2nd Mini CPE: Bel-Rea

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Author:
LRussellCVT
ID:
246539
Filename:
2nd Mini CPE: Bel-Rea
Updated:
2013-11-12 13:44:07
Tags:
Bel Rea Mini CPE Clinical Proficiency Exam
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Description:
Radiology Pharmacology Vet Sci III & IV Anesthesia Large Animal
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  1. What is the above arrhythmia?
    What is the treatment?
    • V Tach: Ventricular Tachycardia
    • TX: Lidocaine

  2. What is the above arrhythmia?
    What is the treatment?
    • V Fib: Ventricular Fibrillation
    • TX: Defibrillation or CPCR

  3. What is the above arrhythmia?
    Asystole

  4. What is the above arrhythmia?
    What is the Treatment?
    • Sinus Tachycardia
    • TX: Deepen anesthetic plan, increase Oxygen Flow

  5. What is the above arrhythmia?
    What is the treatment?
    • Sinus Bradycardia
    • TX: Atropine

  6. What is the above arrhythmia?
    Define the type of arrhythmia?
    What species is it normal in?
    What is the treatment?
    • 1st Degree AV Block
    • Delay in conduction between the P wave and the QRS Complex
    • Normal in horses
    • TX: None

  7. What is the above arrhythmia?
    Define the type of arrhythmia?
    What is the treatment?
    • 2nd Degree AV Block
    • P waves without QRS complex
    • TX: Atropine

  8. What is the above arrhythmia?
    Define the type of arrhythmia?
    What is the treatment?
    • Third Degree AV Block
    • Have more than one lone P wave in consecutive sessions.
    • TX: Pacemaker
  9. What are a few families of injectable anesthetics?
    Give examples.
    • Barbituates (Phenobarb, thiopental)
    • Cyclohexamines (Ketamine, Tiletamine)
    • Propofol¬†
    • Guiafenesin (Gecolate)
    • Etomidate (Amidate)
    • Neuroleptoanalgesia (Ace & Oxymorphone)
  10. What are 3 common sites for equine arterial catheterization?
    • 1. Dorsal metatarsal
    • 2. Submandibular artery
    • 3. Facial artery
  11. What size reservoir bags would you use for the following?
    Foals:
    Adult Equine:
    • Foals: 15L
    • Adults: 30L
  12. What is the Oxygen flow for horses?
    • 8-12L O2/min for the first 10 minutes
    • Reduce to 3-6L O2/min for remaining
  13. What two types of gas anesthetic would be used for equine anesthesia?
    • Halothane
    • Sevoflurane
  14. What size ET tubes would you use for the following?
    Adult Equines:
    Foals:
    Draft Horses:
    • Adult Equines: 26mm
    • Foals: 14mm
    • Draft Horses: 30mm
  15. What should an ECG be for a horse?
    Do horses have any arrhythmias that are normal?
    • 30-40bpm
    • First & Second Degree AV Block
  16. What should an equine systolic blood pressure be?
    Diastolic?
    Mean?
    • Systolic: >90mmHg
    • Diastolic: >40mmHg
    • Mean: >70mmHg
  17. For the preanesthetic drugs what family of drug do you avoid for equines? Why?
    Anticholinergics due to their decrease of GI motility; colic
  18. Why do we try not to use Ace in stallions?
    Permanent Penile Prolapse
  19. What antibiotic is used on horses that is risky? Where does it HAVE to be administered?
    • PPG (Procain Pen G)
    • IM ONLY
  20. For equine induction what drugs are used?
    • Cyclohexamine (Ketamine)
    • Barbituates (Thiopental)
    • Triple Drip (Ketamine, Xylazine, Guiafenesin)
  21. What 3 types of recovery are available for horses?
    • 1. Free recovery
    • 2. Assisted Recovery - most common, ropes used to keep horse in standing position
    • 3. Water Recovery - antigravity, expensive
  22. What levels are considered borderline hypoxic?
    O2sat: 90-95%
  23. What levels are considered Hypoxic?
    O2sat: <90%
  24. What levels are considered cianotic:
    O2sat: <85%
  25. What is the purpose for an AMBU bag?
    Used to ventilate patient with oxygen during CPCR
  26. What does a Capnograph measure?
    Under anesthesia would should ETCO2 be?
    • Respiration Rate
    • ETCO2
    • INCO2
    • Under Anesthesia: 35-45mmHg
  27. What is another name for a unidirectional flutter valve?
    Pressure Relief Valve
  28. What two types of scavange is available?
    • Passive: FlowAir
    • Active: Active
  29. What does pressure menometer measure?
    What is it used for?
    Dow do you check for leaks?
    • cmH2O pressure
    • Used to ventilate patient
    • Leaks: Water for drop in 5cmH2O pressure in 30 minutes
  30. What type of granules are used in a CO2 absorber?
    Soda Lime
  31. For the following colors what anesthetic gas is used?
    Purple
    Yellow
    • Purple: Isoflurane
    • Yellow: Sevoflurane
  32. What color are oxygen tanks?
    How much PSI is in an E Tank? H Tank?
    How many L of oxygen are in an E Tank? H Tank?
    How to you calculate time left?
    • Green
    • E Tank & H Tank: 2,000-2,200L
    • E Tank: 600-660L
    • H Tank: 7,000 L
    • Calculation: PSI x 0.3 (E Tank)
  33. What is the purpose of a negative pressure relief valve?
    Allows room air in
  34. For a 6kg cat, what breathing system is used?
    What is the formula to calculate Oxygen flow rate?
    • Non-rebreathing system
    • 200cc/kg/min
  35. For a 35kg dog what breathing system do you use?
    What is the formula to calculate oxygen flow rate?
    What is the formula for a reservoir bag?
    • Rebreathing or Circle System
    • 30cc/kg/min
    • 60mls/kg
  36. What is the procedure to ventilate a patient?
    • 1. Close popoff valve
    • 2. Squeeze reservoir bag (20cmH20 pressure)
    • 3. Open popoff valve
  37. How to connect and disconnect an entubated patient to an anesthetic machine?
    • CONNECT
    • -Turn on Oxygen Flow Rate
    • -Connect patient
    • -Turn on vaporizer

    • DISCONNECT
    • -Turn off vaporizer
    • -Disconnect patient
    • -Turn off oxygen flow rate
  38. Define:
    Neuroleptoanalgesia
    Give an example:
    • The use of a sedativetranquilizer and an opioid
    • Buprenorphine & Acepromazine
  39. Define:
    Pre Emptive Analgesia
    Preventing pain before the onset of pain
  40. Describe:
    Isoflurane
    • Semi-soluble
    • Middle MAC
    • Semi-fast onset of action
    • Semi-potent
  41. Describe:
    Sevoflurane
    • Least soluble
    • Highest MAC
    • Fastest onset of action
    • Least potent
  42. Describe:
    Halothane
    • Most soluble
    • Lowest MAC
    • Slowest onset of action
    • Most Potent
  43. Define: PA period
    What is done during this time?
    • The period of time immediately following the induction period.
    • TO DO
    • Patient date collected
    • Fast Animal (Small animal: 12 hours Large Animal: 12-24 hours)
    • Give PA drugs
    • Get anesthetic machine ready
  44. Define:
    Induction Period
    The process by which taking an animal from a conscious state to an unconscious state
  45. Define:
    Maintenance Period
    Period of time following induction in which a stable level of anesthetic depth is achieved
  46. What two types of ET tubes are used?
    How are they measured?
    • Murphy Eye *most common*
    • Cole
    • Units: mm
  47. What PA drugs are used?
    • Tranquilizers (Acepromazine - phenotiazine)
    • Sedatives (Xylazine)
    • Opioids (Buprenorphine)
    • NSAIDS (Rimadyl)
    • Anticholinergis (Glycopyrrolate, Atropine)
  48. Describe:
    Stage I Anesthesia
    Voluntary Excitement Stage
  49. Describe:
    Stage II Anesthesia
    • Involuntary Excitement Stage
    • Induction Period
  50. Describe:
    Stage III Plane I Anesthesia
    What procedures can be done?
    • Light Plane of Anesthesia
    • Intubation, dentals, radiographs, biopsys
  51. Describe:
    Stage III Plane II Anesthesia
    What reflexes are absent?
    • Medium Anesthesia Plane
    • Pedal, palpebral, nystagmus
  52. Describe:
    Stage III Plane III Anesthesia
    What procedures can be done?
    • Deep Anesthetic Plane
    • Spinal surgery, neuro surgery, thoractomy
  53. Describe:
    Stage III Plane IV Anesthesia
    Overdose of anesthestic
  54. Describe:
    Stage IV Anesthesia
    CPCR is necessary to maintain life
  55. What are the normal rates for a dog & cat on an ECG?
    • Dogs: 60-160bpm
    • Cats: 140-240bpm
  56. Define:
    Gastric Groove
    Important structure in suckling calves due to milk bypassing the rumen
  57. What are the 4 sections of a ruminant stomach?
    Which is the true stomach?
    • Rumen
    • Reticulum
    • Abomasum (True stomach)
    • Omasum
  58. What two parts of the colon are in horses? What are the parts of them?
    • Ascending Colon (Large)
    • -R Ventral Colon
    • -Sternal Flexure
    • -L Ventral Colon
    • -Pelvic Flexure
    • -Left Dorsal Colon
    • -Diaphragmatic Flexure
    • -R Dorsal Colon
    • -Transverse COlon
    • Desending Colon (Small Colon)
  59. What are two signs of "colic"?
    • Kicking at belly
    • Flopping
  60. What is pathognumonic sign for a sand impaction when ausculating?
    Ocean-like sounds in ventral colon and cecum
  61. What are two functions of a nephron?
    • Filtration
    • Reabsorption
  62. What is the renal threshold for dogs & cats?
    • Dogs: 160-180mg/dl
    • Cats: 280-300mg/dl
  63. What are the 4 methods of collection?
    • Free Catch/Voided
    • Manual Expression
    • Catheterization
    • Cystocentesis
  64. How long can urine sit at room temperature? How long can it stay in a fridge?
    • Room Temp: 30 minutes
    • Fridge: 6 hours
  65. How do you preserve urine chemically?
    1gtt of 40% formaldehyde
  66. What are the 4 things included with a routine U/A?
    • Macroscopic Evaluation
    • USG
    • Urine Chemistries
    • Microscopic Evailuation
  67. What are freely filtered substances?
    • Water
    • Electrolytes
    • Glucose
    • Amino Acids
    • BUN & Creatinine (Non-protein nitrogenous wastes)
  68. Define:
    USG
    What does it evaluate?
    What are the normals?
    What is fixed?
    What instrument do you use? What scale?
    • Urine Specific Gravity
    • Evaluates renal tubular function
    • Normal: Dog - 1.018-1.045
    • Fixed:
    • Dog 1.008-1.012
    • Cat 1.008-1.015
    • Refractometer with Right Scale
  69. What is the normal Creatinine level in a dog & cat?
    What is it called if it's elevated?
    How is creatinine made?
    • Dog: 0.15-1.8mg/dl
    • Cat: 0.8-2.4mg/dl
    • Elevated: Azotemia
    • Muscle Cell Metabolism -> Creatinine -> Urine
  70. Define:
    BUN
    What is normal for a dog & cat?
    How is BUN formed?
    • Blood Urea Nitrogen
    • Dog: 7-27mg/dl
    • Cats: 16-36mg/dl
    • Protein Breakdown -> Ammonia -> Liver -> Urea -> Kidneys -> Urine
  71. Define:
    Eclampsia
    • Milk Fever
    • Occurs in lactating females
    • Decreased calcium
  72. Define:
    Hyperbilirubinemia
    What do we commonly call it?
    • Yellowish discoloration of skin & mm
    • AKA: Jaundice/icteric
  73. What is the normal PCV for a dog & cat
    • Dog: 37-55%
    • Cat: 30-45%
  74. Define:
    TP
    What is the normal for a dog & cat
    What scale of a refractometer do you read off of?
    • Total Protein
    • Dog: 5.0-7.0g/dl
    • Cats: 5.0-8.0g/dl
    • Left scale of refractometer
  75. Define:
    Azotemia
    What is Pre-Renal Azotemia, what causes it?
    What is Primary Renal Azotemia, what causes it?
    What is Post Renal Azotemia, what causes it?
    • An increase in non protein nitrogenous wastes, specifically BUN & CREAT & USG
    • Pre-Renal: Problem is Before the Kidney.
    • -Increase in BUN, Creat USG
    • -Due to Dehydration, Shock, Hypotension, CHF, Hypovolemia
    • -Increased TP, and PCV with VD

    • Primary Renal: Problem with the kidney
    • -Increased BUN, Creat, Fixed USG
    • -2/3-3/4 nephrons are non-functional
    • -Due to age, nephrotoxins, lead and arsenic, drugs snake venom

    • Post Renal: Problem after the kidney
    • -Increased BUN, Creat, USG
    • -Urinary obstruction, or rupture
    • -EMERGENCY
  76. Define:
    UA
    Urinalaysis: determines the function of the kidney and other organs
  77. Define:
    ALT
    • Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT)
    • Liver specific in dogs, cats and primates
  78. Define:
    AST
    • Asparate aminotransferase (SGOT)
    • Liver Specific
  79. Define:
    GGT
    • Gamma Glutamyltranspeptidase
    • Liver specific in large animals
  80. Define:
    Alk Phos
    • Alkaline Phosphatase
    • Produced by osteoblasts & chronroblasts
    • Depends on age
  81. What 3 types of Bilirubin are there?
    • T-Bili (Total BIlirubin): Conjugated bilirubin + unconjucated bilirubin
    • I-Bili (Indirect Bilirubin): Unconjugated bilirubin only
    • D-Bili (Direct Bilirubin): Conjugated bilirubi
  82. Describe:
    Cholesterol
    Synthesized by the liver
  83. Describe:
    Amylase & Lipase
    • Run together
    • Pancreas specific
  84. Describe:
    CK
    • Creatinine Kinase
    • Produced by striated muscle, skeletal, and cardiac msucle.
  85. Describe:
    Na
    What regulated it? What screates it?
    What is it's function?
    • Sodium
    • Regulated by Aldosterone, secreted by Adrenals
    • Acts on renal tublules to reabsorb Na and L excretion
  86. Describe:
    K
    What regulates it?
    Where is it released?
    What does it act on?
    • Potassium
    • Regulated by Aldosterone
    • Released by Adrenals
    • Acts on renal tubules and controls the reabsorption of Na and K excretion
  87. Describe:
    Cl
    What is it closely associated with?
    What is the function?
    • Associated with Na
    • Maintains water distribution, component of many secretions (HCl, tears, sweat saliva)
  88. Describe:
    Mg
    Where is it distributed in the body?
    What is the function?
    • Magnesium
    • 50% bone 50% blood
    • Important for function of enzymes, and plays a role in breakdown of acetylcholine
  89. Describe:
    Ca
    Acts on?
    Where is it distributed in the body?
    What is the function?
    • Calcium
    • Acts on renal tubules
    • 99% in bone 1% in Bloods
    • Functions in blood coagulation, function of enzymes, maintains neuromuscular excitability and tone
  90. Describe:
    Phos
    Where is it distributed in the body?
    What is the function?
    • Phosphorus
    • 80% in the Bone
    • 20% in the Blood
    • Carbohydrate breakdown, part of nucleic acids (DNA/RNA), part of phospholipids, important for energy storage, release and transfer (ATP)
  91. What is total CO2 (formula)
    CO2 + H2O <--> H2CO3 <--> H+HC03
  92. What is metabolic acidosis
    Condition causes increased H and decrease pH
  93. What is metabolic alkalosis?
    Vomiting
  94. What is blood gas analysis used for?
    What sample do you use?
    • Used to dx acid/base balance
    • Use venous blood
  95. What is it called for Respiratory acidosis
    Hypercapnea
  96. What is it called for respiratory alkalosis?
    Hyperventilation
  97. What catheter do you use for a male cat?
    Tom Cat Catheter
  98. What type of catheters can you use in dogs?
    • Red Rubber Catheter
    • Polypropylene
    • Foley
  99. What size needed for a cystocentesis? What syringe do you use?
    22ga needle 1-1.5 inch with a 6-12cc syringe
  100. What color is a U100 insulin syringe?
    Orange
  101. What color is a U40 insulin syringe?
    Red Cap
  102. What is the sulfosalicylic acid test used for?
    How is it performed?
    • Determination of protein in urine
    • Mix equal parts of urine with 3-5% sulfosalicylic acid in a clean, dry test tube
  103. How is a urine sediment preformed?
    • 1500rpm for 3-5min
    • Pour off supernatent
    • Resuspend with drop of urine

    Low light, start on 10x - final analysis on 40x

    • 10x: Casts
    • 40x: RBC, WBC, Epithelial Cells
  104. What is a normal reading on a dipstick for protein?
    0 to trace
  105. What are two differences in pH on a dipstick? What are they caused by?
    • Acidic Uring: due to high protein diets in carnivores
    • Alkaline Urine: Veggie diets
  106. Is glucose normal to see in the urine? If so what could be causing it?
    • Never normal
    • Increase: due to post-prandial, stress, fear, excitement, restraint, pancreatits, cushing dz's (hyperadrenocorticism)
  107. Are ketones normal in urine?
    Never
  108. Is bilirubin normal in urine?
    In dogs and cats its normal
  109. On a dip stick, what do the RBC indicators look like on a dipstick?
    • Green Speckled: Intact RBC's
    • Green Solid: Hgb (lysed RBC's) and myoglobin
  110. What does the nitrate indicator detect on a dipstick?
    Bacteria in urine
  111. What is more accurate?
    USG on a dipstick or refractometer?
    Refractometer
  112. For an FeLV test what test do you use, what is being detected?
    ELISA Ag Test
  113. For a Parvo test what test is used?
    Elisa Ag test
  114. For a K9 heartworm test what test is used?
    ELISA Ag test for adult female heartworms
  115. What test do you use for a FIV test?
    ELISA Ab test
  116. Define:
    DM
    • Diabetes Mellitus
    • Hyperglycemia (decreased Insulin)
  117. What is hyperadrenocorticism
    Cushing's DZ
  118. What is hypoadrenocorticism?
    Addisons DZ
  119. What species is hyperthyroidism seen in?
    Usually seen in cats
  120. Horse Dental Formula
    2(I3/3 C1/1 P3-4/3 M3/3) =40-42 teeth
  121. Horse Vertebral Formula
    C7 T18 L6 S5 Ca15-21
  122. What is considered the near side of a horse?
    Left side
  123. What is considered a far side on a horse?
    Right side
  124. What is the should joint called?
    Scapulohumeral Joint
  125. What is the elbow joint called?
    Humeroradioulnar joint
  126. What is the knee called in a horse?
    Carpus
  127. What is the stifle called in a horse?
    Femerotibial joint
  128. What is the hock called in a horse?
    Tarsus
  129. What is a fetlock called in a horse?
    • Metacarpophalangeal Joint
    • Tarsophalangeal Joint
  130. What is a pastern called in a horse?
    Proximal Interphalangeal Joint
  131. What is the coffin joint called in a horse?
    Distal interphalangeal joint
  132. What is the cannon bone called in a horse?
    Matacarpal / tarsal III
  133. What is the medial splint bone called in a horse?
    Metacarpal / tarsal II
  134. What is the lateral splint bone in a horse?
    Metacarpal/tarsal IV
  135. What is the long pastern called in a horse?
    Proximal Phalanx / PI
  136. What is the short pastern called in a horse?
    Middle Phalanx / PII
  137. What is the coffin bone called in the horse?
    Distal phalanx / PIII
  138. What is the digital sesamoid bone called in a horse?
    Navicular Bone
  139. What are the 3 points on a horses neck included in the triangle where to give IM injections?
    • Nuchal Ligament
    • Cervical Verterbrae
    • Scapula
  140. What is a normal MM/CRT?
    <2 sec, Pale Pink
  141. Acepromazine
    Promace
  142. Diphenhydramine
    Benadryl
  143. Butorphanol
    Torbugesic
  144. Carprofen
    Rimadyl
  145. Enrofloxacin
    Baytril
  146. Fluxnin Meglumide
    Banamine
  147. Carrenia
    Anti-emetic
  148. Furosemide
    • Lasix
    • Loop diuretic
  149. Ampicillin/Sulbactam
    • Unasyn
    • Antibiotic
  150. Tepoxalin
    • Zubrin
    • NSAID
  151. Methylprednisolone
    Depo Medrol
  152. Acetaminophen
    Tylenol
  153. Diazepam
    Valium
  154. Fentanyl
    • Sublimaze
    • Duragesic
  155. Hydromorphone
    Dilaudid
  156. Naloxone
    Narcan
  157. Epinephrine
    Adrenalin
  158. Xylazine
    Reversal:
    • Rompun
    • Reversal: Yohimbine
  159. Medetomidine
    Alpha 2 Agonist/sedative
  160. Methimazole
    Tapazole
  161. Phenylbutazone
    Butazolidin "bute"
  162. Glucasamine & Chondroitin
    Cosequin
  163. Metronidazole
    Flagyl
  164. Metaclopramide
    Reglan
  165. Ibuprofen
    Advil/Motrin
  166. Deracoxib
    Deramaxx
  167. Fenbendazole
    Panacur
  168. PRaziquantel
    Doncit
  169. Prednisolone Sodium Succinate
    Solu-Delta Cortef
  170. Firocoxib
    Previcox
  171. Cimitedine
    Tagamet
  172. Clindamycin
    Antirobe
  173. Ciprofoxacin
    Cipro
  174. Amoxicillin Trihydrate & Clavulante
    Clavamox
  175. Ivermectin
    Heartguard
  176. Milbemycin Oxime
    Interceptor
  177. Define:
    Limits
    Areas you can see on a radiograph
  178. Define:
    Landmarks
    Areas you can palpate
  179. Five Densities
    • Air
    • Fat
    • Tissues of H20
    • Bone
    • Metal/Enamel
  180. What does an overexposed radiograph look like?
    • Too dark
    • Decrease technique
  181. What does an underexposed radiograph look like?
    • Too Light
    • Increase technique
  182. What is an OFA radiograph for?
    • Orthopedic Foundation for Animals
    • Must have 2 radiographs
    • Must be 2 years or older
    • Limits: Stifles to wings of ilium
  183. What is an PenHip?
    • Pennsylvania Hip Improvement Program
    • Not as many requirements
    • Hips ONLY
  184. Describe:
    FHO
    Femoral Head Osteotomy
  185. How do you hang the following radiographs?
    Extremeties
    Lateral Body Cavity
    DV/VD Body Cavities
    • Extremities
    • -Proximal bones to the top
    • -Distal bones to the bottom
    • -Joint above and below

    • Lateral Body Cavity
    • -Dorsal aspct ot the top
    • -Head to the L
  186. DV/VD Body Cavities
    • Cranial portion to the top
    • Caudal portion to the bottom
    • Pts right to our left
  187. Which kidney is lower on the body wall?
    Left Kidney
  188. Describe:
    KVP
    Kilovoltage Power
  189. Describe:
    MAS
    Milliamperage x seconds (time)
  190. Describe:
    Bucky Tray
    • Grid
    • Used to decrease backscatter
    • Used with body cavities >10cm
  191. Describe:
    FFD
    • Focal Film Distance
    • Normal machine
    • 40 inches
  192. Define: Radiolucent
    • Shows up black
    • Air
  193. Define:
    Radiopaque
    • Shows up white
    • Barium
  194. What causes FeLV?
    What is it?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    How is it diagnosed?
    • Retroviridae
    • Viral disease of cats that causes bone marrow and immune system suppression and can cause neoplasias.
    • Transmitted: Secretions, In utero/colostrum, acquire as a kitten
    • Vaccine Available
    • CS: Anemia, Leukopenia, Neurologic signs
    • DX: ELISA ag test in blood and bone marrow & IFA ag test in blood only
  195. What causes FIV?
    What is it?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    What phases?
    How is it diagnosed?
    Is there a treatment?
    • Retrovirus
    • Feline Immunodeficiency VIrus
    • Transmitted: By bites - saliva
    • Vaccine Available
    • CS: Older male cats, rough play, outdoor cat
    • Phases: Acute: Generalized Lymphandenomegaly Latent: Can last a long time, nonsymptomatic, Chronic: stomatitis, diarrhea
    • DX: ELISA ab test
    • TX: No treatment
  196. What causes FIP?
    What is it?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    • Coronaviridae
    • Feline Infectious Peritonitis; Highly fatal disease of cats that produces a granulomatous reaction
    • Transmitted: Ingestion or inhalation of virus shed in feces or saliva
    • Vaccine Available
  197. What causes Feline Panleukopenia?
    What is it?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is it zoonotic?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    How is it diagnosed?
    What is the treatment?
    • Parvoviridae
    • Decrease in all WBC, can cause neurological signs in kitten. Viral disease causing serious gastroenteritis.
    • Transmitted: Secretions, feces, can cross placenta, fomites
    • Zoonotic: Not
    • Vaccine Available
    • CS: Kittens: 3-5 months old, unvaccinated cats, fever, V/D, Transplacental
    • DX: Blood work, canine ELISA parvo test
    • TX: Aggressive supportive therapy
  198. What causes Feline Upper Respiratory Tract Disease? (Viral and Bacterial)
    What is it?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is it zoonotic?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    How is it treated?
    • Feline Upper Respiratory Tract Disease
    • Viral: Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis; Herpes Virus (FHV-1) - Vaccine Available - Fragile Virus
    • Feline Calici Virus: Caliciviridae - can last in environment for several days
    • Bacterial: Chlamydia: Chlamydophilia felis - bacterin available
    • Trasmitted: Direct contact; fomites, 80-90% cats are carriers.
    • Viral is Not zoonotic Bacterial is Zoonotic
    • Vaccine Available
    • CS: cat has a cold, anorexia, ocular/nasal discharge, fever
    • TX: Supportive care, oral antibiotics for secondary infection
  199. What causes Canine Distemper?
    What is the common name?
    What is it?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    What is the treatment?
    • Paramyxoviridae morbillivirus
    • Hard Pads Dz
    • Highly contagious viral disease.
    • Transmitted: Aerosol, body secretions, placenta
    • Vaccine: Available
    • CS: Pneumonia, respiratory problems, GI, CNS (systemic disease), chewing gum seizures, enamel hypoplasia, hard pads and nose (+/- pustular dermatitis)
    • TX: supportive therapy, may see old dog encephalopathy
  200. What causes Canine Parvo Virus?
    What is it?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    How is it diagnosed?
    What is the treatment?
    • Parvoviridae
    • Common cause of infectious enteritis in the dog
    • Transmitted: Fecal oral route, spread via feces and vomit
    • Vaccine: Available
    • Clinical Signs: Young unvaccinated puppies, febrile, lethargic, v/d (bloody and smelly), hypoglycemic, electrolyte imbalance
    • DX: ELISA test
    • TX: Aggressive supportive therapy
  201. Define:
    HGE
    Hemorrhagic Gastroenteritis
  202. What causes Canine Infectious Hepatitis (CAV-1)?
    What is it?
    Is it zoonotic?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    How is it diagnosed?
    • Canine Adenovirus Type 1
    • Multisystemic viral dz which effects the liver of dogs and foxes. Localized in the liver and kidneys
    • Not zoonotic
    • Transmitted: oronasal route (urine, feces, saliva), ectoparasites, fomites, virus shed in urine for 6-12 months
    • Vaccine: Available
    • CS: Young dogs, seizures, ataxia, head pressing, blindness, eye problems, DIC, organ failure = death, corneal edema "blue eyes", sudden death, inapparent form- pharyngitis, laryngitis. Chronic Form: Pyelonephritis, Chronic hepatitis. Acute Form: Acute hepatoencephalopathy.
    • TX: Supportive therapy
  203. What causes Canine Caronavirus?
    Caronaviridae
  204. What causes Kennel Cough? (Viral and Bacterial)
    What is it?
    Is it zoonotic?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    How is it diagnosed?
    How is it treated?
    • Bacterial: bordetella bronchiseptica, mycoplasma (rare)
    • Viral: Canine herpesvirus, Canine Adenovirus type 2, Canine Parainfluenze
    • Not zoonotic
    • Transmitted: aerosolization, vectors, fomites
    • Vaccination Available
    • CS: A dry hacking cough, all breeds, all ages
    • DX: Trachael palpation
    • TX: Self limiting dz, antibiotics (bacterial), Anti-tussives, bronchodilators, corticosteroids
  205. What causes Canine Leptospirosis
    What is it?
    What are the 4 main serovars?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are the phases?
    How is it diagnosed?
    What is the treatment?
    • Leptospira interrogans
    • Bacterian disease of warm blooded animals that effects kidneys and liver.
    • Serovars: icterohemorrhagia, canicola, pomona, grippotyphosa
    • Transmitted: Through urine abraded skin or mm, oral ingestion of urine contaminated food and water, venereal (common in horses), placental, fomites
    • Bacterin Vaccine Available
    • Phases: Acute: lasts about a week, no cs, blood test to dx. Convalescent: usually lasts about 2 weeks, bacteria remains in kidneys, cs come and go, urine and blood tests to dx Chronic: bacteria shed in urine, chronic problems with nephritis, active hepatitis, and uveitis
    • DX: ELISA test
    • TX: Antibiotics, supportive therapy
  206. What causes Rabies?
    What is it?
    Is it zoonotic?
    How is it transmitted?
    Is there a vaccination available?
    What are clinical signs?
    What is pre-exposure vaccination?
    What is post-exposure vaccination? If Exposed (Unvaccinated, Vaccinated, Human) || If Animal bites human
    What are 3 stages of infection?
    How is it diagnosed?
    • Rhabdoviridae
    • Acute viral neurological dz of all warm blooded mammals, causes encephalitis.
    • Zoonotic: yes
    • Transmitted: Bites, scratches, abrasions open wounds, mm, aerosol
    • Vaccine Available
    • CS: behavior changes, agreesion, progressive paralysis, death, bite/scratch from infected animal or wild animal
    • Pre-exposure Vaccination: must be given by vet, 3-4 months of age then every year or every 3 years, dogs cats ferrets livestock horses, vaccinate domestic animals, remove stray unwanted animals, regulate international or interstate movement, adjunct procedure, limit exposure to wildlife.
    • Post-exposure Vaccination:
    • EXPOSED
    • Unvaccinated: Euthanize immediately, strict isolation for 6 months - vaccinate immediately
    • Vaccinated: revaccinate immediately, owner should control and observe for 45 days
    • Human: immediately cleanse wounds, notify local health department, notify family doctor or go to ER
    • ANIMAL BITES HUMAN
    • If biter is healthy animal: confine and observe for 10 days, do not vaccinate, signs occur - euthanize
    • If biter is another species: contact local health department, depends on species and circumstance of bite
    • Stages of Infection
    • PRODROMAL: last 2-3 days, change in behavior or temperment, pupils dilate, third eyelid visible, lick site of bite, Biggest rick to humans
    • EXCITATIVE: hypersensitivity to external stimuli, bites everything, very aggressive, wander and roam
    • PARALYTIC/DUMB: 2-4 days after first clinical signs, ataxic/paralyzed, have dropped jaw, drool, change in vocal sounds, act like they are chocking
    • DEATH: 2-7 days after cs, d/t paralysis of respiratory muscles, dz shut down brain center
    • DX: Brain tissue sample, IFA test
  207. With an animal that is believed to have rabies, what is the process for diagnosis?
    • Wear protection when handling head. Entire head must be removed from body.
    • Do not freeze the head to ship. Double bag, leak proof container, label as BIOHAZARD/RABIES SAMPLE/SUSPECT
  208. Define:
    PEP
    Define HDCV and RIG
    • Post Exposure Prophylaxis
    • HDCV
    • Active immunity, seven injections over a months time, IM
    • RIG
    • Passive immunity, provides immediate protection, IV, injected into bite site
  209. What is:
    Papillomatosis
    • Benign tumor of young dogs.
    • Proliferative masses
    • Occures anywhere in/on the oral cavity
    • Virus
    • No TX
  210. What is:
    Epulis
    • Benign tumor of dogs
    • Pedunculated
    • Single or clusters on gingiva
    • Firm solid mass
    • Common in boxers
    • TX: sx removal
  211. What is:
    Malignant Melanoma
    • Malignant tumor on gingival or lip
    • Black/Brown in color
    • #1 oral tumor in dogs
    • Signs: old dogs, black dogs with black gums, more common in males than females
    • TX: wide sx excision
  212. What is:
    Squamous Cell Carcinoma
    • #1 malignant oral tumor in cats
    • #2 in dogs
    • Raised ulcer on lateral surface of the tongue or the tonsils
    • TX: Poor prognosis
  213. What is:
    Fibrosarcoma
    • #2 in Cats
    • #3 in Dogs
    • Large breed young dogs
    • Older cats
    • Ulcerative mass on gingiva
  214. What is:
    Salivary Gland Cyst
    • Sialocele
    • Accumulation of saliva in salivary gland
    • Signs: swelling under neck, usually unilateral
    • TX: Aspirate with 22ga needle periodic drainage
  215. Define:
    CPCR
    What are the ABCD's
    What recumbancy do you want your patient in?
    • Cardiopulmonary Cerebrovascular Resusitation
    • A: Airway
    • B: Breathing:
    • C: Circulation
    • D: Drugs/Defibrillation
    • Right lateral
  216. What is the normal sulcus debth for dogs and cats?
    • Dogs: 1-3mm
    • Cats: 0-1mm
  217. Define:
    Brachynathism
    • Severe Overbite
    • "Parrot Mouth"
  218. Define:
    Prognathism
    • Sever underbite
    • "Undershot jaw"
    • Brachycephalics
  219. What are the 4 layers of the heart?
    • Pericardium
    • Epicardium
    • Myocardium
    • Endocarium
  220. What is the blood flow of the heart?
    R Atrium -> R AV Valve -> R Ventricle -> Pulmonary Valve -> Pulmonary Arteries -> LUNGS (oxygenated) -> Pulmonary Veins -> L Atrium -> Left AV Valve -> Left Ventricle -> Aortic Valve -> Aorta -> Body
  221. Define:
    Systole
    • Contraction of the ventricles
    • Pulmonary and Aortic Valves Open
    • AV Valves: Closed
  222. Define:
    Diastole
    • Period of ventricular relaxation
    • AV valves open
    • Pulmonary and aortic valves closed
  223. Describe the following Murmurs:
    I:
    II:
    III:
    IV:
    V:
    VI:
    • I: Soft localized, never hear this
    • II: Soft, low mumur, may be heard immediately
    • III: Low-moderate, head over fairly large area, most commonly heard
    • IV: Moderate - loud heard over most of the heart, no pericardial thrill
    • V: Loud mumur with percardial thrill
    • VI: Audible without sethoscope
  224. What color and breed is this horse?
    Chestnut Quarter Horse
  225. What color is this horse?
    Palomino
  226. What color is this horse?
    Buckskin
  227. What color is this horse?
    Roan
  228. What color is this horse? What is the marking on its back?
    • Dun
    • Dorsal Stripe
  229. What color is this horse?
    Black
  230. What color is this horse?
    Gray
  231. What color is this horse?
    Bay
  232. What are the following facial markings?




    • Star
    • Snip
    • Stripe
    • Blaze
    • Bald Face
  233. What breed is this?

    Belgian
  234. What breed is this horse?
    Tennessee Walking Horse
  235. What cow breed is this?
    Is it a beef or dairy cow?
    • Holstein
    • Dairy Cow
  236. What cow breed is this?
    Is it a beef or dairy cow?
    • Texas Longhorn
    • Beef Cow
  237. What cow breed is this?
    Is it a beef or dairy cow?
    • Charolais
    • Beef Cow
  238. What cow breed is this?
    Is it a beef or dairy cow?
    • Black Angus
    • Beef Cow
  239. What cow breed is this?
    Is it a beef or dairy cow?
    • Jersey Cow
    • Dairy Cow

  240. _____________________________
    Rate:
    Causesa:
    TX:
    • Sinus Bradycardia
    • Rate: <70 BPM
    • Causes: Vomiting, Renal Failure, Hyperkalemia
    • TX: Atropine, Glycopyrrolate

  241. ______________________________
    Rate:
    Cause:
    TX:
    • Sinus Tachycardia
    • Rate: >160 BPM
    • Cause: Shock, CHF, Hypoxia
    • TX: Digoxin for CHF
    • Lidocaine for excitement to sedate

  242. ______________________________
    Normal In:
    Pathological In:
    Cause:
    • Sinus Arrythmia
    • Normal In: Dogs & Horses
    • Pathological In: Cats
    • Causes: Increased rates during expiration, and slower rates during inhalation.

  243. ______________________________
    Causes:
    Signs:
    TX:
    • Ventricular Premature Complex (VPC)
    • Causes: Cardiomyopathy, Valve Disease, Feline hyperthyroidism, neoplasia, hypoxia (GDV)
    • Signs: Exercise intolerance, weakness, syncope, pulse¬†deficits, sudden death.
    • TX: Dogs- Lidocaine Cats-Procainimide

  244. ______________________________
    Def:
    • Begeminy
    • Pattern alternating 2+ VPC's in a row.

  245. ______________________________
    Clinical Signs:
    Rate:
    TX:
    • Ventricular Tachycardia
    • C/S: Life threatening, converts to ventricular fibrillation
    • Rate: >150BPM
    • TX: Dogs-Lidocaine, Cats-Procainimide (CRI)

  246. ______________________________
    Criteria:
    Causes:
    TX:
    • Ventricular Fibrillation
    • Criteria: No Pulse
    • Causes: Severe systemic illness, shock, trauma, cardiac surgery, anesthetic reaction, severe hypothermia, untreated V-Tach
    • TX: 1. Electrocardioadversion (defibrillate)
    • 2. Anti-arrythmics

  247. ______________________________
    Def:
    Causes:
    TX:
    • Ventricular Asystole
    • Def: Absence of pacemaker impulses, no pulse, no ventricular contraction
    • Causes: hyperkalemia, cardiac disease, severe systemic illness
    • TX: CPCR, Epinephrine, Atropine

  248. ______________________________
    Crit:
    Causes:
    TX:
    • Atrial Fibrillation
    • Crit: Flutter waves
    • Causes: Atrial enlargement, dialated cardiomyopathy
    • TX: Digoxin, quinidine

  249. __________________
    Def:
    P Waves:
    Rate:
    Causes:
    TX:
    • Atrial Standstill
    • Def: Absence of P waves, with regular escape beat
    • Rate: <60 BPM, slow pacemaker (40-60 BPM)
    • Causes: Hyperkalemia, Cardiomyopathy
    • TX: Hyperkalemia: NaCl Fluids
    • Pacemaker surgery

  250. ______________________________
    Definition:
    Causes:
    TX:
    • 1st Degree AV Block
    • Definition: Delay in conduction. (Between P wave and QRS complex)
    • Causes: Older patient, hypothyroidism

  251. _______________________________
    Definition:
    Common In:
    TX:
    • 2nd Degree AV Block
    • Definition: 1 or more P waves now followed by a QRS complex.
    • Common In: Horses due to vagal tone
    • TX: Atropine, Anti-cholenergic (as needed)

  252. ______________________________
    Def:
    Causes:
    TX:
    • 3rd Degree AV Block
    • Definition: Impulse is completely blocked, all P waves are constant and occuring at normal intervals.
    • Causes: Congenital, Cardiomyopathy, Digitalis toxicity
    • TX: Pacemaker SX
  253. What is this seen on a UA?
    Seen is the ____________ 1/3 of _________, __________, _________, __________
    • Squamous Epithelial Cells
    • Seen in distal 1/3 of urethra, vagina, vulva, prepuce
  254. What is this seen on a UA?
    Where are they located?
    What can an increased number indicate?
    • Transitional Epithelial Cells
    • Line bladder, ureters, renal pelvis, and proximal part of the urethra
    • Increased: Inflammation
  255. What is this seen on a UA?
    Where are these cell originated?
    • Renal Tubular Epithelial Cells
    • Renal Tubules
  256. What is this seen on a UA?
    What range is normal? (/hpf)
    What condition is there these cells with no bacteria?
    • WBC
    • Normal: >5/hpf
    • Blocked Toms
  257. What is this seen on a UA?
    What is the normal range (/hpf)?
    What collection methods do we see these?
    What pH preserves them better?
    • RBC
    • Normal: <5/hpf
    • Collection: Cysto, catheter, manual expression
    • pH: Acidic
  258. What is this seen on a UA?
    Bacteria
  259. What is this seen on a UA?
    Fat Droplets
  260. What is this seen on a UA?
    What is the common name?
    Is this formed in acidic or alkaline urine?
    What is the treatment?
    • Triple Phosphate
    • Struvites
    • Alkaline Urine
    • Make urine more acidic with diet
  261. What is this seen on a UA?
    What species is this normal in?
    Is this formed in acidic or alkaline urine?
    What is the treatment?
    Can this be pathogenic? If so for what?
    • Calcium Oxalate Dihydrate
    • Dogs, Cats, sometimes horses
    • Form in acidic to slightly alkaline urine
    • TX: Make urine more alkaline with diet
    • Pathogenic for urolithiasis and ethylene glycol toxicity

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