177). Overt _______ may cause excessive glare during NVG join ups.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-2 Chap: Part 3 Para: 403 b. (2) NOTE
    A. anti-collision lights
    B. position lighting
    C. tail position lights
    D. strobe lights
    A. anti-collision lights
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 11(179). During HAAR Formation Option 2 (Trail), the helicopter flight separates into two elements in trail. Standard spacing between helicopter elements is ______; however, it may be as little as _____ and should be determined based on mission requirements such as number of receivers, terrain, forecast visibility, and light conditions.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 3-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: 303 a.

    A. 2nm, 0.5nm
    B. 3nm, 2nm
    C. 3nm, 1nm
    D. 2nm, 1 nm
    A. 2nm, 0.5nm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 12(180). If visual and electronic contact are lost after the tanker is within 3 NM of the receiver, the tanker will immediately call "CONTACT LOST", establish a minimum ______ foot vertical separation and ______ of the track heading.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 405 a. (1) (a) (i-iii

    A. 500/turn 45 degrees right
    B. 1,000/turn 90 degrees right
    C. 500/turn 30 degrees left
    D. 1,000/turn 45 degrees left
    A. 500/turn 45 degrees right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. 13(181). Under no circumstances should the pilot stare at the ______ as this will result in poor aircraft control and may result in spatial disorientation.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-4 Chap: Part 3 Para: 206 b. WARNING

    A. drogue
    B. hose
    C. pod
    D. wing tip
    A. drogue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 14(182). Wing/prop turbulence can cause uncontrolled settling. If this occurs while connected to the drogue, disconnect immediately.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 206 b. WARNING

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  17. 15(183). A counter-clockwise rotating drogue could result in partial or complete unthreading of the probe nozzle.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-5 Chap: Part 3 Para: 206 b. CAUTION

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  18. 16(184). Lengths of pod hoses vary between ______ and ______ depending on the system and use; 24 m (80 ft) is typical of an integral system hose.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 3-2 Chap: Part 1 Para: 302 c. (1)

    A. 20 m (70 ft)/30 m (105 ft)
    B. 8 m (25 ft)/30 m (105 ft)
    C. 10 m (35 ft)/25 m (84 ft)
    D. 15 m (50 ft)/27 m (90 ft)
    D. 15 m (50 ft)/27 m (90 ft)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 17(185). If a crossover is required, the receiver pilot will move to the outside of the tanker wing tip, ______ feet aft of the horizontal stabilizer and increase altitude a minimum of ______ feet above the tanker's vertical stabilizer.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-3 Chap: Part 3 Para: 205

    A. 110/50
    B. 200/200
    C. 100/50
    D. 50/100
    C. 100/50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 18(186). Due to distraction and the difficulty of maintaining lateral separation, two receivers will not disconnect or fly in the ______ position simultaneously.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-7 Chap: Part 3 Para: 208 b. WARNING

    A. observation
    B. contact
    C. astern
    D. disconnect
    C. astern
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 19(187). The ARCP (HAAR ONLY) is defined as _______.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-2 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. the designated geographic point at which the refueling track terminates
    B. normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up
    C. the area limits behind the tanker within which the receiver must fly to remain in contact with the tanker
    D. a designated point at which the receiver enters the anchor area
    B. normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. 20(188). When conducting RV procedures, both the receivers and the tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however, if a deviation is required, receivers should arrive at the ARCP _______ and tankers should arrive at the ARCP _______.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-2 Chap: Part 3 Para: 203 b.

    A. earlier/later
    B. earlier (no more than 30 seconds)/later (no more than 30 seconds)
    C. earlier (no more than 1 minute)/later (no more than 1 minute)
    D. later (no more than 1 minute)/earlier (no more than 1 minute)
    C. earlier (no more than 1 minute)/later (no more than 1 minute)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. 21(189). Disconnect is approximately _______ feet above the contact position.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-5 Chap: Part 3 Para: 207

    A. 5 - 20
    B. 5 - 10
    C. 10 - 20
    D. 10 - 15
    B. 5 - 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 22(190). One White light from the tanker indicates _______ to the receiver.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-4 Chap: Part 3 Para: Table 5A-4

    A. "clear to cross over"
    B. "proceed to observation"
    C. "clear wet/dry contacts"
    D. "prepare for turn"
    B. "proceed to observation"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. 23(191). The AAR Abort Point is defined as _______.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-2 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. a planned point along the receiver track at which the receiver must divert, if he is not in contact receiving fuel
    B. a point located upstream from the ARCP at which the receiver aircraft initiates a rendezvous with the tanker
    C. a designated point at which the receiver enters the anchor area
    D. any random point along the track at which the receiver or tanker will abort the HAAR, initiate separation procedures, and return to the ARIP
    A. a planned point along the receiver track at which the receiver must divert, if he is not in contact receiving fuel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 24(192). ________ is the minimum acceptable equipment for conducting electronic RV (HAAR).
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 2-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: 202 b.

    A. Radar (capable of displaying range and bearing)
    B. Operational A/A TACAN
    C. IFF Interrogator (capable of displaying range and bearing)
    D. all of the above are acceptable minimum equipment
    D. all of the above are acceptable minimum equipment
  27. 25(193). ________ is the command given by the tanker to receiver, either verbally or by signal, instructing receiver to disengage from tanker refueling equipment.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-6 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. "Breakaway"
    B. "Disengage"
    C. "Break Contact"
    D. "Disconnect"
    D. "Disconnect"
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 26(194). During a "Tobaggan" procedure, the rate of descent is between ______ and ______ feet per minute and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-13 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. 400/500
    B. 300/400
    C. 200/300
    D. 300/500
    D. 300/500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 27(195). A planned geographic point prior to the RVCP to which tankers and receivers time independently to effect an arrival at the RVCT is the ________.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-11 Part 1 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. AREP
    B. RVIP
    C. ARCP
    D. ARCT
    B. RVIP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 28(196). The Observation Position is defined as a position to the left or right of the tanker, _______ of the wingtip and slightly above and _______ the tanker horizontal stabilizer.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-8 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition

    A. inboard, abeam
    B. outboard, abeam
    C. outboard, behind
    D. inboard, behind
    A. inboard, abeam
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 29(197). Emission Option ______ (Emission Out) is defined as: No emitters will be used unless specifically authorized by the plan that the HAAR is supporting (ATO, SPINS, Rules of Engagement (ROE), Operations plan, Safe Passage procedures, or other mission directive).
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: Figure 5A-1
    A. 3
    B. 2
    C. 1
    D. 4
    D. 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 30(198). ___________ is defined as: Any and all emitters are authorized, ie full RT for training purposes adding any timing that would affect the RV.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: Figure 5A-1
    A. Emission Option 2 - (HAAR)
    B. Emission Option 4 - (HAAR)
    C. Emission Option 1 - (HAAR)
    D. Emission Option 3 - (HAAR)
    C. Emission Option 1 - (HAAR)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. 31(199). Emission Option _______ (Silent R/T) is defined as: Radio silent operations including formation, RV and HAAR. The use of other emitters is authorized unless specifically prohibited.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 5A-1 Chap: Part 3 Para: Figure 5A-1
    A. 4 (HAAR)
    B. 2 (HAAR)
    C. 3 (HAAR)
    D. 1 (HAAR)
    C. 3 (HAAR)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 32(200). A _______ is made when the probe engages the drogue.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 1A-5 Chap: Part 1 Para: Terms and Definition
    A. Contact
    B. Sweet Lock
    C. Transfer
    D. Hit
    A. Contact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 33(4). During Aerial Refueling if the OVERFLOW indicator on the fuel management panel illuminates, the following corrective action should be taken ____________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-37 Chap: 1
    A. retract the probe
    B. no action needed
    C. activate the FUEL DUMP switch
    D. hold the MAIN switch to SHUTOFF
    D. hold the MAIN switch to SHUTOFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. 34(5). The probe valve can be opened to on-load fuel through a retracted probe with the helicopter on the ground by _____________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-48 Chap: 1
    A. activation of the left WOW switch
    B. set the MAN AUX FLOW switch to FLOW
    C. set MODE SELECT switch to MAN
    D. all of the above
    A. activation of the left WOW switch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. APU
    35(2). The FUEL PUMP switch should be at APU BOOST for all APU operations.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-15 Chap: 1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  38. Basic Helicopter Performance
    36(46). The following corrective action should be accomplished in order to recover from a vortex ring state.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 6-2 Chap: 6
    A. increase forward airspeed and decrease collective pitch
    B. decrease forward airspeed and increase collective pitch
    C. both A and C
    D. enter autorotation, if altitude permits
    C. both A and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Electric
    37(6). If the APU generator is the sole source of AC power all equipment may be operated except
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-50 Chap: 1 Para: NOTE
    A. both A and B
    B. windshield anti-ice when the backup pump is on
    C. blade de-ice
    D. none of the above
    A. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 38(7). When the #1 AC generator is inoperative and BACKUP PUMP PWR circuit breaker is out for any reason, _________ must be shut off before resetting the circuit breaker.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-51 Chap: 1 Para: CAUTION
    A. #1 main generator switch
    B. both A and B
    C. AC electrical power
    D. BACKUP PUMP switch
    D. BACKUP PUMP switch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Emergency Equipment
    39(16). The crash axe is located ___________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-95 Chap: 1
    A. AG's console
    B. cabin side of the aft console
    C. FE's console
    D. behind AC's seat
    A. AG's console
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Emergency Procedures
    40(173). A boost servo malfunction ______ be accompanied by illumination of the BOOST SERVO OFF caution light.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-37 NOTE Chap: 3
    A. will never
    B. will sometimes
    C. will always
    D. may or may not
    D. may or may not
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 41(174). Weapon Systems Emergencies: A ______ is the complete failure of the weapon to fire. This is not dangerous, but must be treated as a malfunction in the firing mechanism or a faulty round.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-53 Chap: 3
    A. runaway gun
    B. bent gun
    C. misfire
    D. hang fire
    C. misfire
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 42(26). Loss of DC primary power will result in the engine anti-ice and engine inlet anti-ice valves failing to the ___________ position.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-15 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING
    A. depends on the OAT
    B. open
    C. depends on the switch positions
    D. closed
    B. open
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. 43(27). During autorotations, pitch attitudes from a hover attitude to _________ degrees nose-up at the point of touchdown normally result in a safe landing.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-22 Chap: 3
    A. 4-5
    B. 25
    C. 15
    D. 10
    B. 25
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. 44(28). Do not respond to ENG OUT audio and warning lights until checking _________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING
    A. Nf
    B. both A and B
    C. TGT
    D. Nr
    B. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. 45(29). If AC electrical power is not available, only the ________ engine compartment has fire protection. Additionally only the ________ fire bottle is capable of being discharged.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-23 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING
    A. #1; main
    B. #1; reserve
    C. #2; reserve
    D. #2; main
    B. #1; reserve
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. 46(30). The minimum rotor speed for a single-engine go-around is __________% Nr.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-26 Chap: 3
    A. 96
    B. 100
    C. 91
    D. 95
    D. 95
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. 47(31). If the airspeed fault advisory light is illuminated, continued flight above _________ KIAS with the stabilator in the AUTO mode is unsafe.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-33 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING
    A. 40
    B. 80
    C. 70
    D. 25
    C. 70
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 48(32). _________ is the first step for both #1 or #2 FUEL PRESS CAUTION LIGHT and #1 or #2 FUEL FLTR BYPASS CAUTION LIGHT ON checklist.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-34 Chap: 3
    A. Fuel Boost Pump Switch (affected tank) - OFF
    B. Fuel Boost Pump Switch (unaffected tank) - OFF
    C. Fuel Selector (affected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)
    D. Fuel Selector (unaffected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)
    C. Fuel Selector (affected engine) - Select alternate tank. (DIR or XFD)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. 49(33). _______________ should be done when #1 RSVR LOW and #1 HYD PUMP caution lights illuminate with BACKUP PUMP ON advisory light on, followed by BACKUP RSVR LOW caution light on.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-36 Chap: 3
    A. BACKUP PUMP switch - OFF
    B. both A and C
    C. TAIL SERVO switch - BACKUP
    D. SVO OFF switch - 1st STG
    D. SVO OFF switch - 1st STG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. 50(34). ___________ is the first step of the BOOST SERVO MALFUNCTION checklist.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-37 Chap: 3
    A. BOOST switch - OFF
    B. SAS-1 and SAS-2 switches - OFF
    C. Airspeed - Adjust
    D. all of the above
    A. BOOST switch - OFF
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. 51(35). If tail rotor control is lost, do not use aerodynamic braking to slow the helicopter after touchdown.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 3-52 Chap: 3 Para: WARNING
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  54. Engine
    52(1). The HMU provides Ng overspeed protection, __________ if Ng reaches 110% +/- 2.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-3 Chap: 1
    A. shutting off all fuel flow with no possible restart until maintenance corrective action
    B. shutting off all fuel flow followed by an automatic restart.
    C. through TGT limiting
    D. reducing fuel flow
    A. shutting off all fuel flow with no possible restart until maintenance corrective action
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. 53(169). With the throttle in ECU/DEC LOCKOUT, _______ is deactivated and the _______ must be manually controlled.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-10 Chap: 1
    A. Automatic TGT Limiting System, Ng
    B. Engine Overspeed Protection System, TGT
    C. Engine Overspeed Protection System, Ng
    D. Automatic TGT Limiting System, TGT
    D. Automatic TGT Limiting System, TGT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. 54(18). If ENG INLET ANTI-ICE ON light goes on with ENG ANTI-ICE NO. 1 and NO. 2 switches in the OFF position, it indicates that heat is being applied to that engine and a malfunction exists.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-113 Chap: 1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  57. Flight Controls
    55(8). Which of the following functions does the mixing unit provide as a result of increased collective?
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-62 Chap: 1
    A. left lateral cyclic input
    B. increased tail rotor pitch
    C. right lateral cyclic input
    D. both A and C
    D. both A and C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Fuel
    56(170). Auxiliary Tanks: If the 200 Gallon Internal Auxiliary Fuel Tank contains more than _____ of its total fuel capacity, the lower cargo rings structure securing the left and right restraint beams may fail on impact with the ground, causing the tank to dislodge. This causes an increase in the probability and severity of injury.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-31 WARNING Chap: 1
    A. 58%
    B. 48%
    C. 55%
    D. 45%
    A. 58%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)


    • 57(3). When using fuel without icing inhibitor, avoid flying at altitudes where indicated OAT is below ________ to preclude fuel system icing.
    • Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-27 Chap: 1 Para: CAUTION
    • A. 0° C
    • B. 0° F
    • C. 4°C
    • D. 4° F
    • A. 0° C
  59. General
    58(110). Helicopters equipped with a _______ that provides sufficient light for a landing may substitute that for an operable landing light.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.20.5
    A. searchlight
    B. FLIR
    C. position lights
    D. tail position light
    A. searchlight
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. 59(117). Deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 require specific approval of the ________ unless an urgent requirement or an aircraft emergency dictates otherwise.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 1.3
    A. SQ/CC
    B. WG/CC
    C. ACC/A3T (NGB: NGB/A3T)
    D. MAJCOM/A3 (NGB: NGB/A3)
    D. MAJCOM/A3 (NGB: NGB/A3)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. 60(118). The Aircraft Commander is responsible for all of the following except_________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 2.1
    A. Responsible for the welfare of the crew and the safe accomplishment of the mission.
    B. Approving deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 during routine mission accomplishment.
    C. Ensuring aircraft security when away from home station.
    D. The final authority for asking for and accepting waivers affecting the crew or mission.
    B. Approving deviations from AFI 11-2HH-60V3 during routine mission accomplishment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. 61(119). Passengers will not be carried on flights involving practice emergency procedure training.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 2.7.1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  63. 62(120). Concerning MEP, unless otherwise stated in MAJCOM supplements to AFI 11-401, _______ or equivalent with Operational Control (OPCON) is the approving authority.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 2.8.1
    A. OG/CC
    B. Wing/CC
    C. MAJCOM/DO
    D. SQ/CC
    A. OG/CC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. 63(17). When WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE switch is on, and there is windshield ice build up, it indicates that the monitor has turned off the system, the following corrective action should be taken __________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-113 Chap: 1
    A. WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE PILOT, CTR, and COPILOT switches must be placed OFF and then ON
    B. both A and C
    C. turn the PITOT HEAT switch OFF
    D. wait for the system to automatically turn back on
    A. WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE PILOT, CTR, and COPILOT switches must be placed OFF and then ON
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. 64(171). Maintain positive control of the engine cowling/work platform when opening and closing. Do not lean on vertical arm of cowling. Do not exceed _____ pounds of total weight on platform. Individual on platform will not exceed _____ pounds.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-6 WARNING Chap: 2
    A. 400, 400
    B. 400, 250
    C. 300, 300
    D. 400, 300
    B. 400, 250
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. 65(97). A PIC may deviate from any flight rule only when ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 1.7
    A. an in-flight emergency requires immediate action
    B. deviation is required to protect lives
    C. when safety of flight dictates
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  67. 66(98). The following are approved types of flight logs _______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 2.5
    A. AF Form 70
    B. navigator's flight log
    C. lead command approved computer-generated flight log
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  68. General Operating Procedures
    67(100). When two aircraft are approaching head-on, each shall alter course to the ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.7.3
    A. the faster (less maneuverable) aircraft has the right of way
    B. right
    C. left
    D. the slower (more maneuverable) aircraft has the right of way
    B. right
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. 68(109). If weather prevents continued flight under VFR on the planned route, the PIC will alter the route of flight as necessary, so as to continue operations under VFR _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 7.1.3
    A. to the destination
    B. until obtaining an IFR clearance
    C. to a suitable landing location
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  70. 69(111). Avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least ______ laterally below FL 230.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.26.3.1
    A. 10 NM
    B. 20 NM
    C. 5 NM
    D. 3 NM
    A. 10 NM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. 70(112). Helicopters operating in class G airspace below 1200 ft AGL adhere to the following cloud clearance and visibility _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: TABLE 7.1
    A. night 1 SM clear of clouds
    B. day ½ SM clear of clouds
    C. both A and B
    D. none of the above
    C. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. 71(163). The final responsibility regarding equipment required for a mission rests with the _____________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.18.3
    A. SQ/DO
    B. Aircraft Commander
    C. SQ/CC
    D. Cabin NCOIC
    B. Aircraft Commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. 72(47). When visible moisture is present, pitot heat, engine anti-ice, blade de-ice and windshield anti-ice should be turned on when at or below ________ degrees C. These systems must be turned on at or below _________ degrees C.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-1 Chap: 7
    A. 0; -5
    B. 13; 0
    C. 10; 4
    D. 21; 10
    C. 10; 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. 73(48). If high engine oil pressure is observed during initial start in cold weather, accomplish the following _________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-4 Chap: 7
    A. make an AF Form 781 write-up
    B. immediately shut down the engine
    C. run engine at idle until pressure is within limits
    D. both A and C
    C. run engine at idle until pressure is within limits
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. 74(49). During hot weather ground operations if engine oil pressure falls into the red gauge range and/or the engine oil pressure caution light comes on when the throttle is in IDLE, accomplish the following ____________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-5 Chap: 7
    A. slightly advance the throttle, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable
    B. no action required, it is acceptable to fly with the engine oil pressure caution light illuminated
    C. rapidly advance the throttle to fly, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable
    D. immediately move the throttle to the OFF position
    A. slightly advance the throttle, if engine oil pressure caution light extinguishes, oil pressure is acceptable
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. 75(50). During salt water operations, the rate of salt build up in engines is greatest in winds of ________ knots.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-11 Chap: 7
    A. 8 to 12
    B. 15 to 20
    C. 3 to 4
    D. 5 to 10
    A. 8 to 12
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Hyd
    76(14). In flight which of the following caution/advisory lights will indicate a hydraulic leak test was attempted_________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-84 Chap: 1
    A. BACKUP RSVR LOW
    B. #1 TAIL ROTOR SERVO, BOOST SERVO OFF, SAS OFF
    C. #1 and #2 RSVR LOW, #2 TAIL ROTOR SERVO ON, BACKUP PUMP ON
    D. all of the above
    A. BACKUP RSVR LOW
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Instrument
    77(102). Helicopter pilots must use the published visibility minimums for "Copter Only" approaches as published.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.6.4
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  79. 78(104). The required climb gradient for a selected IFR departure is _________________ (if a higher gradient is not published) to the appropriate minimum IFR altitude.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.10.4
    A. 200 ft/NM
    B. 300 ft/NM
    C. 250 ft/NM
    A. 200 ft/NM
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. D. none of the above
    79(105). For an airport to qualify as an alternate, the worst forecasted prevailing weather conditions (ETA +/- 1 hour) must meet or exceed _________________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.8.1.2
    A. a ceiling 200 ft. above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.
    B. a ceiling 400 ft above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.
    C. 700/1
    D. A or C, whichever is higher
    A. a ceiling 200 ft. above, and a visibility of at least 1 SM above, the lowest compatible published landing minimum.
  81. 80(106). For an airfield without a Published Instrument Approach Procedure to qualify as an alternate, the forecast weather for the ETA (+/- _______) must permit a VFR descent from the MIA to a VFR approach and landing.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.8.2
    A. 30 minutes
    B. 1 hour
    C. 45 minutes
    D. 50 minutes
    B. 1 hour
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. 81(107). Pilots may select an airport as an alternate that includes a temporary condition in the forecast if the condition is due to_______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.8
    A. rain/snow shower
    B. both A and B
    C. thunderstorm
    D. none of the above
    B. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. 82(108). For airports without a published instrument approach, pilots may not ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.5.2
    A. file IFR to a point served by a published approach procedure where VMC descent can be made and then continue VFR
    B. file IFR to a point en route where VMC is forecast and continue VFR
    C. file IFR to the airport
    D. none of the above
    C. file IFR to the airport
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. 83(113). For IFR takeoff minimums for training flights, weather must be equal to or higher than _________
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.2.1
    A. 1000/3
    B. the published approach minimums (ceiling only)
    C. 700/1
    D. the published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility)
    D. the published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. 84(114). If unable to meet or exceed the required IFR departure climb gradient, a VMC climb to the IFR MEA or a VFR departure are authorized as a last resort for mission accomplishment.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.10.3
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  86. 85(115). If the airport does not have an authorized IFR departure method, then ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.9
    A. an IMC departure under IFR is not authorized
    B. an IFR departure to VMC conditions is authorized
    C. radar vectors at MEA are required
    D. helicopters may take off using max climb and charted obstacle avoidance
    A. an IMC departure under IFR is not authorized
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. 86(116). The term "Radar contact" by a controller means the aircraft has been identified on radar, but does not mean that terrain and obstruction clearance responsibility has transferred to the controller.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.6.3
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  88. 87(148). The use of a hood or other artificial vision-restricting device is authorized ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 5.1.1
    A. when an IP/EP is at a set of controls
    B. never
    C. both A and B
    D. in VMC conditions only
    B. never
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. 88(149). For precision instrument approach procedures, all of the following are required PNF calls except _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 5.2.3
    A. "500 feet above DH"
    B. "100 feet above DH"
    C. "Land" at DH if the runway environment is in sight and the aircraft is in a position for a normal landing
    D. "Go-around" at DH if the runway environment is not in sight or if the aircraft is not in a position for a normal landing.
    A. "500 feet above DH"
  90. 89(150). Any crewmember will announce heading deviations of _____ degrees, airspeed deviations of _____ knots, or when altitude deviation exceeds _____ feet.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 5.2.5
    A. 5, 10, 100
    B. 5, 20, 100
    C. 10, 10, 100
    D. 10, 20, 100
  91. C. 10, 10, 100
  92. 90(19). After about a 2 minute warm up, the radar altimeter altitude pointer will be ________ feet, and the digital readout will be ________ feet.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-557 Chap: 1
    A. 0 to +5; 0+/-5
    B. 0+/-3; 0 to +3
    C. 0+/-5; 0 to +3
    D. 0 to +3; 0+/-5
    C. 0+/-5; 0 to +3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. 91(99). Flights conducted in IMC require ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 2.15.2
    A. A and B
    B. operational anti-icing and/or deicing equipment
    C. operative pitot heat
    D. none of the above
    A. A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. Landing Gear
    92(15). If the helicopter has become airborne (the WOW switch has cycled) the Mode 4 codes will be lost if power is removed unless ___________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-84 Chap: 1
    A. the Mode 4 power switch is left in the ON position while AC power is removed
    B. specifically held with the HOLD function
    C. the transponder is turned to STBY for 15 seconds before removing power
    D. no action required, the Mode 4 codes are only erased by the ZERO function
    B. specifically held with the HOLD function
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. Limits
    93(175). To prevent APU overheating, APU operation at an OAT of _____ degrees Celsius and above with engine and rotor operating, is limited to _____ minutes. With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be operated continuously up to an OAT of _____ degrees Celsius.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-15 Chap: 5
    A. 34, 30, 45
    B. 20, 25, 30
    C. 45, 50, 55
    D. 43, 30, 51
    D. 43, 30, 51
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. 94(36). Maximum allowable Nr for normal operations and emergency procedures training is _________ %. Maximum allowable Nr for functional check flights is _________ %.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-1 Chap: 5
    A. 95; 101
    B. 100; 110
    C. 100; 107
    D. 110; 120
    D. 110; 120
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. 95(37). The maximum wind velocity, from any direction, for rotor start or stop is _______ KIAS.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-1 Chap: 5
    A. 35
    B. 25
    C. 45
    D. 55
    C. 45
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. 96(38). Avoid operation in the ______________ Nf ranges.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-2 Chap: 5
    A. 30%-50% and 70%-80%
    B. 0%-50% and 80%-90%
    C. 35%-45% and 65%-85%
    D. 20%-40% and 60%-90%
    D. 20%-40% and 60%-90%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. 97(39). Routine rotor brake stops shall be done between _________% Nr, and should be limited to ________ psi.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-7 Chap: 5
    A. 20 to 40; 50
    B. 30 to 50; 180
    C. 30 to 50; 50
    D. 20 to 40; 180
    B. 30 to 50; 180
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. 98(40). The maximum airspeed with one engine inoperative is____________KIAS.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-9 Chap: 5
    A. 130
    B. 120
    C. 100
    D. 145
    A. 130
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. 99(41). __________ is the sideward/rearward flight limit into the wind, when combined with wind speed.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-9 Chap: 5
    A. 45 KIAS
    B. 25 KIAS
    C. 85 KIAS
    D. 105 KIAS
    A. 45 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. 100(42). __________ is the maximum airspeed to extend either searchlight.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-10 Chap: 5
    A. 120 KIAS
    B. 130 KIAS
    C. 100 KIAS
    D. 145 KIAS
    C. 100 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. 101(43). The maximum airspeed authorized with cabin doors open, with soundproofing removed aft of station 379 or with soundproofing retention kit installed is ____________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-10 Chap: 5
    A. 145 KIAS
    B. 130 KIAS
    C. 120 KIAS
    D. 100 KIAS
    A. 145 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. 102(44). The cabin heater should be turned off before starting descents in icing conditions.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-15 Chap: 5
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  105. 103(45). The blade deicing system shall not be operated at an OAT above _________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 5-15 Chap: 5
    A. 33 deg C
    B. 15 deg C
    C. 21 deg C
    D. 43 deg C
    C. 21 deg C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. MISSION PLANNING/FLIGHT PREPARATION
    104(121). The VFR weather training minimums are ______ and IAW AFI 11-202 for night practice emergency procedures.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.1.1-3.3.1.2
    A. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2 (NVG) / 1500/3 (Night Unaided)
    B. 700/1 (Day and NVG) / 1000/2 (Night Unaided)
    C. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2 (NVG) / 1000/2 (Night Unaided)
    D. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2,(NVG) / 1000/3 (Night Unaided)
    D. 700/1 (Day) / 700/2,(NVG) / 1000/3 (Night Unaided)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. 105(122). IFR Takeoff Minimums for training flights require weather equal to or higher than ___________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.2.1
    A. equal to or higher than published ceiling and visibility minimums at the destination
    B. published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less than 1/4 mile (RVR 1200) at the departure airfield.
    C. published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less then 1/2 mile (RVR 2400) at the departure airfield
    D. equal to or higher than published approach visibility minimums at the destination
    C. published approach minimums (ceiling and visibility), but no less then 1/2 mile (RVR 2400) at the departure airfield
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. 106(123). An IFR departure alternate airfield for operational flights _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.3.2.2
    A. should be within 60 minutes flight time
    B. must have prevailing weather equal to or better than the lowest published approach ceiling and visibility minimum (no lower than 1200 RVR), and forecast to remain so for 1 hour after the time you expect to arrive
    C. is not required if visibility at the departure point is at or above the published visibility minimums required for the appropriate aircraft category for an available approach
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  109. 107(124). For instrument flight planning purposes, when __________ criterion is used, or when destination weather information may be unreliable, fuel requirements for descent, approach, and missed approach will be __________ pounds. Ensure sufficient fuel remains to arrive at the alternate with appropriate reserves.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.5.2
    A. circling, 400
    B. visibility and ceiling, 400
    C. visibility-only, 500
    D. visibility-only, 400
    C. visibility-only, 500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. 108(125). Minimum en route altitude for unaided night navigation is 500 feet AHO within 5 NM for ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.10.2
    A. training flights
    B. both A and B
    C. operational flights
    D. none of the above
    B. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. 109(126). Helicopter crewmembers will wear survival vest/Load Bearing Vest (LBV) on all flights departing the local traffic pattern.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.12.2
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  112. 110(127). A new or corrected DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance Form F, need not be recomputed provided the initial takeoff gross weight (item 16) is not changed by more than ______ pounds.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.17.3
    A. 500
    B. 200
    C. 1,000
    D. None of the above
    A. 500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. 111(128). Malfunctions of the Enhanced Fuel Quantity Indicating (EFQI) system should not affect main fuel quantity indications and do not restrict the crew from flying the aircraft. However, if mission requirements dictate the use of auxiliary fuel with a malfunction in the EFQI then __________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.23.2
    A. the tank must be visually checked prior to takeoff
    B. a crewmember must be designated to monitor the transfer of auxiliary fuel to preclude damaging the auxiliary fuel transfer pumps
    C. the SQ/CC may approve the flight
    D. Both A and B
  114. D. Both A and B
  115. 112(92). If an alternate is required, fuel for approach and missed approach must be included in the total flight plan fuel when _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 2.4.3.1
    A. ETA is less than 1 hour
    B. visibility only weather criteria is used
    C. ETA is greater than 1 hour
    D. ceiling and visibility criteria is used
    B. visibility only weather criteria is used
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. 113(93). Regarding helicopter operations, the required visibility minimum may be reduced to _________ of the published visibility minimums for category A aircraft.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.6.4
    A. one-quarter
    B. one-half
    C. one-third
    D. one-eighth
    B. one-half
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. 114(94). Regardless of weather, pilots must designate an alternate on all IFR flight plans when filing to a destination where _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.7.2
    A. all compatible approaches require radar
    B. there is no weather reporting capability
    C. required navaids are unmonitored
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  118. NORMAL OPERATING PROCEDURES
    115(129). Passengers will not occupy a seat with access to a set of flight controls.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.3
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  119. 116(130). Aircraft will avoid taxi obstructions by _____ feet without wing walkers and by ______ feet with wing walkers.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.8.1
    A. 25, 15
    B. 15, 10
    C. 10, 5
    D. 25, 10
    D. 25, 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. 117(131). The maximum hover taxi speed is _______, or as required when directed by ATC (N/A for air taxi).
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.8.3
    A. 10 KGS
    B. 10 KIAS
    C. 15 KIAS
    D. 15 KGS
    D. 15 KGS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. 118(132). The maximum ground taxi speed is ________ KGS, or as required when directed by ATC.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.8.4
    A. 20
    B. 10
    C. 5
    D. 15
    B. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. 119(133). During rotor turning crew changes, the new crew will review ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.9.3
    A. flight plan, aircraft forms, weight and balance, TOLD
    B. weather, aircraft forms, TOLD
    C. aircraft forms, weight and balance, asterisk item before takeoff items and TOLD
    D. weather, flight plan, aircraft forms, asterisk item before takeoff items
    C. aircraft forms, weight and balance, asterisk item before takeoff items and TOLD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. 120(134). If the aircraft commander becomes doubtful of the helicopter's airworthiness or encounters hazardous weather conditions, a _________ should be accomplished.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.13
    A. hit check
    B. power computation
    C. weather divert
    D. precautionary landing
    D. precautionary landing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. 121(135). In addition to flight manual prohibited maneuvers, all of the following maneuvers will not be practiced in the aircraft except __________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.1
    A. actual engine shutdown in flight
    B. throttle reduction on a single engine
    C. power settling
    D. dual ECU/DEC malfunctions
    B. throttle reduction on a single engine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. 122(137). Accomplish all emergency procedures to _______.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.5
    A. runways or taxiways
    B. helipads
    C. other areas approved by the SQ/CC and listed in the local Chapter 8.
    D. all of the above
  126. D. all of the above
  127. 123(138). Marginal power and maximum performance takeoffs will be terminated when clear of the simulated obstacle and above safe single engine airspeed (or _________ KIAS if safe single engine airspeed is not available).
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.6 - 4.20.3.7
    A. 70
    B. 50
    C. 80
    D. 100
    C. 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. 124(139). When practicing a rolling takeoff, simulate max power _____ percent below hover power.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.8
    A. 10
    B. 20
    C. 15
    D. 5
    A. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. 125(140). Initiate practice steep approaches at ________, _________, and a _____ degree apparent angle.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.11
    A. 300 feet AGL, 50 knots KIAS, 45
    B. 300 feet AGL, 50 knots KGS, 45
    C. 300 feet AHO, 50 knots KGS, 45
    D. none of the above
    B. 300 feet AGL, 50 knots KGS, 45
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. 126(141). The maximum rate of descent on a steep approach is _______ feet a minute.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.11
    A. 500
    B. 1000
    C. 300
    D. 800
    D. 800
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. 127(142). The maximum touchdown speed for a practice roll-on landing is __________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.12
    A. 60 KIAS
    B. 50 KIAS
    C. 60 KGS
    D. 50 KGS
    C. 60 KGS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. 128(143). When reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine, initiation of practice single-engine emergencies will not be lower than ______ feet AGL, _______ KIAS.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.13
    A. 500 / 80
    B. 300 / 50
    C. 500 / 50
    D. 300 / 80
    D. 300 / 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. 129(144). Practice single-engine emergencies may be initiated below 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS so long as torque available is limited on both engines versus reducing torque available on the simulated failed engine by actual throttle manipulation.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.13
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  134. 130(145). The following simulated single-engine maneuvers will be practiced by simulating a limited torque available on both engines versus reducing torque by actual throttle manipulation __________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.13.1
    A. single-engine air refueling
    B. single-engine approaches to a spot (min-roll)
    C. A and B
    D. none of the above
    C. A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. 131(147). Practice autorotations will terminate and a power recovery will be initiated at the first indications of _________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.18.1
    A. abnormally high/low rotor RPM
    B. excessive sink rate
    C. low airspeed
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  136. 132(155). For restricted visibility approaches, when the anticipated power margin is ______ or less, a second aircrew member will reconfirm power computations using flight manual performance charts or the CDU Calculator Page.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.5
    A. 3%
    B. 15%
    C. 10%
    D. 5%
    C. 10%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. 133(156). For restricted visibility approaches training, power available must be equal to or greater than __________________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.4.1
    A. OGE
    B. Hover power + 5%
    C. OGE hover power + 5%
    D. Hover power
    C. OGE hover power + 5%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. 134(157). For water operations training, power available must be equal to or greater than ___________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.3.1
    A. Hover power
    B. Hover power + 5%
    C. OGE hover power + 5%
    D. OGE
    C. OGE hover power + 5%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. 135(158). When landing to a surface area smaller than your rotor diameter, such as a pinnacle or ridgeline, power for ________ hover must be available.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.15.2.3
    A. a 10 foot
    B. an OGE + 5%
    C. an OGE
    D. a 10 foot hover + 5%
    C. an OGE
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. 136(159). Do not initiate fuel dumping except for life and death rescue missions, operational missions, MAJCOM exercises and emergencies. Except during emergencies, or operational deeds dictate due to inability to climb due to threats or weather, fuel will not be dumped below 3,000 feet AGL or over agricultural/populated areas.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.14
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  141. 137(160). Do not taxianother aircraft within ______ feet of a refueling operation.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.12
    A. 25
    B. 75
    C. 50
    D. 10
    C. 50
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. 138(161). Aircraft may be flown with one strobe light inoperative.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.7.1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  143. 139(162). _______ approval is required to remove the FE and AG seats. _______ may delegate this authority no lower than _______.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.20.2
    A. ACC/A3, ACC/A3, WG/CC
    B. OG/CC, OG/CC, SQ/CC
    C. WG/CC, WG/CC, OG/CC
    D. SQ/CC, SQ/CC, SQ/DO
    B. OG/CC, OG/CC, SQ/CC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. 140(164). Conduct all operations at or above ________ above ground level (AGL) except when lower altitudes are required for takeoff, departure, arrival, landing, operational missions, training flights in approved areas or routes, or approved exercise missions.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.10
    A. 300 feet
    B. 500 feet
    C. altitude required
    D. 1000 feet
    B. 500 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. 141(165). For all flights, VFR or IFR, plan to arrive at destination with a ____-pound usable fuel reserve.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.5.3
    A. 500
    B. 400
    C. 300
    D. 600
    A. 500
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. 142(166). Prior to each flight the aircraft commander will ensure all passengers are briefed IAW TO 1H-60(H)G-1CL-1 and applicable MAJCOM guidance.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 3.2.3
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  147. Proficiency Exercises
    143(51). Aircraft energy is the combination of airspeed (kinetic energy) and altitude (potential energy) at any time during flight.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-1 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  148. 144(52). Engine performance is affected by pressure altitude (PA) and outside air temperature, with ________ generally having the largest impact on power available.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-1 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.2
    A. density altitude
    B. gross weight
    C. altitude
    D. temperature
    D. temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. 145(53). The lowest point of the total power required curve indicates the airspeed that normally determines the aircraft's level flight speed for VY, VBE, and minimum rate-of-descent speed for autorotation is referred to as the _________ speed.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-5 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.4.4
    A. Ps
    B. Vne
    C. bucket
    D. Vh
    C. bucket
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. 146(54). As gross weights and DA increase, the single-engine airspeed range ________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-5 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.4.5
    A. narrows
    B. widens
    C. is unaffected
  151. 147(55). For an HH-60G in a stabilized hover in a no-wind environment, the application of right pedal for a moderate-rate pedal turn will result in an approximate ___________change in torque.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-7 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.6
    A. 5 % increase
    B. 10 % decrease
    C. 10 % increase
    D. 5 % decrease
    D. 5 % decrease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. 148(56). When hovering with a crosswind, the application of pedal to hold heading will result in power (required to hover) readings that will not match those estimated for a no-wind environment.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-10 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.7
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  153. 149(57). As main rotor and tail rotor thrust are both increased to cushion the landing, the helicopter may exhibit a right lateral drift. This phenomenon is most noticeable just prior to touchdown during an approach to the ground and is known as __________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-11 Chap: 14 Para: 14.4.1
    A. vortex ring state
    B. retreating blade stall
    C. cross control state
    D. translating tendency
    D. translating tendency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. 150(58). If a loss of tail rotor effectiveness occurs, consider counteracting by________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 14-11 Chap: 14 Para: 14.3.7.2.1
    A. reducing power
    B. allowing the aircraft to align into the wind
    C. increasing forward airspeed
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  155. 151(59). Excessive cyclic input and insufficient collective application may result in inadequate taxi speed and droop-stop pounding.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-3 Chap: 9 Para: 9.2.1.1.4
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  156. 152(60). Hover references off the nose of the helicopter (or using the probe on the pilot side) will help in detecting heading and sideward drift. If only one reference is available, attempt to position it at a ________ degree angle to the side.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-4 Chap: 9 Para: 9.2.2.1
    A. 60
    B. 90
    C. 45
    D. 30
    C. 45
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. 153(61). The normal takeoff may be made from the ground or a hover. Target torque value for the normal takeoff is _________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-7 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.1.1
    A. OGE + 5 percent
    B. 10 ft. hover power
    C. OGE power
    D. hover power +10 percent
    D. hover power +10 percent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. 154(62). Using more than _________ degrees nose low when in close proximity to the ground can lead to difficulty during a single-engine or uncommanded stabilator movement emergency or result in inadvertent probe-to-ground contact.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-8 Chap: 9 Para: NOTE
    A. 7
    B. 12
    C. 10
    D. 5
    C. 10
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. 155(63). For practice and simulated maximum performance takeoffs, use a target torque value of _________ or as specified by the IP/EP and a 100-foot vertical obstacle.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-8 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.2.1
    A. intended hover height + 5%
    B. OGE hover power + 5%
    C. OGE hover power
    D. 10 foot hover power + 10%
    B. OGE hover power + 5%
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. 156(64). Maximum performance takeoff: As the aircraft clears the obstacle, adjust cyclic to obtain an accelerative attitude (e.g., approximately 5 to 10 degrees nose low) and allow the aircraft to crab into the wind while maintaining desired ground track. Once the aircraft is clear of the obstacle and above safe single-engine airspeed, or _________ if safe single-engine airspeed is not available, continue with normal takeoff procedures.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-9 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.2.3
    A. ETL
    B. 70-80 KIAS
    C. 60 KIAS
    D. 30-40 KIAS
    B. 70-80 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. 157(65). The marginal power takeoff is made from the ground or a stabilized 10-foot hover. For practice or simulated marginal power takeoffs, use a target torque value of _________ and a 50-foot vertical obstacle.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-10 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.3.1
    A. OGE +10%
    B. 10 ft hvr pwr
    C. 10 ft hvr pwr +5%
    D. OGE
    B. 10 ft hvr pwr
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. 158(66). The _______ is used when power available is limited (e.g., high gross weights/high DA) and will not allow for the use of other types of takeoffs.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-11 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.4.1
    A. rolling take-off
    B. maximum power take-off
    C. normal take-off
    D. marginal power take-off
    A. rolling take-off
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. 159(67). For practice rolling takeoffs, use a simulated maximum power available value of _________. For rolling takeoffs when power is actually limited, apply torque as necessary, up to maximum available power (without droop).
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-11 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.4.1
    A. 10 percent less than 10-foot hover power
    B. 5 percent less than 10-foot hover power
    C. 10 foot hover power
    D. OGE minus 10 percent
    A. 10 percent less than 10-foot hover power
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. 160(68). To begin a rolling take-off, place the cyclic forward of neutral so that the tip-path plane is slightly above the horizon. Increase the collective and release the brakes. Apply approximately __________ percent torque to accelerate the aircraft.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-11 Chap: 9 Para: 9.3.1.4.3
    A. 30 to 40
    B. 50
    C. 18 to 22
    D. 25
    A. 30 to 40
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. 161(69). The normal approach uses a __________ degree apparent angle and is initiated at __________ KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The normal approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-13 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.3.1
    A. 45, 80
    B. 30, 90
    C. 30, 100
    D. 30, 80
    D. 30, 80
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. 162(70). The steep approach is used when obstacles or terrain will not allow the use of other types of approaches. The steep approach uses a 45-degree apparent angle, is initiated at __________ and __________, and may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-14 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.4.1
    A. 80 KGS, 200 AGL
    B. 80 KIAS, 200 AGL
    C. 50 KGS, 300 AGL
    D. 50 KIAS, 300 AGL
    C. 50 KGS, 300 AGL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. 163(71). The shallow approach uses a 10-degree apparent angle and is initiated at 80 KIAS and 300 feet AGL. The shallow approach may terminate on the ground or in a hover.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-16 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.5.1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  168. 164(72). Aerodynamic braking is normally used when wheel-braking action may be inadequate due to the landing surface's size or surface or there is a concern that the aircraft's brakes may overheat. By using the aerodynamic forces of the main rotor system, the aircraft can be stopped or slowed down significantly in a relatively short distance.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-18 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.6.1
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  169. 165(73). When executing a rolling landing, maintain airspeed ________ or above minimum safe single-engine airspeed, until the landing area can be reached in the event of a loss of power.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-19 Chap: 9 Para: 9.4.6.3
    A. above 50 KGS
    B. above 80 KGS
    C. between ETL and 60 KIAS
    D. between 60 to 80 KIAS
    D. between 60 to 80 KIAS
  170. 166(74). During a Boost/SAS malfunction, a well-executed ________ approach requires little maneuvering to terminate. Whatever approach angle is selected, ensure slow, smooth collective inputs at termination.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-22 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5 NOTE
    A. Normal
    B. Steep
    C. Shallow
    B. Steep
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. 167(75). During a stabilator malfunction, in order to provide a normal deceleration, sight picture, and landing attitude, the stabilator is slewed full down below ________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-24 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.3.3.5.1
    A. 40 KGS
    B. 50 KIAS
    C. 40 KIAS
    D. 50 KGS
    C. 40 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. 168(76). With the Stab set at zero degrees, the aircraft will take more time and distance to decelerate. The nose of the aircraft will pitch up several degrees higher than normal during the deceleration (particularly on short final), perhaps making forward visibility difficult.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-25 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.3.3.5.2
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  173. 169(77). When a throttle is dragged to simulate a single-engine failure, consider dragging the throttle on the __________ engine in the event of inadvertent shutdown.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-26 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.4 NOTE
    A. throttle closest to the PF
    B. weaker (e.g., lower engine torque factor [ETF])
    C. stronger (e.g., higher engine torque factor [ETF])
    D. throttle closest to the PNF
    B. weaker (e.g., lower engine torque factor [ETF])
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. 170(78). During practice emergency DEC operations, the PNF pulls the throttle downward out of the FLY detent and smartly/swiftly advances it full forward to LOCKOUT, then smartly/swiftly reduces it to _________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-26 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.5.2.1
    A. FLY
    B. IDLE
    C. an intermediate position between IDLE and FLY (the six o'clock position is recommended)
    D. OFF
    C. an intermediate position between IDLE and FLY (the six o'clock position is recommended)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. 171(79). For autorotations, any crewmember noting an out of parameter condition or adverse trend should announce the condition/trend and/or direct a __________, as necessary.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-29 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6 NOTE
    A. missed approach
    B. terminate
    C. KIO
    D. go around
    D. go around
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. 172(80). Some actual autorotations might require a near-zero ground speed, such as landing in/on __________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-30 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6.4.4
    A. trees
    B. water
    C. a confined LZ
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  177. 173(81). Allowing the aircraft attitude to pitch up during initiation of practice autorotations can result in ________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-31 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6.5
    A. loss of airspeed throughout the maneuver
    B. arcing the approach angle
    C. improper trim control
    D. loss of termination point
    A. loss of airspeed throughout the maneuver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. 174(82). During performance of practice autorotations, initiating the wake-up while leveling the aircraft may not allow sufficient time for the engines to respond and may result in rotor droop and/or inadvertent landing.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 9-32 Chap: 9 Para: 9.5.6 CAUTION
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  179. REMOTE OPS
    175(83). During brownout/whiteout operations and ________ wind conditions, extreme caution must be exercised due to the potential of near-zero visibility conditions.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-19 Chap: 10 Para: 10.21
    A. both A and B
    B. moderate
    C. light
    D. zero
    A. both A and B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. 176(84). Flying the high recon at approximately _________ should provide a reasonable compromise between providing a familiar sight picture and margin above hazards/obstacles, while being low enough to provide good viewing/analysis of the landing area.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-26 Chap: 10 Para: 10.26.2.1
    A. 300 feet above site elevation
    B. 300 AHO
    C. 50 feet above the highest obstacle on flight path
    D. 500 feet AGL
    A. 300 feet above site elevation
  181. 177(85). Light and variable wind conditions could result in a tailwind component on final approach, significantly increasing power requirements.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-3 Chap: 10 Para: 10.5.2
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  182. 178(86). High DA, clear skies, and vegetation can cause a bubble effect on mountaintops that can result in surface temperatures of ________ degrees warmer than the same elevation outside the bubble.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-4 Chap: 10 Para: 10.6.1.2
    A. 3 to 4
    B. 5 to 7
    C. 8 to 15
    D. several
    D. several
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. 179(87). A common problem associated with steep approaches over barriers is that translational lift may be lost when the helicopter is possibly __________ AGL.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-9 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.1.3
    A. 25 feet
    B. 50-100 feet
    C. 100-200 feet
    D. 75 feet
    C. 100-200 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. 180(88). Use of IR lighting in brownout or whiteout conditions can seriously degrade visibility. When these conditions are anticipated, IR lighting, if used, should be _________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 8-1 Chap: 8 Para: 8.2 CAUTION
    A. dimmed to the lowest level necessary to safely accomplish the landing
    B. utilized below 100 feet AGL
    C. controlled by the PNF
    D. used at maximum brightness
    A. dimmed to the lowest level necessary to safely accomplish the landing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. 181(89). During formulation of approach plans during remote area reconnaissance, a normal approach may prove advantageous because it provides a familiar ____________.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-9 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.1.1
    A. sight picture
    B. closure rate
    C. power application
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  186. 182(90). The ______ is a proactive, pre-emptive action taken when external conditions warn of a deteriorating condition.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-10 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.3
    A. escape
    B. emergency plan
    C. go-around
    D. none of the above
    C. go-around
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. 183(91). The ______ is a reactive maneuver performed because of malfunction or because the PF failed to notice a deteriorating condition.
    Ref: AFTTP 3-3.HH-60G (28 Oct 2011) Pg: 10-10 Chap: 10 Para: 10.9.3
    A. escape
    B. go-around
    C. emergency plan
    D. none of the above
    A. escape
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. Run Up
    184(168). Failure to wait the full _____ minutes for APU cool down may result in the APU failing to start.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-15 NOTE Chap: 1
    A. 10
    B. 30
    C. 20
    D. 60
    B. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. 185(20). If the APU does not start, you should wait __________ before attempting a restart.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-13 Chap: 2 Para: CAUTION
    A. 5 minutes
    B. 30 minutes
    C. 30 seconds
    D. 2 minutes
    D. 2 minutes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. 186(21). Monitor main fuel quantity during probe extension and retraction to ensure no more than the normal _________ pound changes occur in total main fuel quantity.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-21 Chap: 2 Para: CAUTION
    A. 20 to 30
    B. 80 to 120
    C. 30 to 50
    D. 50 to 80
    A. 20 to 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. 187(22). Due to the danger to personnel of electromagnetic fields radiating from the SATCOM antenna, no personnel should be on top of the aircraft when transmitting.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-22 Chap: 2 Para: WARNING
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  192. Shut Down
    188(25). With the BACKUP HYDRAULIC PUMP as the sole source of hydraulic pressure for either the #1 or #2 TAIL SERVO, do not _________ during shutdown.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-45 Chap: 2 Para: WARNING
    A. turn the SAS-1 off
    B. move the TAIL ROTOR SERVO switch to NORMAL
    C. move the BACKUP HYD PUMP switch from AUTO
    D. all of the above
    C. move the BACKUP HYD PUMP switch from AUTO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. Stabilator
    189(13). If the stabilator is slewed up using battery power, _________ to get a normal engagement of the automatic mode.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 1-80 Chap: 1
    A. press and hold the pilot/copilot stabilator slew up switch on the cyclic
    B. reset the STAB CONTR circuit breaker
    C. press the AUTO CONTROL RESET switch
    D. it must be manually slewed back down
    D. it must be manually slewed back down
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. Take Off
    190(23). During the Engine HIT check, if TRQ is greater than 5% at 92% to 98% Nf, a torque stiction malfunction is possible ________.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-29 Chap: 2 Para: WARNING
    A. do not fly the aircraft
    B. use 90% Nf instead
    C. make an AF Form 781 write-up, before accepting the aircraft
    D. reaccomplish the HIT check
    A. do not fly the aircraft
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. 191(24). Do not place the MODE SEL switch to AUTO prior to moving the MAN AUX FLOW switches to NO FLOW.
    Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 2-31 Chap: 2 Para: CAUTION
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  196. AIE operations
    192(152). Recommended hoist altitude over water or vessels is the minimum altitude necessary to avoid salt spray and/or shipboard obstacles.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.2.3
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  197. MISSION PLANNING/FLIGHT PREPARATION
    193(95). Designate an alternate, for the first point of intended landing if the worst weather is forecast to be less than ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.7.1.2
    A. 700/1
    B. 1000/2
    C. Ceiling 400 ft. above the lowest compatible approach minimums, vis 2
    D. B and C, whichever is higher
    D. B and C, whichever is higher
  198. 194(96). Which of the following is an authorized method of departing IFR?
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.3
    A. Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)
    B. Standard Instrument Departure (SIDs) Procedures
    C. Visual Climb Over the Airport (VCOA)
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  199. General
    195(101). Helicopters may fly in fixed-wing rectangular pattern if they maintain a compatible airspeed with the fixed-wing traffic.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 5.11.8.4
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  200. Instrument
    196(103). On a diverse departure, track runway centerline to _____________________ before turning on course.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules Para: 8.12.7
    A. the departure end of the runway
    B. 500 feet above the departure end of the runway
    C. 400 feet above the departure end of the runway
    D. the minimum radar vectoring altitude
    C. 400 feet above the departure end of the runway
  201. NORMAL OPERATING PROCEDURES
    197(136). Simulated hoist and gun emergencies may be performed at night with ___________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.2
    A. never
    B. an instructor/trainer or evaluator/certifier qualified in the event is on board the helicopter
    C. both A and B
    D. concurrence of the aircraft commander
    D. concurrence of the aircraft commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. 198(146). Boost/SAS-Off maneuvers can be initiated ________.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60V3 05 Jan 2011 Para: 4.20.3.15
    A. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 60 KIAS
    B. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 200 feet AGL and 60 KIAS
    C. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS
    D. in straight and level flight with a minimum of 200 feet AGL and 80 KIAS
    C. on the ground, in straight and level flight with a minimum of 300 feet AGL and 80 KIAS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. Adverse WX Operations
    • 199(167). When performing hover operations with light and variable winds at high gross weight and/or in a high density altitude environment, _________ the power required computations
    • Ref: 1H-60(H)G-1 Chng 7 01 Jun 2011 Pg: 7-5 WARNING Chap: 7
    • A. add a margin to
    • B. subtract 5 percent from
    • C. double check on pilot's CDU
    • D. confirm with the FE
    • A. add a margin to
  204. Air Refueling
    200(178). For EMCON 2 - 4 Aided HAAR, receivers will FLASH formation/position lights _______ seconds prior to movement for disconnect.
    Ref: ATP-56(B) Pg: 4-2 Chap: Part 3 Para: 403 c. (3)
    A. 0 (position lights to flash is technique only)
    B. 3
    C. 5
    D. 6
    C. 5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. Local Procedures
    1(1). The AFI 11-2HH-60, Vol 3, 920 Sup 1 contains directives that if conflicted with AFI 11-2HH-60 Vol 3 will take precedence:
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.1
    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  206. 2(10). Patrick Base Weather will issue advisories and warnings pertaining to the different phases of lightning. Phase II is issued when lightening has been observed within 5 miles of the airfield. Which of the following is/are true.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.7.3.
    A. Flightline is closed to all operations requiring external ground personnel
    B. Aircraft movement is restricted
    C. Aircraft may taxi into parking without a the assistance of ground personnel
    D. All the above
    E. A and C.
    E. A and C.
  207. 3(11). The formation comm. check will be accomplished in the following order:
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 5.10
    A. Radio 1: Clear, Radio 2: Clear, Radio 3: Clear, SATCOM, Radio 1: Secure, Radio 2: Secure, HQ (active-clear) HQ (active-secure)
    B. Radio 1: Clear, Radio 2: Clear, Radio 3: Clear, LARS, SATCOM (if installed), Radio 1: Secure, Radio 2: Secure, UHF Active
    C. Radio 1:Clear, Radio 2: Clear, Radio 3: Clear, LARS A, Radio 1: Secure, Radio 2: Secure, SATCOM (if installed), HQ (active-clear), SINCGARS (if available)
    D. Radio 1, Radio 2, Radio 3, SATCOM, LARS
    C. Radio 1:Clear, Radio 2: Clear, Radio 3: Clear, LARS A, Radio 1: Secure, Radio 2: Secure, SATCOM (if installed), HQ (active-clear), SINCGARS (if available)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. 4(12). The formation comm-out light drill signal for "Take-off" is:
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 5.9.5.1.
    A. Position lights flash, landing light on.
    B. Position lights off, strobes on.
    C. Position lights flash, landing light on
    D. Position lights steady, Strobe - On.
    D. Position lights steady, Strobe - On.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. 5(13). The formation comm-out light drill signal for "Engine Start" is:
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 5.9.5.1.
    A. Position lights flash, landing light on.
    B. Position lights - flash, Strobes - On
    C. Position lights steady, landing light on, strobes on.
    D. Position lights steady, strobes on.
    B. Position lights - flash, Strobes - On
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. 6(14). After completing formation CP engagement procedures, lead will affect an in-flight rejoin using:
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 5.12.8.1.1.3.
    A. by establishing a 20 deg angle of bank, right hand turn, at the previous waypoint
    B. A or B
    C. Blind Procedures
    D. by establishing a 20 deg angle of bank, left hand turn at the next waypoint
    E. TFM
    B. A or B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. 7(15). For Lost comm/degraded com, the standard "catch" frequency is?
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 5.18.2
    A. 121.5
    B. 294.6
    C. 255.5
    D. 243.0
    C. 255.5
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. 8(16). Which of the following AIE altitudes is not correct:
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 5.13.7.
    A. Rope Ladder - 15' AGL
    B. Fast Rope - 30' AGL
    C. Rappel - 100' AGL
    D. None of the above
    D. None of the above
  213. 9(17). When executing "Blind" aircraft procedures, what is the minimum YARDSTICK (A/A TACAN) distance require for Flight Lead to call "Continue?"
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 5.18.4.1.
    A. .6 nm
    B. .5 nm.
    C. .4 nm.
    D. none of the above.
    C. .4 nm.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. 10(18). IAW with lost comm. procedures what does a wing rock mean?
    Ref: 301 RQS SOP (1 Nov 09) Para: 3.11.
    A. prepare for light signals IAW AFI 11-218
    B. Push to "Get Well Frequency"
    C. Aircraft has radio failure, automatic lead change to place aircraft with good comm. as formation lead, handles all ATC calls
    D. tighten the formation
    D. tighten the formation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. 11(19*). The maximum altitude for airdrop missions at Judy DZ are ______ unless higher is coordinated.
    Ref: 45 SWI 13-203 Para: 3.1.3.1.
    A. 2500 MSL
    B. 2000 MSL
    C. 1500 MSL
    D. Limiting altitude will be provided by ATC at the 5 min call.
    A. 2500 MSL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. 12(2). Deviations to AFI 11-2HH-60, Vol 3, 920 Sup 1, other than for flight safety, require coordination and approval by:
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.2.
    A. The aircraft commander or flight lead
    B. B or C
    C. 301 RQS DO
    D. 301 RQS CC
    B. B or C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. 13(20). During PAFB NVD operations, non participating aircraft will be prohibited from entering the PAFB Class D airspace.
    Ref: 45 SWI 13-203 Para: 3.3.
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  218. 14(21). IAW para 8.2.3.1.4.2. the 301 RQS CC or DO is authorized to place unit assigned personnel acting as survivors on MEGP status.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.3.1.4.2.
    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  219. 15(22). While operating in the Northern remote sites, aircrew should monitor 121.95.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.3.1.5.1.2.
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  220. 16(23). The Pineda Arrival/Departure requires flight at 500' AGL along the causeway. Which of the following is/are true?
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.4.3.
    A. Approval to fly the Pineda Arrival/Departure includes active runway crossing
    B. Ensure you are directly over the causeway when crossing Merritt Island
    C. If not directly over Pineda Causeway climb to a minimum of 1500' MSL
    D. None of the above
    B. Ensure you are directly over the causeway when crossing Merritt Island
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. 17(24). At Patrick AFB, aircraft with hot (or suspected hot) brakes shall taxi clear of the runway, if possible, at the following points:
    Ref: 45 SWI 13-203 Para: 5.9.
    A. Landing Runway 20, left on the south hammerhead apron; Landing Runway 02, left on Runway 29, Taxiway J, or Taxiway L.
    B. Landing Runway 20, left on the south hammerhead apron; Landing Runway 02, right on Runway 11.
    C. Landing Runway 20, left on the south hammerhead apron; Landing Runway 02, right at taxiway L.
    D. Landing Runway 20, left on taxiway Charlie; Landing Runway 02, right on Runway 11.
    A. Landing Runway 20, left on the south hammerhead apron; Landing Runway 02, left on Runway 29, Taxiway J, or Taxiway L.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. 18(25). Helicopters and small frame aircraft will be no lower than _______ feet MSL over Merritt Island.
    Ref: 45 SWI 13-203 Para: 2.10.
    A. 1000
    B. 500
    C. 500 via Pineda Causeway Arrival/Departure (Helos Only)
    D. B. or C
    D. B. or C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. 19(3). ACs are responsible to ensure that any mission that requires a mission identifier (MI) is executed in accordance with higher headquarters guidance. These responsibilities are outlined in AFRCI11-201, FLIGHT INFORMATION PUBLICATIONS. MIs are required for the following type missions except:
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.3.1.3.
    A. Carry passengers/cargo regardless of destination
    B. Unit aircraft flown by non-AFRC aircrew
    C. Land away from home stations, except at local training bases when no RON is planned.
    D. Participation in aerial events as defined in AFR 11-209
    B. Unit aircraft flown by non-AFRC aircrew
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. 20(4). During preflight of the aircraft, flight engineers will ensure that the mission kit's component 1 publications stored on the aircraft are current.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.3.6.
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  225. 21(5). Water training may be accomplished anywhere offshore (greater than 100 yrds off shore) at the discretion of the AC.
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.4.3.
    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  226. 22(6). When parking a vehicle on the Patrick AFB flightline:
    Ref: 45 SWI 13-207 Para: 2.17
    A. The vehicle will not be pointed towards a parked aircraft, the engine will be turned off, and select reverse (standard shift) or park (automatic shift) (golf carts may remain in forward).
    B. The hand brake or parking brake will be set and vehicles will be left unlocked with keys in the ignition
    C. During hours of darkness or inclement weather all motor vehicles parked on the flightline will activate emergency flashers.
    D. All the above
    D. All the above
  227. 23(7). Which statement is correct concerning Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Prevention?
    Ref: 45 SWI 13-207 Para: 5.4.1
    A. Don't pick up potential FOD material you see on the flightline; instead contact Airfield Management so it can be photographed and investigated.
    B. Truck tailgates and tool compartments may be open when entering the flightline.
    C. When returning to a flightline or controlled movement area from a non-paved surface (except grass), check the tires and undercarriage of your vehicle and remove rocks and other material that could create a FOD hazard.
    D. Vehicle operators will inspect vehicles and remove any potential FOD material prior to entering the flightline and upon leaving construction areas with loose debris on the pavement.
    D. Vehicle operators will inspect vehicles and remove any potential FOD material prior to entering the flightline and upon leaving construction areas with loose debris on the pavement.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. 24(8). Which statement is correct concerning the Patrick AFB designated bailout area?
    Ref: 45 SWI 13-203 Para: 5.7.
    A. Designated bailout shall be conducted on the Patrick TACAN 090 degree radial at 0.5 DME at a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet.
    B. There is no bailout area designated for Patrick AFB
    C. The designated bailout area is the west side of runway 02/20 at Patrick AFB
    D. Controlled bailout shall be conducted anywhere within a 5 statue mile radius of Patrick AFB.
    A. Designated bailout shall be conducted on the Patrick TACAN 090 degree radial at 0.5 DME at a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. 25(9). During Hot Gas Operations what is the minimum distance between refueling truck and receiver?
    Ref: AFI 11-2HH60, Vol 3, Chp 8 Para: 8.2.4.1.7.1.
    A. 10 feet with marshaller
    B. 25 feet
    C. 29 feet
    D. B or C
    B. 25 feet
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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