Systems 2 (All Sections).txt

Card Set Information

Systems 2 (All Sections).txt
2013-11-12 23:53:29

Systems II 15-02
Show Answers:

  1. 2. The electronic instrument displays (EID) receive sensor data from the ______. (B/1/2)
    a. air data computer (ADC)
  2. 3. Which of the following is a standby instrument? (B/1/3)
    c. Turn and bank indicator
  3. 4. Both the EADI and EHSI operate in the ______ modes. (B/2/1)
    a. enroute and approach
  4. 5. If the pitch values approach their limits, red chevrons are used to indicate the nearest direction______. (B/2/2)
    d. for a level attitude recovery
  5. 6. The EHSI displays a 360° rotating compass scale divided into 5 and 10° increments and referenced to a ______.(B/2/3)
    b. white triangular heading index (lubber line)
  6. 7. Pulling out on the HDG knob resets the HDG bug to the present aircraft ______. (B/2/4)
    c. heading
  7. 8. The upper left corner of the EHSI contains which set of information, if selected? (B/2/5)
    d. Distance to next selected point, aircraft groundspeed, and time to go to the next point
  8. 9. When the EHSI is in HSI normal mode, pressing the map button (MAP) changes the display to the______ mode. (B/2/6)
    a. navigation map
  9. 10. The bearing pointer select buttons are used to cycle the EHSI bearing pointers through the ______navigation source display, ______ navigation source display, or the ______ mode. (B/2/7)
    b. VOR; GPS; declutter
  10. 11. On the EHSI, the course deviation bar indicates the centerline of the selected course relative to ______. (B/2/8)
    b. the aircraft symbol
  11. 12. For ILS glidepath, a ______ is displayed on the right side of the instruments with a green deviation pointer which moves in relation to the scale to indicate glidepath center with respect to aircraft position. (B/2/9)
    a. stationary vertical scale
  12. 13. The VSI indicates to the pilot if the aircraft is climbing or descending, and at what ______. (B/3/1)
    b. rate
  13. 14. The VSI shows climbs or descents in feet per minute (FPM) from 0 to ______. (B/3/2)
    b. 6000
  14. 15. The ASI Mach number window is blanked below ______ Mach. (B/3/3)
    c. 0.40
  15. 16. As altitude increases, maximum operating airspeed (VMO) will ______. (B/3/4)
    d. decrease
  16. 17. The baro-set correction knob is used to set ______ settings in the altimeter so it displays correct altitude indications. (B/3/5)
    b. pressure
  17. 18. The standby instruments can be used for a limited time in the event of a failure of the aircraft primary______ system. (B/4/1)
    b. electrical
  18. 19. The red and white “barber pole” on the airspeed indicator ______. (B/4/2)
    c. is a velocity/Mach limiting pointer
  19. 20. The standby attitude indicator is caged ______. (B/4/3)
    c. by pulling and turning the PULL TO CAGE knob
  20. 21. The standby altimeter is operated by static pressure from the primary pitot/static system. (B/4/4)
    b. False
  21. 1. Which system is not part of the T-6A flight instruments?
    d. Environmental system
  22. 2. In the composite mode, both attitude and heading information can be displayed on either the EADI or EHSI.
    a. True
  23. 3. The primary pitot probe at the right wingtip and primary static ports on the sides of the aft fuselage provide necessary pressures to the ______.
    a. air data computer
  24. 4. The EFIS system provides uncluttered unusual attitude information on the EADI when the aircraft exceeds which set of predefined limits?
    c. Pitch +30° or -20°, roll angle greater than 65°
  25. 5. The altimeter displays baro-set data into windows in what format?
    • a. Inches of mercury
    • b. Millibars
  26. 6. The conventional magnetic compass can be used in case of total electrical failure, or as an instrument cross-check.
    a. True
  27. 7. If pitch or roll attitude failure occurs, what words appear in red letters at the top center of the EADI screen?
  28. 8. In NAV MAP mode on the EHSI, which full circle range scales are available?
    d. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160, 240, 320, and 1000 NM
  29. 9. The standby attitude indicator will supply accurate information for at least how many minutes after electrical failure?
    c. Nine
  30. 1. The AOA computer receives inputs from the AOA vane, the flap position microswitch, and from the______. (B/1/1)
    c. landing gear
  31. 10. If either pilot selects EFIS composite mode, the displays in the other cockpit are not affected.
    b. False
  32. 2. The higher the number on the AOA gauge scale, the ______. (B/1/2)
    c. greater the angle of attack
  33. 3. The radial at ______ units on the AOA gauge indicates a stall. (B/1/3)
    d. 18
  34. 4. The stick shaker activates at approximately ______ knots above stall speed, or ______ units on the AOA gauge. (B/1/4)
    b. 5 to 10 ; 15-16
  35. 5. When the AOA test switch is held at the LOW position, the indexer shows a(n) ______ and the AOA gauge reads ______ units. (B/1/5)
    c. amber donut ; 10.5
  36. 6. The center pointer on the accelerometer moves up or down to indicate ______ G load. (B/2/1)
    b. current
  37. 7. Which button on the digital clock is used to move the function indicator to the desired setting? (B/3/1)
    a. SEL
  38. 8. The CTL button is used to set minutes in clock LT mode. (B/3/2)
    b. False
  39. 9. After reaching 59 minutes, 59 seconds, the count up timer will display hours and minutes to a limit of ______ hours and 59 minutes. (B/3/3)
    d. 99
  40. 10. The MASTER WARN and MASTER CAUT switchlights are interconnected with the ______.(B/4/1)
    b. main annunciator panel
  41. 11. Anytime a warning or caution annunciator on the main annunciator panel in either cockpit lights, the respective MASTER WARN or MASTER CAUT switchlights will ______. (B/4/2)
    c. flash in both cockpits
  42. 12. A flashing MASTER WARN light on the switchlight panel should be accompanied by ______.(B/4/3)
    d. a decaying tone
  43. 13. All IDARS functions are controlled by the pilot in the front cockpit using the FDR control panel.(B/5/1)
    b. False
  44. 14. The flight data recorder portion of IDARS is installed ______. (B/5/2)
    b. in the left avionics bay
  45. 15. When IDARS reaches approximately 80% full, the ______ annunciator outboard of the anti-G connection will illuminate. (B/5/3)
    d. green MAINT
  46. 1. The accelerometer displays instantaneous normal acceleration from ______ Gs.
    b. –-6 to +10
  47. 2. To perform a count up with the digital clock, the function indicator must be over the ______ label.
    c. ET
  48. 3. The annunciator placarded FDR near the firewall shutoff handle in the front cockpit will light MAINT in the upper half or ______ in the lower half.
    c. FAIL
  49. 4. Angle of attack information is provided on the AOA indexer when ______.
    b. the landing gear is down and locked
  50. 5. When a flashing master switchlight is reset, the associated annunciator on the main annunciator panel will ______ for as long as the malfunction or failure condition persists.
    c. remain illuminated
  51. 6. The flight time (FT) display in the digital clock ______.
    d. does not function in this aircraft
  52. 7. Pilot warning tones are generated in a tone generator in the AOA computer and routed to ______.
    b. helmet audio connections
  53. 8. The white triangle at 4.9 units on the AOA gauge indicates ______.
    a. maximum range angle of attack
  54. 9. The data transfer module is a ______ used for digital information storage, loading, and retrieval.
    d. portable memory cartridge
  55. 10. A slow approach speed is indicated by the ______.
    b. upper green chevron on the AOA indexer
  56. 1. How are heading and course set on the EHSI? (B/1/1)
    Using the HDG and CRS knobs on the EFIS control panel
  57. 2. What are the three EFIS modes? (B/1/2)
    Enroute, approach, and composite mode
  58. 3. EFIS approach mode adds what elements to the standard instrument displays? (B/1/3)
    • a. Glideslope
    • b. Localizer
    • c. Marker beacon
  59. 4. What are the pitch and roll parameters that cause the EFIS to declutter the EADI during unusual
    • attitudes? (B/1/4)
    • a. Pitch angle exceeds +30° or –20°
    • b. Roll angle exceeds 65°
  60. 5. The EADI display returns to normal when the aircraft attitude returns to which parameters? (B/1/5)
    • a. Less than 25° nose-up or 15° nose-down pitch
    • b. Bank angle less than 60°
  61. 6. What is the purpose of the vertical speed indicator (VSI)? (B/2/1)
    Displays vertical speed and direction of the aircraft
  62. 8. What information does the airspeed indicator display? (B/2/3)
    • a. Indicated airspeed
    • b. Mach number
    • c. Maximum operating airspeed (VMO)
  63. 9. As altitude increases, VMO will ______ and the barber pole will move ______. (B/2/4)
    decrease; downward
  64. 10. How can you tell if the ADC has failed or its data is invalid? (B/2/5)
    The electronic instruments will indicate a failure.
  65. 11. What are the standby instruments? (B/3/1)
    • a. Standby airspeed indicator
    • b. Standby attitude indicator
    • c. Standby altimeter
    • d. Standby turn and bank indicator
    • e. Magnetic compass
  66. 12. How are the standby instruments powered? (B/3/2)
    • a. Battery bus
    • b. Auxiliary battery
  67. 13. How is the standby airspeed indicator operated? (B/3/3)
    By pitot and static pressure from the secondary pitot/static system.
  68. 14. When should you cage the standby attitude indicator? (B/3/4)
    • a. Before applying or removing electrical power
    • b. Before engine start and shutdown
  69. 15. After loss of all electrical power, how long will the standby attitude indicator provide pitch and roll information and to what accuracy? (B/3/5)
    • a. Nine minutes
    • b. Within 6°
  70. 16. The stick shaker is activated approximately how many knots above stall speed? (B/4/1)
    5 to 10 knots
  71. 17. What does the green arc on the AOA gauge indicate? (B/4/2)
    Normal approach speed (optimum angle of attack or “on-speed”)
  72. 18. When will either the MASTER WARN or MASTER CAUTION switchlights illuminate? (B/4/3)
    • a. Anytime a warning or caution annunciator illuminates in either cockpit
    • b. The MASTER WARN switchlight will illuminate with the FIRE light
  73. 1. What are the three operational modes for the EADI and EHSI?
    Enroute, approach and composite
  74. 2. The VSI displays vertical velocity from 0 to ______ feet per minute.
    +/- 6000
  75. 3. From what component does the ASI receive its data?
    Air data computer
  76. 4. The standby instruments are normally powered by the ______.
    battery bus
  77. 5. When showing, what does the red indication in the standby turn and bank indicator mean?
    Turn rate information is not available
  78. 6. When should a reading be taken from the magnetic compass?
    During level, unaccelerated flight
  79. 7. When does the AOA amber donut illuminate?
    When you have achieved the optimum angle of attack range for landing (on-speed).
  80. 8. What is the purpose of the two resettable needles on the accelerometer?
    Record maximum deviation above and below +1G experienced during flight
  81. 9. What happens anytime the FIRE warning annunciator illuminates?
    • a. MASTER WARN switchlight flashes
    • b. MASTER WARN tone sounds
  82. 10. What indications can be illuminated on the flight data recorder annunciator?
    • a. MAINT (green)
    • b. FAIL (yellow)
  83. 1. The VHF transceiver has a separate radio for monitoring VHF Guard. (B/1/1)
    b. False
  84. 3. What is UHF Guard frequency? (B/1/3)
    c. 243.00 MHz
  85. 4. The UHF backup control unit is activated by ______. (B/1/4)
    d. turning the OFF/PUSH TEST knob clockwise
  86. 5. Up to ______ preset channels are allowed in the UHF backup control unit. (B/1/5)
    b. 20
  87. 6. The UHF backup control unit is located in ______. (B/1/6)
    b. the front cockpit only
  88. 7. What are the two interphone modes? (B/2/1)
    c. HOT and COLD
  89. 8. When in HOT mode ______. (B/2/2)
    b. both microphones are active
  90. 9. The ground crew interphone headset jack is located ______. (B/2/3)
    c. on the left side of the fuselage, below the avionics bay
  91. 10. To adjust VHF radio volume ______. (B/3/1)
    b. rotate the VHF knob on the audio control panel
  92. 11. The audio control panel is located in the front cockpit only. (B/3/2)
    b. False
  93. 12. What effect will moving the bypass switch to the ALTN position have on the UHF radio? (B/3/3)
    b. The audio will be unamplified, raw audio.
  94. 13. What are the buttons on the left side of the RMU? (C/1/1)
    d. Field select keys
  95. 14. What will you see when a field select key has been pressed? (C/1/2)
    d. A rectangular cursor will appear in the field.
  96. 15. Transfer switches are labeled with a ______. (C/1/3)
    a. white diamond
  97. 16. Pulling out the small tuning knob will allow you to change UHF frequency in ______ increments.(C/1/4)
    b. twenty-five kHz
  98. 17. What indication is given when the RMU is on the preflight test page? (C/2/1)
    c. The letters “PFT” are shown in the top field.
  99. 18. If the RMU passes the preflight test it will display the preflight test page for 5 seconds, then return to the normal operating page. (C/2/2)
    a. True
  100. 19. UHF radio information is displayed in the ______ field on the RMU display. (C/3/1)
    a. first
  101. 20. To toggle between active and standby frequencies on the UHF radio, ______. (C/3/2)
    c. press the transfer switch adjacent to the UHF field
  102. 21. Pressing the MEM special function key will ______. (C/3/3)
    b. display the last used memory channel in the standby frequency
  103. 22. What indication is shown on the RMU display when UHF Guard is turned on? (C/3/4)
    c. The word “GUARD”
  104. 23. How many VHF NAV presets can be stored with the RMU? (C/4/1)
    c. Ten
  105. 24. What does the DMEH button do? (C/4/2)
    d. Holds the current DME information while allowing use of another nav facility
  106. 25. With the transponder mode set to STBY, what information is being transmitted? (C/5/1)
    a. None
  107. 26. How many transponder codes can the RMU store in addition to the active code? (D/5/2)
    a. One
  108. 1. VHF NAV volume control is provided through ______.
    a. the NAV knob on the audio control panel
  109. 2. The ground crew interphone is activated ______.
    d. when the battery switch in either cockpit is switched on
  110. 3. If the RMU does not pass the preflight test, you may override the system by ______.
    a. pressing the key next to ACCEPT
  111. 11. What indication will you get on the RMU if the backup UHF radio control unit is in operation?
    c. The word “REMOTE” will be displayed.
  112. What indication do you see when squelch is off?
    c. The letters “SQ” are displayed.
  113. 9. The RMU preflight test is initiated by ______.
    c. applying power to the RMU
  114. 10. To access the RMU special functions page for the selected system, ______.
    c. press the PAGE special functions key
  115. 7. The RMU allows storage of up to ______ UHF or VHF communication frequencies in memorychannels.
    c. 20
  116. 6. UHF radio direct tuning is accomplished by ______.
    a. holding down the appropriate transfer key for at least 3 seconds, then dialing in the new frequency
  117. 5. When in BOTH mode, the UHF radio will ______.
    d. monitor Guard and the active frequency and transmit on the active frequency
  118. 12. What is the main operational difference between the UHF radio and the VHF radio?
    d. The VHF radio doesn’t monitor Guard frequency; you must dial it up manually.
  119. 1. VOR stations transmit beams, called ______, in every direction. In the T-6A, these signals aredetected by the VOR receiver and displayed on the ______. (B/1/1)
    b. radials; EHSI
  120. 13. With the transponder set to ALT, what information is being transmitted?
    d. Aircraft altitude and transponder code
  121. 2. Since TACAN operates in the UHF frequency range, the T-6A VOR receiver cannot receive signals from VORTAC stations. (B/1/2)
    b. False
  122. 3. The VOR signal is received through the ______ antennas mounted on each side of the ______.(B/1/3)
    d. NAV/GS/ILS; vertical stabilizer
  123. 4. The ILS ______ provides course guidance to the runway centerline. (B/1/4)
    a. localizer
  124. 5. The ILS localizer and glideslope signals are received and processed through the same antennas and receiver as the ______ system. (B/1/5)
    d. VOR
  125. 6. For ILS operation, the ______ frequency is entered on the RMU as the primary navigation frequency.(B/1/6)
    b. localizer
  126. 7. The DME system measures the time required for the transmitted signal to reach the ground station and return, and calculates a ______ distance in nautical miles from the aircraft to the ground station.(B/2/1)
    d. slant range
  127. 8. When a navigation facility with DME capability is tuned in the RMU, the DME information is provided ______. (B/2/2)
    a. automatically to the EHSI
  128. 9. DME information displayed on the EHSI includes slant range distance, time-to-go to the station and ______. (B/2/3)
    a. groundspeed
  129. 10. When DME hold is activated, the words “DME HOLD” will display on the ______ below the primary nav frequency. (B/2/4)
    c. RMU
  130. 11. Controllers will assign the same Mode A transponder code to all aircraft under their control. (B/3/1)
    b. False
  131. 12. Any aircraft within line of sight and equipped with a transponder set to the same code as either the ground radar station’s or airborne interrogations system’s query responds ______ with a coded signalto the ground station interrogating it. (B/3/2)
    a. automatically
  132. 13. When you are requested to “SQUAWK ALTITUDE,” you press the mode select switch on the right side of the field to change the mode from “ON” to “______.” (B/3/3)
    b. ALT
  133. 14. When requested to “IDENT,” press the “IDT” button on the RMU. The ident signal will transmit for ______ and then return to the previous mode. (B/3/4)
    b. 20 seconds
  134. 15. NACWS data is continually displayed on the engine/systems/NACWS display. (B/4/1)
    b. False
  135. 16. A white unfilled rectangle on the NACWS display indicates traffic within plus or minus ______ feet of aircraft altitude. (B/4/2)
    a. 300
  136. 17. TAS traffic warnings and advisories are displayed on the alternate engine data display (AEDD) in both cockpits. (B/5/1)
    b. False
  137. 18. TAS range selections are 3, 5, 10, 20 and ______ NM. (B/5/2)
    b. 40
  138. 19. Proximity traffic is displayed as a filled white diamond indicating the intruding aircraft is within ±______ feet relative altitude. (B/5/3)
    b. 1200
  139. 20. In Above mode, traffic from 9000 feet above to 2700 feet below the aircraft is displayed. (B/5/4)
    b. False
  140. 21. The front cockpit GPS unit must be on and functioning for either the front or rear unit to be used. (B/6/1)
    a. True
  141. 22. The information on the right side of the Self-Test display should usually be correct since it is stored in ______ memory. (B/6/2)
    d. battery-backed
  142. 23. If on the first GPS system self-test attempt, TEST FAIL replaces ANNUN ON on the Self Test display, you must notify maintenance. (B/6/3)
    b. False
  143. 24. The large outer knobs on the left and right sides of the panel are used to select the ______ for the left and right sides of the screen respectively. (B/6/4)
    b. page types
  144. 25. To change an item on a displayed page, first press the CRSR button, then use the ______ knob to move the cursor to the field to be changed. (B/6/5)
    b. outer
  145. 26. To declutter a display, you would press the ______ button. (B/6/6)
    a. CLR
  146. 27. The GPS can store up to _____ flight plans in memory each of which can contain up to ______ waypoints. (B/6/7)
    b. 25; 30
  147. 1. The DME system displays ______ from the aircraft to the ground station.
    c. slant range distance in nautical miles
  148. 2. When the GPS first activates, the screen will display the ______ page as the default page for the left side of the display, and the right side will display the waypoint page for the last active waypoint.
    b. NAV 2
  149. 3. The 360? radial of each VOR station is oriented to ______.
    b. magnetic north
  150. 4. Automatic altitude reporting is provided by transponder mode ______.
    c. C
  151. 5. When the NAV source on the EHSI reads LOC and a glideslope signal is being received, a ______will be presented on the right side of the instrument.
    b. glideslope scale and pointer
  152. 6. On the NACWS display, an upward or downward triangle with no altitude tag denotes traffic ______.
    a. 1000 to 2700 feet off altitude
  153. 7. To use DME from one navigation facility while on approach to another facility, you should ______ before switching the primary navigation frequency to the approach facility.
    d. press the DMEH button on the RMU
  154. 8. To transmit a special pulse to aid in immediate identification on a controller's scope, you press the ______ button on the RMU.
    c. IDT
  155. 9. An advantage of the GPS flight plan function is that desired routes can be created before flight.
    a. True
  156. 10. TAS detects and tracks other aircraft by interrogating their transponders and then analyzing the replies to determine range, bearing, and relative ______.
    b. altitude
  157. 1. True or false? Both UHF and VHF systems have dedicated receivers for Guard. (B/1/1)
    False. Only UHF has a dedicated Guard receiver.
  158. 2. The UHF backup control unit can store up to how many preset channels? (B/1/2)
  159. 3. True or false? The UHF backup radio will automatically activate in the event of a failure of the RMU.(B/1/3)
    False. The backup control unit must be turned on with the ON/OFF/PUSH TEST knob.
  160. 4. In COLD mode, when are the interphone microphones active? (B/2/1)
    Only when the ICS key switch or ICS KEY/MUTE switch is activated
  161. 5. True or false? With the audio control panel identifier select switch in the R position, the VHF NAV radio will receive both voice and Morse signals. (B/2/2)
    False. Only the NAVAID recognition (Morse) signal will be selected for monitor.
  162. 6. What control sets the interphone system to either HOT or COLD mode? (B/2/3)
    INTPH switch on the rear cockpit audio control panel
  163. 7. What are the five fields that comprise the RMU display areas? (B/3/1)
    • a. UHF Comm
    • b. VHF Comm
    • c. ATC Transponder
    • d. Blank
    • e. VHF NAV
  164. 8. In which comm mode must the RMU be for the UHF radio to scan both active and Guard receivers?(B/3/2)
  165. 9. How do you quickly transfer the standby VHF frequency to the primary position? (B/3/3)
    Press the transfer switch adjacent to the VHF field
  166. 10. How many UHF or VHF comm frequencies can be stored in the RMU memory? (B/3/4)
  167. 11. True or false? The RMU will store 5 transponder codes in memory, in addition to the active code.(B/3/5)
    False. It will only store one code in memory.
  168. 12. How many VHF NAV memory channels can be stored in the RMU? (B/3/6)
  169. 13. What are the three types of VOR facilities? (C/1/1)
    • a. VOR
    • b. VOR/DME
    • c. VORTAC
  170. 14. What information does the ILS localizer provide? (C/1/2)
    Course guidance to runway centerline
  171. 15. True or false? During a localizer approach, localizer course information is displayed on both the EADI and EHSI. (C/1/3)
  172. 16. What happens to DME display error at a higher aircraft altitude? (C/1/4)
    The error increases
  173. 17. True or false? The pilot must press the IDT button on the RMU for the transponder to reply to a Mode A interrogation signal. (C/2/1)
    False. Properly set, the transponder will respond automatically.
  174. 18. How is the NACWS display activated? (C/3/1)
    • a. Automatically by the system as a result of a traffic alert
    • b. Depress the NACWS trigger switch on the control stick grip
  175. 20. How is the TAS altitude block selected? (C/3/3)
    Depress the normal/below/above pushbutton selector switch on the control stick grip
  176. 21. True or false? The targets displayed on this TAS display represent “other” traffic. (C/3/4)
    False. These targets represent proximity traffic.
  177. 22. What should you do if TEST FAIL replaces ANNUN ON when the GPS unit is first turned on?(C/4/1)
    Recycle power to the unit.
  178. 23. Which GPS button is used primarily during holding and nonprecision approaches? (C/4/2)
    OBS button
  179. 24. The active flight plan is always shown as what flight plan number? (C/4/3)
    FPL 0
  180. 25. How many flight plans can be stored in memory? (C/4/4)
    Up to 25 and each flight plan can have up to 30 waypoints.
  181. 26. You notice that the EHSI course indication cannot be changed by rotating the CRS knob on the EFIS control panel. What indication on the EHSI might confirm your problem? (D/1/1)
    CP flag
  182. 28. A NACWS failure notification will appear on what instrument? (D/1/3)
    Engine/Systems/NACWS display
  183. 1. What indication on the RMU will alert you to a possible failure of the transponder?
    Dashes or OFF in the ATC code field
  184. 2. What is the first component you should check when you suspect an avionics failure?
    Circuit breaker
  185. 3. How are all VHF tuning functions controlled?
    Through the RMU only
  186. 4. What are the five fields in the RMU?
    • a. UHF comm
    • b. VHF comm
    • c. ATC transponder
    • d. Blank
    • e. VHF NAV
  187. 5. What is the purpose of the ICS KEY/MUTE button?
    Mutes all incoming audio while allowing inter-cockpit communication.
  188. 6. How is the range display changed on the NACWS traffic display?
    NACWS range switch on the control switch
  189. 7. How is the range display changed on the TAS display?
    UP/DN range switches on the TA/VSI
  190. 8. Where are the VOR antennae located on the T-6A?
    Vertical Stabilizer
  191. 9. Which ILS component operates at 75 MHz and indicates your location along the approach path?
    Marker beacons
  192. 10. What is the range of the DME?
    It is reliable up to 199 miles slant range depending upon aircraft altitude.
  193. 11. What should you do if the controller directs you to squawk altitude?
    Set the transponder to ALT in the RMU
  194. 12. How do you select the page types on the GPS panel?
    Large outer knobs on the left and right side of the panel
  195. 1. Which T-6A environmental system is an engine-driven vapor cycle system? (B/1/1)
    c. air conditioning
  196. 2. Fresh air is distributed to the main cockpit duct and then output through the ______. (B/1/2)
    a. footwarmers or defog vents
  197. 3. On the ground, the fresh air blower is activated by the ______. (B/2/1)
    b. weight-on-wheels switch on the landing gear
  198. 4. The RAM AIR FLOW switch is overridden and the fresh air valve closed when the aircraft reaches an altitude of about ______ feet MSL. (B/2/2)
    b. 8000
  199. 5. While in flight, cool air from the ______ passes through the heat exchanger, draws heat from the bleed air, and is then exhausted through a vent in the lower right cowling. (B/3/1)
    b. ram air inlet
  200. 6. As the TEMP CONTROL switch is turned toward COLD, the heat exchanger bypass valve opens up and more cool air from the heat exchanger passes into the cockpit. (B/3/2)
    b. False
  201. 7. Which control, when activated, prevents engine compartment fumes from entering the cockpit through the environmental system after an engine shutdown situation? (B/3/3)
    c. Firewall shutoff handle
  202. 8. Cockpit air temperature is automatically adjusted between ______ Fahrenheit with the TEMP CONTROL switch set to AUTO. (B/3/4)
    c. 60° and 90°
  203. 9. When the DEFOG switch is ON and the Vent Control Lever is set to CANOPY, a higher volume of bleed air in the system causes ambient cockpit air to be drawn into the heating system ejector, mixedwith bleed air in the main cockpit duct and flow downstream to the windshield and canopy defogducts. (B/4/1)
    a. True
  204. 10. Placing the vent lever in the ______ position causes the valve at the front cockpit assembly to direct the warm air into the windshield defog duct. (B/4/2)
    b. CANOPY
  205. 13. A panel in the ______ side of the fuselage allows access for maintenance personnel to recharge the system refrigerant when necessary. (B/5/2)
    d. forward right
  206. 14. The ______ will produce airflow at up to 350 cubic feet per minute at the HI setting. (B/5/3)
    a. evaporator blowers
  207. 1. Engine bleed air for the cockpit heating system is supplied from the ______.
    d. right side engine compressor P3 port
  208. 2. The engine-driven air conditioner compressor pumps refrigerant in vapor form to the ______.
    b. condenser
  209. 4. Placing the Defog switch to ON opens the ______ which causes a higher volume of bleed air to pass through the heating system ejector.
    c. bi-level flow control bypass valve
  210. 5. In the cockpit evaporator modules, ______ is drawn through coils which contain liquid refrigerant.
    d. warm cockpit air
  211. 7. After takeoff, fresh air is supplied through the ______.
    a. ram air inlet on top of the cowling
  212. 8. The air conditioning system only operates when the engine is on and functioning with the ______ and the ______.
    a. generator on-line; AIR COND or DEFOG switch ON
  213. 9. The ECS has two temperature sensors to alert the pilot of ______ conditions in the ducting.
    a. overtemperature
  214. 1. Cockpit pressure altitude is maintained by the pressurization control valve at ______ feet until a cockpit differential pressure of 3.6 +/- 0.2 psi is reached at 18,069 feet. (B/1/1)
    a. 8000
  215. 3. The safety valve receives a signal from the ?P regulator if the cockpit differential pressure exceeds ______ psi. (B/1/3)
    c. 4.0
  216. 4. The anti-G valve on the left side console in each cockpit is opened by ______ during maneuvers.(B/2/1)
    c. increasing positive G force
  217. 5. The T-6A anti-G system helps maintain ______ during high G maneuvers. (B/2/2)
    b. normal blood circulation
  218. 7. An ______ is installed near each regulator which allows the pilot to continue breathing ambient cockpit air if OBOGS should fail. (B/3/2)
    c. anti-suffocation valve
  219. 8. Approximately three minutes after OBOGS is activated, the ______ annunciator will light if there is a system failure during the system self test. (B/3/3)
  220. 1. A control valve regulator in the aft pressure bulkhead monitors the ______ and automatically adjusts the position of the ______.
    b. cockpit pressure; pressurization control valve
  221. 2. OBOGS extracts oxygen from engine bleed air tapped from the ______.
    a. P3 port on the left side of the engine
  222. 3. Cockpit pressure altitude and differential pressure are shown on the ______ on the lower right side of the instrument panel.
    c. alternate engine data display
  223. 5. Placing the environmental control panel PRESSURIZATION switch in the ______ position opens the control valve and fresh air valve, depressurizes the cockpit, allows ram air into the cockpit andcontinues bleed air inflow into the cockpit.
    a. RAM DUMP
  224. 8. The amber CKPT ALT light will illuminate when cockpit pressure altitude exceeds ______ feet.
    b. 19,000
  225. 1. Which canopy section(s) provide enhanced birdstrike protection? (B/1/1)
    b. Windscreen and front transparency
  226. 2. Select the INCORRECT statement below. (B/1/2)
    c. The locking/latching system prevents cabin air leaks.
  227. 5. When closing the canopy from the inside, the canopy has been properly latched when the ______.(B/2/3)
    c. mechanical green indicator is visible
  228. 6. What indications will you get if the canopy is unlocked? (B/2/4)
    c. MASTER WARN switchlight and CANOPY annunciator
  229. 7. The canopy shall not be opened on the ground when surface winds exceed ______ knots. (B/2/5)
    d. 40
  230. 8. The CFS functions automatically during ejection or can be activated by ______ CFS handles. (B/3/1)
    c. internal or external
  231. 9. Which control will fracture the front cockpit canopy transparency only? (B/3/2)
    c. Front cockpit CFS handle
  232. 10. In order for the CFS to be activated, aircraft electrical power must be available. (B/3/3)
    b. False
  233. 11. FLSC is used on the front transparency instead of MDC because ______. (B/3/4)
    a. FLSC is more powerful than MDC and can cut the thicker front transparency
  234. 1. What are the major systems of the T-6A canopy?
    a. Locking/latching, sealing, defog, and fracturing
  235. 2. The purpose of the CFS is to ______.
    c. provide emergency egress if the canopy will not open normally
  236. 3. When the canopy is properly latched from the inside ______.
    d. a mechanical green indicator is visible
  237. 4. Activating the left external CFS handle will ______.
    a. activate the explosives for both the front and rear cockpit transparencies
  238. 5. Opening the canopy on the ground with winds greater than ______ knots is prohibited.
    d. 40
  239. 6. To safely activate the fracturing system using an external CFS handle ______.
    b. face away from the aircraft and pull the CFS lanyard to its full length of 10 feet
  240. 7. An internal CFS handle located on the left console in the front cockpit allows activation of the fracturing system for the ______.
    c. front cockpit transparency only
  241. 8. The pneumatic canopy pressure seal inflates when ______.
    • a. engine bleed air inflow is available
    • c. weight is off the right main landing gear
  242. 1. The pilot would use the MOR handle to separate from the seat ______. (B/1/1)
    d. over mountainous terrain above 8000 feet MSL
  243. 2. When properly secured, you will be restrained with the torso harness connected to the risers and SSK while also ensuring the ______ and ______ are securely fastened. (B/1/2)
    d. lap belt; leg restraints
  244. 3. What is the purpose of the leg restraint system? (B/1/3)
    b. Prevent the feet from flailing during ejection
  245. 4. The emergency oxygen cylinder is considered charged if the pointer is at 1500 psi or above. (B/1/4)
    b. False
  246. 5. During ejection, emergency oxygen is provided ______. (B/1/5)
    c. for about 10 minutes or until seat-pilot separation
  247. 6. During ejection, what happens in the event the canopy fracturing system (CFS) fails? (B/1/6)
    b. The canopy breaker will penetrate the canopy transparency as the seat moves up the rails.
  248. 7. When flying dual, an ISS mode selector setting of ______ allows either crewmember to initiate ejection of both seats. (B/1/7)
    b. BOTH
  249. 8. During the ejection process, movement of the seat is first initiated by ______. (B/2/1)
    c. detonated gas pressure
  250. 9. What are the three factors affecting the effectiveness of the ejection system? (C/1/1)
    d. Dive angle, bank angle, and sink rate
  251. 10. Why is it a good practice to eject from the aircraft in a level flight attitude? (C/1/2)
    d. Ensure little or no sink rate
  252. 11. What happens during simultaneous ejections (ISS mode selector is set to BOTH)? (C/2/1)
    d. The rear seat will eject first.
  253. 12. What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO? (C/2/2)
    a. The SSK will deploy 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation.
  254. 1. The T-6A ejection seat is designed to provide rapid ejection capability at zero altitude and zero speed up to ______ feet and ______ KIAS.
    c. 35,000; 370
  255. 2. The ejection seat leg restraint garters are attached ______.
    b. just above the boots
  256. 3. You will attach the SSK by connecting ______.
    c. the SSK V-rings on the torso harness to the seat buckles
  257. 4. The PIRD performs which of the following functions?
    d. Retracts the shoulder harness straps during ejection
  258. 5. Where are the parachute and chute harness assembly located?
    b. In the headbox
  259. 6. What happens if the ADU Mode Selector Switch is set to AUTO?
    b. The SSK is lowered 4.0 seconds after seat-pilot separation
  260. 7. The ejection seat emergency oxygen system provides which of the following?
    d. 10 minutes of oxygen
  261. 8. In order to prevent inadvertent activation of the ejection system while on the ground, each seat ______.
    b. should be secured with a safety pin that has a red streamer
  262. 9. How is the T-6A ejection seat propelled?
    c. Detonated gas pressure and rocket motor
  263. 10. Prior to ejection, it is desirable to do which of the following?
    b. Climb to trade airspeed for altitude
  264. 11. What is the purpose of the drogue chute?
    d. Helps to stabilize and decelerate the seat
  265. 12. Recommended minimum altitudes for controlled and uncontrolled ejection, according to the Flight Manual, are ______ and ______ feet AGL respectively.
    a. 2000; 6000
  266. 13. Tubing from the emergency oxygen cylinder runs from the cylinder across the back of the seat bucket to the right side, and then connects to the ______.
    c. pilot’s CRU-60/P
  267. 14. Proper seat adjustment during ejection is a safety issue because ______.
    a. adjusting the seat so your helmet is higher than the canopy breaker can have lethal results
  268. 1. Which switch controls the flow of fresh air to the cockpit during ground operations and unpressurized flight? (B/1/1)
    The RAM AIR FLOW switch on the Environmental Control Panel controls the position of the fresh air valve and thus the amount of air flow.
  269. 2. True or false? The AIR COND switch is available in both cockpits and is used to activate the air conditioner compressor. (B/1/2)
    False. The AIR COND switch is located only in the front cockpit on the environmental control panel.
  270. 3. True or false? Placing the vent control lever in the CANOPY position opens the defog (bi-level flow control bypass) valve. (B/1/3)
    False. The defog valve is opened by placing the DEFOG switch in the ON position.
  271. 4. Which cockpit control and duct component controls whether warm bleed air is routed to the footwarmers or defog outlets? (B/1/4)
    The front cockpit vent control lever adjusts the position of the cockpit selector valves to route warm air to either the footwarmers or the defog outlets.
  272. 5. True or false? The Temperature Control Switch Knob on the Environmental Control Panel controls the temperature of both heating and defogging air. (B/1/5)
    True. The switch knob controls the position of the heat exchanger bypass valve which determines the temperature of air for both heating and defogging.
  273. 6. If cockpit pressure differential exceeds 4.0 psi, the ?P regulator sends a signal to the safety valve. What does the safety valve do? (B/1/6)
    The safety valve will open to relieve excess cockpit pressure, regulating the pressure at 4.0 psi.
  274. 7. A cockpit pressure differential of 3.6±0.2 psi is normally reached at what altitude? (B/1/7)
    18,069 feet
  275. 8. True or false? Pressure for the anti-G system is supplied from an electrically driven pump. (B/1/8)
    False. System pressure is supplied by the engine right side bleed air port.
  276. 9. Which oxygen pressure regulator concentration lever position supplies the highest possible oxygen concentration? (B/1/9)
    The MAX position
  277. 10. When is the canopy pressure seal inflated? (B/2/1)
    The seal is automatically inflated when bleed air inflow is available and weight is off the right main landing gear.
  278. 11. True or false? Aircraft electrical power must be available for the canopy fracturing system to function. (B/2/2)
    False. The CFS requires no electricity to function.
  279. 12. The T-6A Martin-Baker ejection seat is a zero-zero seat usable up to what altitude and airspeed? (B/2/3)
    35,000 feet and 370 KIAS
  280. 13. How would you deploy the parachute if the automatic system fails? (B/2/4)
    Use the manual override (MOR) handle on the right side of the seat bucket.
  281. 14. When activated, the emergency oxygen bottle will supply oxygen for how long? (B/2/5)
    Approximately 10 minutes
  282. 15. Illumination of the CKPT PX annunciator indicates what? (B/3/1)
    Cockpit pressure exceeding 3.9 to 4.0 psi, indicating a problem in the pressurization outflow system
  283. 16. The CKPT ALT annunciator is illuminated, indicating the cockpit altitude has exceeded 19,000 feet. What ?P reading should you expect to see? (B/3/2)
    Delta P less than 3.4
  284. 17. An OBOGS FAIL annunciator should be accompanied by what other panel indication? (B/3/3)
    A flashing MASTER WARN switchlight on the instrument panel.
  285. 1. Where does bleed air for T-6A heating, defogging, pressurization, anti-G and OBOGS come from?
    Left and right engine compressor P3 ports
  286. 2. True or false? The entire T-6A canopy is protected for birdstrikes.
    False. Only the forward windscreen and front cockpit transparency are protected.
  287. 3. If the ejection seat ADU mode selector switch is set to AUTO, when will the SSK deploy?
    Approximately 4 seconds after seat/pilot separation
  288. 4. True or false? The T-6A air conditioning system is electrically operated and is available when electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
    False. Air conditioning depends on an engine-driven compressor which only operates when the: Engine is running; generator is on-line; AIR COND or DEFOG switch is ON
  289. 5. Which control opens the bi-level flow control bypass valve?
    The DEFOG switch opens the bi-level flow control bypass valve.
  290. 6. Which annunciator will light if duct air temperature exceeds 300° F?
    DUCT TEMP annunciator
  291. 7. Emergency oxygen can be activated manually in the event of OBOGS failure. When does it automatically activate?
    Emergency oxygen is automatically activated during ejection.
  292. 8. OBOGS will provide oxygen for how many hours of flight?
    OBOGS is an on-board generating system and its duration is unlimited.
  293. 9. True or false? The CKPT ALT annunciator indicates the cockpit is overpressurized.
    False. It indicates a cockpit pressure altitude of 19,000 feet or higher, usually due to loss of cockpit pressurization.
  294. 10. In addition to the cold air vent on the center console in each cockpit, additional air conditioning outlets are located where?
    On the glareshield.
  295. 11. When the ejection seat sequencer is set to SOLO, which seat will eject first?
    Only the activating seat will eject.
  296. 12. True or false? The anti-G system will activate only during negative-G maneuvers.
    False. The anti-G system only activates during positive-G maneuvers.