Sm animal exam 3

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  1. Previous name of Guaifenesin
    GGE (glycerol guaiacolate ether)
  2. Uses of Guaifenesin
    • Skeletal muscle relaxation
    • Facilitate intubation 
    • Ease induction and recovery
  3. T/F Guaifenesin can cause perivascular tissue irritation
  4. What does the common induction combination known as "triple drip" consist of?
    • Guaifenesin
    • Ketamine
    • Xylazine
  5. Why is it important to premedicate when using Guaifenesin?
    It does not have analgesic or anesthetic properties
  6. Diethyl ether
    • no longer used
    • tracheal and bronchial mucosal irritation
    • prolonged induction and recovery
    • post op nausea and vomiting
    • flammable, explosive
  7. Isoflurane and sevoflurane are _______ compounds
  8. Mixture of iso/sevo and O2 is delivered to the patient via _____ or _______.
    • mask
    • ET tube
  9. The diffusion rate of halogenated anesthetics is dependent on ________ (alveoli/capillary) and _____________.
    • concentration gradient
    • lipid solubility
  10. Distrubution of inhalant anesthetic to tissues is dependent on ______ ________.
    blood supply
  11. Depth of anesthesia is dependent on ________ _______ of anesthetic in the brain
    partial pressure
  12. Effects of halogenated inhalants:
    • dose dependent, reversible depression, hypothermia
    • depressant
    • dose dependent ventilation depression
  13. Adverse effects of halogenated inhalants:
    • Increased intracranial pressure with head tramua/tumors
    • Decrease BP and renal blood flow
    • hyppoventilation, CO2 retention, respiratory acidosis
  14. Tendency of an inhalation anesthetic to vaporize to its gaseous state.
    Vapor pressure
  15. T/F: temp can have and effect on the vapor pressure of inhalant anesthetics.
  16. Isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane, and halothane are examples of volatile agents and have _____ vapor pressure.
  17. Which inhalation anesthetic is an example of a nonvolatile agent?
  18. Measure of the solubility of an inhalation anesthetic in blood as compared to air
    Blood:Gas partition coefficent
  19. agent is more soluble in alveolar gas than in blood at equilibrium.
    Low blood:gas partition coefficent
  20. MAC
    • minimum alveolar concentration
    • measure of the potency of a drug
  21. Iso is approved for use in what species?
    dogs and horses
  22. Iso induces ______ to ______ muscle relaxation and provides _______ or _____ analgesia after anesthesia.
    • adequate to good
    • little or no
  23. what inhalation agent has the lowest blood:gas partition coefficent, producing the fastest induction and recovery.
  24. Doxapram is an _______ agent. May be used in neonates after a c-section as a drop on the tounge.
    analeptic, stimulates respiration
  25. T/F: Doxapram lowers the seizure threshold
  26. What are some monitoring parameters or vital signs to regulate anesthetic depth?
    • HR
    • Heart rhythm
    • Respiratory rate and depth
    • MM color
    • CRT
    • Pulse strength
    • BP
    • temp
  27. Ideally, the patient should be at a depth that provides:
    • immobility
    • lack of awareness of pain
    • unconsciousness
  28. avoid the "4 H's"
    • hypoventilation
    • hypoxemia
    • hypotension
    • hypothermia
  29. Swallowing reflex:
    medium (surgical)
    • present in light anesthesia
    • lost in surgical anesthesia
    • returns just before regaining consciousness
  30. Palpebral reflex:
    • present
    • often lost in surgical anesthesia
  31. Pedal reflex:
    • present
    • absent
  32. Corneal reflex is most useful in large animal, 
    present in light to medium, absent in deep or excessive anesthesia
  33. PLR:
    present in light and medium, absent in deep
  34. Other indicators of anesthetic depth
    • spontaneous movement
    • muscle tone
    • eye position
    • pupil size
    • nystagmus
    • salivary and lacrimal secretions
  35. Describe stage I of anesthesia:
    • voluntary movement, begins to lose consciousness
    • increased HR and respiration
    • ends with recumbancy
  36. Describe stage II
    • excitement stage
    • irregular breathing
    • vocalization, struggling,paddling
    • increased HR and respiration
    • pupils dialated
  37. Stage III plane I
    • "light surgical anesthesia" 
    • not suitable for surgery
    • eyes rotated ventrally
    • ET tube may be passed
    • pupils partially constricted 
    • decreased PLR
  38. Stage III plane 2
    • "medium" surgical anesthesia
    • optimum depth for sx
    • regular and shallow respiration with decreased rate
    • BP and HR mildly decreased
    • relaxed muscle tone
    • pedal and swallowing reflexes absent
    • ventromedial eye rotation
    • PLR sluggish
  39. Stage III plane 3
    • "deep" surgical anesthesia
    • excessive
    • low HR and respiration
    • reduced pulse strength
    • increased CRT
    • poor to absent PLR
    • central eyeballs
    • moderately dialated pupils
    • reflexes absent
    • very relaxed muscle tone
  40. Stage III plane 4
    • "early anesthetic OD"
    • too deep
    • abdominal breathing
    • fully dialated pupils
    • marked depression of cardiovascular system
    • pale MM's
    • flaccid muscle tone
  41. Stage IV
    • cessation of respiration
    • circulatory collapse
    • death
  42. Objectives of surgical anesthesia
    • doesn't move
    • isn't aware
    • doesn't feel pain
    • no memory of procedure
  43. HR rhythm, pulse strength, CRT, mm color and BP are indicators of __________
  44. MM color, CRT, hemoglobin saturation, inspired CO2, arterial blood oxygen are indicators of _____________
  45. Respiration, depth, breath sounds, and expired CO2 levels, and arterial CO2 are indicators of ________
  46. Systolic pressure is produced by what?
    contraction of the left ventricle
  47. Diastolic pressure is produced by what?
    pressure that remains in the arteries when the heart is in the resting phase between contractions
  48. Normal BP in dog or cat
    • Systolic: up to 140-160 mmHg
    • Diastolic: < 90 mmHg
  49. MAP (mean arterial pressure) < ____ indicates decreased organ perfusion.
  50. What peripheral arteries can be palpated to estimate pulse strength?
    • lingual
    • dorsal
    • pedal
    • femoral
    • carotid
    • facial
    • aural
  51. MM color is a rough assessment of:
    • oxygenation 
    • tissue perfusion
  52. blood gas analyzers can measure:
    partial pressure
  53. pulse oximeters measure
    oxygen saturation
  54. SpO2
    • normal
    • hypoxemic
    • therapy required
    • emergency
  55. In reflective probes, the sensor and light source are located where?
    next to each other
  56. Ventilation
    movement of gas in and out of the alveoli
  57. Respiration
    oxygen is supplied to and used by the tissues and CO2 is eliminated from the tissues
  58. Tidal volume
    amount of inhaled air during a breath
  59. Hypoventilation is shallow breathing and can lead to _________, can be reversed by _________  ________
    • atelectasis
    • gentle bagging
  60. Hyperventilation is ________ _______ _______ and can be caused by _________ or ________ ________.
    • increased tidal volume
    • hypercapnea or surgical stimulation
  61. Apneustic 
    pause between inspiration and expiration
  62. The two types of capnographs include:
    • mainstream
    • sidestream
  63. What could be the reason for an elevated baseline reading on a capnogram?
    patient is rebreathing CO2 or the sensor is contaminated.
  64. List methods of avoiding hypothermia in an anesthetized patient.
    • avoid cold prep, sx rooms
    • barrier between patient and table top
    • warm fluids
    • warm water blanket
    • warm air blanket
    • warmed fluids for abdominal cavity flush
  65. Vet tech's role in controlling pain consists of:
    • pain physiology
    • pain associated behaviors
    • assessment tools
    • analgesic drug pharmacology
    • communication with VIC
  66. Nociception
    detection by the nervous system for potential or actual tissue injury, protects the animal from painful or noxious stimuli
  67. physiologic pain
    • ouch pain
    • little/no injury
  68. pathologic pain
    • follows tissue injury
    • acute/chronic
  69. Pathologic pain classification is based on the mechanisms, can also be based on _______,_______
    • inflammatory- post trauma/sx
    • neuropathic
    • cancer
    • idiopathic
    • origin and severity of pain
  70. Steps in the pain pathway
    • transduction
    • transmission
    • modulation
    • perception
  71. Transduction
    • transformation of stimuli into sensory electrical signals. stimuli may be thermal, chemical or mechanical
    • action potentials by A delta and C fibers
  72. Transmission
    sensory impulses conducted to spinal cord
  73. Modulation
    impulses are either amplified or supressed
  74. Perception
    impulses are transmitted to the brain 
  75. consequences of untreated pain
    • peripheral tissue tramua
    • production of mediators from damaged cells
    • attracts inflammatory cells
    • lowers pain threshold of peripheral pain receptors
    • windup
  76. Physiologic changes caused by pain
    • ACTH release
    • elevated cortisol, norepi, eip
    • decreased insulin, continued wasting
    • cardiac arrythmias
    • vasoconstriction
    • increased myocardial work
  77. "the five freedoms"
    • free from:
    • hunger and thirst
    • discomfort
    • disease
    • injury
    • pain
  78. anthropomorphosis
    projecting human emotions onto animals
  79. Physical evidence of pain can include:
    • changes in gait or level of activity
    • reluctance to lie down or constantly shifing position
    • vocalization
    • changes in facial expressions, appearence and attitude
  80. Pain assessment tools
    • verbal rating 
    • simple descriptive
    • numeric
    • visual analouge
    • comrehensive
Card Set:
Sm animal exam 3
2013-11-13 04:31:31

Exam 3
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