Final Exam GOVT

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Final Exam GOVT
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Final Exam GOVT
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  1. The Declaration of Independence states that when a government created by “the
    consent of the governed” fails to protect their rights, the people have the
    right to
    alter or abolish such government
  2. The issue of prayers at school graduations and ball games was addressed by the
    Supreme Court in Santa Fe v. Doe. The position of the Court was that
    • the prayer is unconstitutional
    • because it appears to be a state endorsement of religion.
  3. Provisions of the Ninth and Tenth Amendments
    convey divisions of power between state and federal governments
  4. In the twentieth century the Supreme Court became increasingly more willing to
    protect individuals against intrusive state actions. What instrument gave the
    Supreme Court this authority?
    • The Fourteenth Amendment’s due
    • process clause
  5. The Sixth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution guarantees
    • in all criminal cases the accused shall … have the assistance of Counsel for
    • his defense
  6. In the case of Barron v. Baltimore (1833) a private citizen
    attempted to apply the U.S. Constitution’s Fifth Amendment as the basis for a
    state level civil suit. The court’s ruling
    made the U.S. Bill of Rights not applicable to the state governments
  7. In the case of Griswold v. Connecticut, the Supreme Court held that
    • provisions of the Bill of Rights
    • and the Fourteenth Amendment create a “zone of privacy.”
  8. In the 1940s and 1950s, members of the Communist party were convicted for their
    advocacy of _______, or calling for the overthrow of an existing system of
    government
    sedition
  9. The Fourth Amendment has been used in defense of the
    right of the people to be secure against unreasonable searches and seizures
  10. The idea that the best test for truth is to present all arguments, valid and
    invalid, is an example of
    the “marketplace of ideas.”
  11. The legal rule requiring that all evidence illegally obtained by police in
    violation of the Bill of Rights must be excluded from admission in a court of
    law is called the
    exclusionary rule.
  12. Why did the Framers of the Constitution, such as James Madison, believe that a
    Bill of Rights to guarantee individual rights was unnecessary at the federal
    level?
    • They believed the federal
    • government had only the powers it was explicitly given.
  13. Who makes the determination that a particular action or law is in violation of
    the free exercise clause of the First Amendment?
    The U.S. Supreme Court
  14. Charles Schenck, a leader of the American Socialist Party, was jailed for
    distributing anti-draft leaflets during the early months of American involvement
    in World War I. In the case of Schenck v. United States, the Supreme
    Court rejected Schenck’s request for release and thus established the test of
    free speech that
    speech may be restricted when a “clear and present danger” exists
  15. The primary purpose of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was to
    • remove artificial barriers to voter participation such as literacy tests and
    • poll taxes
  16. Passive resistance to a law that is perceived as unjust by refusing to obey it
    is known as a
    civil disobedience.
  17. The Civil War Amendments were a series of three race-related Constitutional
    Amendments. These amendments were the
    • Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and
    • Fifteenth.
  18. Which type of law, passed in southern states during Reconstruction, required a
    payment to the government before an individual could be allowed to vote?
    Poll tax
  19. Congress passed the Civil Rights Act of 1964 which
    • banned discrimination in accommodations, both public and private, and
    • employment
  20. A social condition in which members of different groups possess substantially
    the same rights to participate actively in the political system is referred to
    as
    political equality
  21. Which term refers to equality and fair treatment within the various
    institutions, both public and private that serve the public at large?
    Social equality
  22. Among other provisions, the Fourteenth Amendment provided for
    full citizenship to all persons born or naturalized in the United States
  23. In the “Civil Rights Cases” the Supreme Court held that
    • private individuals may
    • discriminate on the basis of race.
  24. Which term applied to the variety of laws enacted by state and local governments
    across the South in the late 1800s and early 1900s that required and enforced
    racial segregation?
    Jim Crow laws
  25. The purpose of the Twenty-fourth Amendment, ratified in 1964, was to
    prohibit the use of state poll taxes in federal elections
  26. Which of the following is NOT true of public opinion polls?
    • They are the only means of
    • reliably expressing public opinion.
  27. An unscientific poll that gathers the opinions of people who are conveniently
    available in a particular gathering place is called
    a straw poll.
  28. The most common method used to
    determine public opinion isAnswer
    the public opinion poll.
  29. Many scholars use as a general definition of public opinion the
    • summation of individual opinions
    • on any particular topic.
  30. What is the normal confidence interval percentage with a poll?
    95 percent
  31. Often there are many factors and institutions that have a particularly relevant
    impact on one’s socialization to politics. These factors and institutions are
    known as
    agents of political socialization
  32. According to the National Council on Public Polls, which of the following need
    NOT be disclosed about any poll that is released publicly?
    The names of interviewers
  33. Which of the following is true concerning the political orientations of
    Americans?
    • Political orientations tend to be
    • very stable and lasting.
  34. According to most research, how long is the process of acquiring political
    values, beliefs, and opinions?
    • A lifelong process beginning in
    • childhood
  35. The amount of error in a poll that results from interviewing a group of people
    rather than the whole population under study is referred to as
    sampling error.
  36. Beyond an “iron triangle,” a broader set of actors who all have a vested
    interest in an area of public policy and try to collectively influence their
    policy area is generally referred to as
    an issue network.
  37. Three sets of actors interact to produce policy: congressional committees,
    executive agencies of government, and private interest groups. This grouping of
    actors and interests is referred to as the
    iron triangle
  38. While membership numbers are important to an interest group, the wealth of its
    members is also important. This is because
    wealth impacts the level of financial contributions to political campaigns
  39. During periods of rapid growth in federal spending, such as the New Deal of the
    1930s and the Great Society of the 1960s, what has been the corresponding
    response of interest groups?
    The number of organized and active interest groups increased significantly
  40. Which of the following would NOT be included in a list of economic interest
    groups?
    Animal rights groups
  41. Which of the following would NOT be an advantage of interest group activity?
    • Interest groups work to concentrate benefits for the few while distributing
    • costs to the many
  42. How many Americans are estimated
    as belonging to at least one interest group?Answer
    Approximately 80 percent
  43. Between 1960 and 2000, the number of official associations (interest groups)
    increased by about
    400 percent
  44. An organization of people with shared goals that tries to influence public
    policy through a variety of activities is called
    an interest group.
  45. Which theory says that public policy largely results from a variety of interest
    groups competing with one another to promote laws that benefit members of their
    respective groups?
    Pluralism
  46. How are interest groups legally protected in the United States?
    • Through the First Amendment of
    • the U.S. Constitution, which guarantees the right of the people “to peaceably
    • assemble and petition the government for redress of grievances”
  47. Often an individual will join and support a certain interest group to receive
    tangible advantages from that membership. These advantages are referred to as
    material benefits
  48. Which of the following is NOT a method that interest groups use to lobby for
    their causes?
    Boycotting businesses
  49. Which of the following is the most influential interest group that lobbies for
    the needs of the elderly?
    • American Association for Retired
    • People (AARP)
  50. Which theory says that public policy is a product of whatever the majority of
    citizens prefer?
    Majoritarianism
  51. The period between the national party conventions in the summer of the
    presidential election year and the actual election in November is referred to as
    the
    general election campaign.
  52. A handful of states do not hold elections for individual parties to select their
    candidates. Instead, the party members are invited to attend local meetings at
    which they choose delegates who make a commitment to a candidate for the party
    nomination. This process is called
    the caucus
  53. How does a candidate “win” the presidency in the Electoral College?
    • He/she must receive an outright
    • majority of all electoral votes.
  54. The term “battleground state” refers to a state that
    • either party has a chance of
    • winning in the presidential election.
  55. Which of the following is NOT a major source of campaign funding?
    Foreign investors
  56. All states have a minimum of three electoral votes. The state with the most
    electoral votes in the Electoral College is
    California.
  57. Campaign contributions that go directly to the candidate are called
    hard money.
  58. In 1824 Andrew Jackson was the first presidential candidate in American history
    to win the popular vote but not win a majority of the Electoral College vote.
    What happened as a result?
    • The House of Representatives
    • selected the president from the top vote getters.
  59. The final determination of which candidate wins the presidential election is
    based upon
    the official results of the votes cast by electors in the Electoral College
  60. A statewide election that selects delegates who will represent the state at the
    party’s national convention is called a
    presidential primary.
  61. Most states require that voters declare their party affiliation ahead of time
    and, at the time of voting, can only vote in that party’s election. This process
    is called
    a closed primary
  62. Which of the following is NOT true of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of
    2002?
    • It requires that all federal candidates accurately disclose campaign
    • contributions
  63. One theory states that certain elections can produce sharp changes in patterns
    of party loyalty among voters, such as the election of 1860 in which Abraham
    Lincoln won the presidency. This theory is called
    critical election theory.
  64. In regards to political parties, the term ”de-alignment” refers to
    the decline in voter attachment to both parties
  65. Which of the following was NOT a purpose of the earliest national party
    conventions?
    • Forum for open debate between the
    • two major national political parties
  66. Woodrow Wilson’s victory in 1912 was the only Democratic presidential win
    between 1896 and 1932. To what do most experts credit Wilson’s win?
    • A third-party campaign by former
    • Republican president Theodore
    • Roosevelt
  67. If a third-party candidate has no expectation of winning an election, what would
    be a positive reason for him/her to run for the presidential office?
    • To raise awareness of a
    • particular ideology or cause
  68. Which of the following is NOT a function of political parties?
    • Establishing networks of business
    • relationships
  69. Which of the following is true of voter turnout?
    Women are slightly more inclined to vote than men
  70. Which of the following is NOT an explanation for low voter turnout?
    • The rise in general “social
    • capital”
  71. What constitutional amendment guarantees women equal voting rights with men?
    Nineteenth Amendment
  72. In the 1828 presidential election Andrew Jackson won decisively. Which of the
    following was NOT a result of this important election?
    • It solidified a one-party system by making it difficult to oppose this dominant
    • party
  73. What constitutional amendment lowered the voting age to 18 in all local, state,
    and federal elections?
    Twenty-sixth Amendment
  74. The Whig Party was a dominant party for the 20 years immediately preceding the
    Civil War By the 1850s the Whig Party began to witness serious divisions that
    led to its demise. What was the basis of this split?
    • Serious differences over the
    • legality and morality of slavery
  75. The person regarded as the father of the national party system is
    Andrew Jackson.
  76. The presidential proclamation of 1823 that there should be no further attempts
    to colonize North and South America by European powers is known as the
    Monroe Doctrine
  77. A foreign policy that is the opposite of isolationism, one that advocates
    economic and military actions to secure boundaries and interests worldwide is
    known as
    internationalism.
  78. Which political ideology opposes American interventions in distant wars or
    involvement in permanent military alliances?
    Isolationism
  79. The “preemption doctrine” can be understood as
    the right of the U. S. use advance strikes to stop states from developing WMDs
  80. Which of the following is NOT a basis of the president’s increased power over
    foreign policy?
    • He has been given extensive and
    • specific constitutional powers to undertake the responsibilities of conducting
    • foreign policy.
  81. Though World War I began in Europe in 1914, the United States did not enter the
    war until 1917. The primary reason for this delay was due to the fact that the
    United States
    advocated and pursued a policy of isolationism and neutrality
  82. The “new world order” declared by president George H. W. Bush in 1991 referred
    to
    • numerous nations working together
    • for collective peace, security, and the rule of law.
  83. Which of the following is NOT a program of the U.S. Department of State?
    • Oversight of homeland
    • security
  84. Politicians and presidential advisors who call for aggressive military action
    wherever hostile forces may be found are often referred to as
    hawks.
  85. What term is used to describe a nation’s activities directed at relations with
    other countries?
    Foreign policy
  86. What is the executive body that plays a critical role in formulating and
    implementing U.S. foreign policy through management of the nation’s military?
    Department of Defense
  87. Policy that deals with how to raise revenue through taxation and how to spend
    the revenue generated is called
    fiscal policy.
  88. In the policy making process, the recognition/definition stage is one in which
    the
    • objectives to be fulfilled and goals to be pursued are first identified and
    • defined
  89. The amount of money spent by the government over and above what it collects in
    taxes and other revenue in a single year is referred to as
    budget deficit.
  90. Medicaid was designed to provide healthcare to the
    poor.
  91. In the policy making process, the stage in which the policy under consideration
    assumes the authority of law through an act of Congress or regulations issued by
    administrative agencies is called the ________ stage.
    adoption
  92. The period in which the budget process must be completed from start to finish is
    • the first Monday in February
    • through October 1.
  93. In the policy making process, the
    stage in which the policy is assessed for its worth and effectiveness in meeting
    its original objectives and goals is called the __________ stage.
    Answer
    evaluation
  94. Regulation of the money supply and interest rates by a central bank, such as the
    U.S. Federal Reserve Board, in order to control inflation and stabilize currency
    is called
    monetary policy
  95. What is one practical use by the federal government for the Consumer Price Index
    (CPI)?
    • It helps determines the cost of
    • living increases in federal social security benefits.
  96. An economic slowdown
    characterized by higher unemployment, reduced productivity, or some other
    negative economic indicators is known asAnswer
    recession.
  97. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the federal budget?
    • It sets limits on the
    • profitability of key industries and service companies.
  98. Approximately how long after the creation of social security were Medicare and
    Medicaid added to the American social welfare system?
    30 years
  99. What are guaranteed government
    benefits that certain citizens depend upon for subsistence?Answer
    Entitlements
  100. A set of laws, regulations, and rules that affect the whole of society is
    referred to as
    public policy.

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