Pediatric Radiography

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Pediatric Radiography
2013-11-18 10:34:59
Ped rad

Joan's class
Show Answers:

  1. what is the current term for suspected child abuse?
    Nonaccidental trauma (SNAT)
  2. At what age can a child be talked through an exam without immobilization or parental aid?
    2-3 years
  3. What are three possible roles of the parent?
    • Observer in the room, lending support and comfort
    • Assisting in immobilization
    • Remains in waiting area
  4. Who should the technologist report suspected abuse to?
    The ER
  5. What are some immobilization devices?
    • Tam-em board
    • plexiglass hold down paddle
    • Pigg-O-Stat
    • Tape
    • Sheets
    • Sandbags
  6. What does Diaphysis mean?
    Shaft or body of a long bone
  7. The secondary center for occification in long bones is?
    the epiphysis
  8. What is the primary site of ossification in long bones?
    The diaphysis
  9. At what age is skeletal growth complete
  10. What is the epiphyseal plate made up of?
  11. This is most common in children when foreign objects are swallowed into air passages of the bronchial tree
    Aspiration (mechanical obstruction)
  12. This condition (primarily seen in children from ages 1-3) is caused by a a viral infection. It is made evident by labored breathing and a harsh dry cough.
  13. _________ is treated most commonly with antibiotics, but AP and lateral radiographs of the neck and upper airway demonstrate smooth but tapered narrowing of upper airway
  14. A hereditary disease with secretions of heavy mucus that cause clogging of bronchi and bronchioles
    Cystic fibrosis
  15. A frequently associated condition with cystic fibrosis is of an intestinal obstruction
    Meconium ileus
  16. A bacterial infection of the epiglottis most common in children from ages 2-5 but may also affect adults. It is a serious condition that can become fatal resulting from blockage of airway that causes swelling
  17. One of the most common indications for chest radiographs in premature infants.
    Hyaline Membrane Disease
  18. In this emergency type condition, the alveoli and capillaries of the lung are injured and infected, resulting in leakage of fluid and blood into spaces between alveoli. Granular appearance
    Hyaline membrane disease
  19. An enlarged thyroid at birth is caused by an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism) or an overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism)
    Congenital goiter
  20. A deformity of the skull caused by premature closure of skull sutures.
  21. In this condition the femoral head is separated by the acetabulum in the newborn. Unknown cause. More common in girls, babies born breech or hereditary
    Developmental displasia of the hip
  22. A group of diseases that mainly affect the epiphyseal plates of long bones, resulting in pain, deformities, and abnormal bone growth
  23. This condition leads to abnormal bone growth at the hip. If affects children ages 5-10 (head of femur first appears flattened, then later fragmented)
    Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
  24. This condition causes inflammation of the tibial tuberosity. It is most common in 5-10 year old males and usually affects one leg
    Osgood-Schlatter disease
  25. In this hereditary disorder, the bones are abnormally soft and fragile. Infants with this condition may be born with fractures.
    Osteogenesis imperfecta
  26. In this condition, developing bones do not harden or calcify, causing skeletal deformities. Commonly bowed legs
    Osteomalacia (rickets)
  27. When the posterior aspects of the vertebrae fail to develop, exposing part of the spinal cord
    Spina bifida
  28. _________ is a mild form that is characterized by some defect or splitting of the posterior arch of the L5-S1 vertebrae without protrusion of the spinal chord or meninges
    Spina Bifida Occulta
  29. A congenital deformity of the foot that can be diagnosed prenatally with the use of real time ultrasound.
    Talipes (clubfoot)
  30. A congenital condition that requires surgery because an opening to an organ is absent.
    Atresia (or clausura)
  31. In this congenital condition of the large intestine, nerves that control rhythmic contractions are missing. Results in constipation and vomiting
    Hirschsprung's disease (congenital megacolon)
  32. This narrowing or blockage at the pylorus or stomach outlet occurs in infants, frequently resulting in repeated, forceful vomiting
    Pyloric stenosis
  33. _________ are associated with childhood cancer (generally younger than age 5). Occur in parts of the nervouse system, most frequently the adrenal glands.
  34. The second most common type of childhood cancer
  35. ______ indicates a cancer of the kidneys of embryonal origin, Usually occurs in children younger than 5. One of the most common abdominal cancers in children
    Wilms' tumor
  36. __________ frequently occurs in both adults and children and is caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or some type of parasite.
    Urinary tract infection
  37. What is a common cause of UTI in children?
    Vesicoureteral reflux
  38. Lower extremities
    AP: Lateral and medial epicondyles of distal femur should appear ______________
    Lateral: Medial and lateral condyles and epicondyles of distal femur should be ______
    • Symmetric and in profile
    • Superimposed
  39. What is the Kite method used for?
    Talipes (congenital clubfoot)
  40. What are the positions for a pediatric skull exam?
    • AP: CR parallel to OML
    • Reverse Caldwell: 15* CR cephalad
    • Towne: CR 30* to OML
    • Lateral
  41. Where should the petrous ridges lie with a 15* cephalic angle
    Petrous pyramids and auditory canals are projected into lower one half to one third of orbits
  42. Where will the petrous ridges lie in an AP 0* skull?
    Superimposing superior orbital margins
  43. Where will the petrous pyramids lie with a 30* town projection?
    Projected below orbital rim, allowing visualization of the entire orbital margin
  44. Where do you center for a lateral pedi skull?
    Midway between glabella and occipital protuberance or inion
  45. What are the pediatric NPO protocols?
    • Younger than 3 mo: NPO 3 hrs
    • 3 mo - 5 yrs: NPO 4 hrs
    • 5 yrs and older: NPO 6 hours
  46. For barium enemas on children do we use single or double contrast usually?
  47. What are the contraindications for giving laxatives prior to a lower GI study?
    Hirchsprung's disease, extensive diarrhea, appendicitis, obstruction and conditions where patient can not withstand fluid loss
  48. What are the prep's for pedi lower GI studies?
    • Newborn to 2 yr: none
    • 2-10 yrs: Low meal evening before, laxative, water, maybe enema if no BM
    • 10+: small meal evening before, 2 laxatives with water, maybe enema if no BM by morning
  49. What is the prep for an IVU?
    No solid food for 4 hours before exam to diminish the risk of aspiration from vomiting. Plenty of clear liquids until one hour prior to exam
  50. Where is the centering point for a pedi abdomen?
    1 inch above umbilicus
  51. What is the preferred method for positioning an upright pedi abdomen?
  52. What are two indications for pedi upright abdomen?
    Intussusception and constipation
  53. What amounts of barium are given for what age?
    • Newborn to 1 yr: 2-4 oz
    • 1-3 yrs: 4-6 oz
    • 3-10 yrs: 6-12 oz
    • older than 10 yrs: 12-16 oz
  54. How is a pedi patient positioned for a contrast study?
    Laying down
  55. what is the positioning sequence for a UGI?
    • Starting with the patient supine
    • Left lateral
    • LPO, RPO
    • Right lateral
    • Prone
  56. In what position does the stomach empty quickly and it is important to check the location of the duodenaljejunal junction to rule out malrotation
    Right lateral
  57. For a small bowel follow through, AP or PA films are taken at _________ intervals
    20-30 minute
  58. How long on children does it take for barium to reach the ileocecal valve for a small bowel series?
    1 hour
  59. what size enema tip do you use on neonates and infants?
    #10 French flexible silicon catheter and 60ml syringe
  60. Barium enemas are often used in children to reduce _______
  61. How high should the enema bag be placed from the table top?
    3 feet
  62. What are two indications for pedi VCUG's?
    • UTI
    • vesicoureteral reflux
  63. What is the prep for a VCUG?
    None unless it is followed by an IVU
  64. What size tube should be used for a VCUG?
    #8 French feeding tube?
  65. An air enema is performed under fluoroscopy for the
    pnuematic reduction of an intussusception
  66. What proves that an intussusseption has been reduced?
    An AP supine abdomen film showing that air or barium has passed through the ileocecal region into the ileum