Micro 1st semester 2013

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  1. Describe the colour (in a Gram stained smear) of Gram positive and Gram negativebacteria, respectively!
    • Gram positives: dark blue/purple
    • Gram negatives: red/pink
  2. Describe the 3 important parts of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide!
    lipid A + core polysaccharide + O-specific (polysaccharide) side chain
  3. Which 2 roles are attributed to bacterial pili (fimbriae)?
    adhesion; conjugation (sex fimbriae)
  4. Mention a bacterium and its virulence factor that is encoded by a lysogenic bacteriophage!
    • Corynebacterium diphtheriae – diphtheria toxin
    • Streptococcus pyogenes – erythrogenic toxin
  5. Specify 2 genera containing obligate intracellular pathogens!
    Chlamydia, Rickettsia
  6. Mention at least 5 possible transmission ways of infections!
    • respiratory droplets (infectious aerosol)
    • faecal-oral
    • direct contact (such as sexual)
    • fomites (inanimate objects)
    • blood
    • vectors (blood-sucking arthropods)
  7. List the possible shapes of bacteria. Write one example per category.
    • coccus (spherical): Staphylococcus, Streptococcus
    • rod: Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Gram negative rods
    • curved rod: Vibrio
    • helical: Spirochetes (Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira)
  8. What are the essential components of bacterial cells? Specify at least 3!
    cytoplasm, nucleoid (genome), cell membrane, (cell wall)
  9. What is a vector? Write an example!
    • Vector is an arthropod that transmits infection from human to human, or from animal to human
    • examples. tick – Lyme disease; louse – epidemic typhus; mosquito – malaria
  10. What is a reservoir? Write an example!
    • The normal host of a pathogen (human or animal) serving as a continuous source of infection to other hosts (such as humans).
    • Salmonella typhi – human; Yersinia pestis - rodents
  11. Mention 3 reliable methods of sterilization!
    autoclaving, hot air oven, gamma-radiation, filtration (fluids), gas sterilisation

    (not acceptable: boiling, pasteurisation, UV!)
  12. Mention 5 groups of disinfectants!
    • alcohols
    • aldehydes (alkylating agents)
    • phenol derivatives
    • detergents
    • chlorine + iodine = oxidising agents
  13. Mention a group of antimicrobial drugs that acts on the bacterial ribosome and usuallyhas bactericidal effect!
  14. Describe precisely what toxoid means!
    Inactivated bacterial exotoxin that is not toxic but immunogenic
  15. Mention 2 broad-spectrum (effective against both Gram positive and Gram negativebacteria) penicillin derivatives.
    ampicillin, amoxicillin, piperacillin, azlocillin, mezlocillin
  16. Mention an antifungal and an antibacterial drug that alter the function of the cellmembrane!
    antifungal: Amphotericin B, azoles; antibacterial: polymyxins
  17. What are the possible mechanisms of acquired penicillin resistance of bacteria? Mention at least 3 mechanisms!
    • 1. beta-lactamase production
    • 2. PBP (target) alteration
    • 3. reduced permeability
    • 4. active efflux
  18. Mention a drug belonging to macrolides!
    erythromycin, spiramycin, roxithromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin
  19. Mention 2 drugs belonging to aminoglycosides!
    streptomycin, gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin…
  20. Mention 2 groups of antimicrobial drugs that act on the 30 S subunit of the bacterialribosome!
    aminoglycosides, tetracyclines
  21. Mention 3 groups of antibacterial drugs inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis!
    penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams, glycopeptides
  22. Which part of the bacterial cell carries the endotoxin?
    Outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria
  23. What role is attributed to the bacterial capsule in the infectious process?
    antiphagocytic effect, adhesion
  24. Mention 2 infectious diseases that are transmitted to humans by tick bites!
    tick-borne encephalitis; Lyme-disease; tularemia; Rocky-Mountain spotted fever; recurrent fever (Borrelia recurrentis) etc.
  25. Which type of hypersensitivity is involved in the tuberculin test?
    late type (type IV)
  26. Mention 2 bacterial infectious diseases that can be prevented or treated by passivetransfer of specific immunoglobulins!
    • prevention: tetanus
    • treatment: diphtheria, botulism, tetanus
  27. What do the vaccine(s) against diphtheria and tetanus contain?
    Diphtheria and tetanus toxoid
  28. What does the vaccine against pertussis contain?
    • Previously: killed bacteria
    • Currently: acellular vaccine (toxoid + other purified proteins)
  29. What does the vaccine against tuberculosis (BCG) contain?
    live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis (Bacille Calmette-Guerin)
  30. What is the nature of antigen in the vaccines used to prevent infections by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitidis?
    capsular polysaccharide (either alone or conjugated to a carrier protein)
  31. Mention 2 bacterial exotoxins that are neurotoxic!
    tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin
  32. Specify the 4 groups of bacterial vaccines according to the nature of the antigen!
    • a., live, attenuated vaccines
    • b., killed bacterial vaccines
    • c., toxoid vaccines
    • d., subunit vaccines (capsular polysaccharide or purified protein)
  33. What is the mechanism of action of lysozyme? Where is lysozyme found in the host?
    It destroys bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan by hydrolysing the glycosyl bonds between NAM (N-acetylmuramicacid) and NAG (N-acetylglucosamine). It occurs in tear, saliva, respiratory secretions.
  34. Which Gram negative organelles or structures are associated with the O, H and K antigens, respectively?
    O- LPS, H-flagella, K-capsule
  35. Mention 2 bacterial exotoxins that act by ADP ribosylation!
    Diphtheria toxin, cholera toxin, pertussis toxin
  36. Describe the rules of collecting native urine for culturing bacteria! Describe also the conditions for keeping the specimen before sending it to the laboratory!
    A midstream specimen, taken preferably in the morning, after thorough cleaning of the external genital area. Keep it up to 1 h at room temperature or up to 24 h at +4°C.
  37. Describe the rules of collecting hemoculture specimens!
    It is recommended to obtain 3 specimens (with at least 30 min. between the specimens). The specimens should be preferably taken before fever spikes (during rising fever), from fresh peripheral venipuncture sites. If possible, both aerobic and anaerobic bottles should be used (3 x 2 bottles altogether). The site of venipuncture and the plug of the bottle containing the medium must be properly disinfected. The amount of blood injected to the bottle should be about 10 % of the liquid medium.
  38. Mention two clinical specimens that are heavily contaminated with bacteria belonging to the normal body flora!
    throat and nasal secretions, faeces, vaginal secretions.
  39. Mention at least three of the physiological effects of septic shock (characterized by the presence of large amount of bacterial endotoxin in the blood)!
    fever, hypotension, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), complement activation, impaired organ perfusion, hypoglycaemia
  40. What pathogenic role is attributed to lysogenic conversion?
    Lysogenic conversion: transfer of genes from one bacterium to another by lysogenic bacteriophages. The bacteria may gain exotoxins (diphtheria toxin, Streptococcus pyogenes erythrogenic toxin), or the structure of LPS epitopes may be altered (Shigella, Salmonella).
  41. Describe the principle of acid fast staining procedures!
    Mycobacteria contain a high amount of special lipids called mycolic acids. They can bestained by hot carbol-fuchsin, but they resist decolourisation with acid-alcohol, so they remain red. All other cells are stained blue by the counter stain (methylene blue).
  42. Mention 2 non-essential bacterial organelles that enhance bacterial virulence! Describe how their function contributes to pathogenicity!
    • Capsule: antiphagocytic effect, adhesion to tissues
    • Fimbriae: binding to tissues
    • Flagellae: spreading the bacteria
  43. Mention a differentiating culture medium and describe which groups of bacteria are distinguished on the mentioned medium!
    • Eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar: Inhibits   Gram positive bacteria and inhibits the        swarming of Proteus. Differentiates between lactose fermenters and non-fermenters.
    • Lactose fermenters produce high amounts of acids, which is indicated as dark blue 
    • colonies by eosin and methylene blue.

    • McConkey agar: Inhibits Gram positive
    • bacteria by bile salts and crystal violet. It 
    • differentiates between lactose fermenters
    • and non-fermenters. Lactose fermentation is indicated by neutral red. Lactose fermenters form pink to red colonies, while
    • nonfermenters form colourless colonies.
  44. Describe the definition for facultative anaerobic bacteria!
    They are able to grow and metabolize both in the presence and in the absence of oxygen. In aerobic conditions they perform respiration, in anaerobic condition, they perform fermentation.
  45. Mention 4 extracellular enzymes of bacterial origin functioning as virulence factors!
    coagulase, streptokinase (fibrinolysine), streptodornase (DNase), hyaluronidase, IgAprotease, collagenase, elastase, urease
  46. What is the difference between prevalence and incidence of an infectious disease?
    • It can be differentiated in chronic diseases. Prevalence: total number of diseases (per100,000 people).
    • Incidence: number of new cases in a year (per 100,000 people).
  47. What is the difference between mortality and lethality of a disease?
    • Mortality: total number of deaths caused by the disease in a population (usually 100,000 people).
    • Lethality: rate of death (in percent) among patients suffering from the disease.
  48. Mention 2 groups of disinfectants acting on the microbial membrane structures!
    • a., (cationic) detergents (quaternary ammonium-compounds)
    • b., phenol compounds (cresol, hexachlorophene, chlorohexidine)
    • c., alcohols (ethanol, isopropanol)
  49. Describe the principle of the Kirby-Bauer (disk diffusion) method used to determine antibiotic sensitivity!
    Disks impregnated with different antibiotics are placed on the surface of appropriate agar media that has been inoculated with the bacterium isolated from the patient. After overnight incubation, the antibiotics diffusing from the discs may cause zones of inhibition around the discs. The size of the zone should be compared to standards to determine antibiotic sensitivity.
  50. Explain the purpose for using beta-lactamase inhibitors in antibacterial therapy!
    Combination of beta-lactamase inhibitors (such as clavulanic acid or sulbactam) with beta-lactamase sensitive penicillins (such as amoxicillin or ampicillin) can overcome resistance mediated by many but not all beta-lactamases.
  51. What are the main advantages and disadvantages of live attenuated vaccines as compered to killed vaccines?
    Advantages: induce not only serum antibodies but also cellular immunity and local IgA antibodies. Some may be applied orally. Usually fewer doses are needed.

    Disadvantages: Attenuated strains may revert to virulent in rare cases. They may cause disease in immunosuppressed patients. Live attenuated microbes are usually heat sensitive and must be refrigerated.
  52. Mention 4 groups of antibiotics which have bactericidal effects!
    penicillins, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolons etc.
  53. Which antibiotics inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase enzyme?
    nalidixic acids, fluoroquinolons
  54. What is the mode of action of the antibiotics sulfonamides and thrimethoprim, respectively?
    They inhibit the synthesis of folic acid. Sulfonamides: inhibit the synthesis of dihidrofolate(they are PABA analogues). Trimethoprim: inhibition of dihidrofolate-reductase.
  55. What is the mode of action of the antibiotic vancomycin?
    Inhibits cell wall synthesis in Gram positive bacteria by blocking transpeptidation.
  56. Mention 4 groups of antibiotics inhibiting protein synthesis of bacteria!
    Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, macrolides, lincosamides
  57. Regarding the joint effects of 2 antibiotics, what does synergism mean?
    The effect of the two drugs together is significantly higher than the sum of the effects of the two drugs acting separately.
  58. Regarding the joint effects of 2 antibiotics, what does antagonism mean?
    The effect of the two drugs together is significantly lower than the effect of the more effective drug alone.
  59. What does selective toxicity mean?
    Selective inhibition of the growth of the microorganism without damage to the host.In other words: the drug is highly toxic to the bacteria, but not toxic (or have very low toxicity) to the human host.
  60. How can one identify the different surface antigens of Gram negative bacteria?
    with slide agglutination tests using antibodies of known specificity
  61. What is the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
    Inhibition of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells by ADP-ribosylation of ribosomal EF-2 (elongation factor-2)
  62. What is the mechanism of action of tetanus toxin?
    It causes spastic paralysis by blocking the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters (glycine and GABA) in synapses
  63. What roles can be attributed to specific antibodies in antibacterial immunity? Specify at least 3!
    • a. neutralisation of exotoxins and enzymes
    • b. complement-dependent bacteriolysis (Gram-negatives)
    • c. opsonisation (helping phagocytosis)
    • d. interfering with attachment of bacteria to mucosal surfaces
  64. Starting from a fixed smear, specify the main steps of Gram stain in the appropriate order!
    • 1. Crystal violet
    • 2. Lugol solution (iodine)
    • 3. Differentiation: ethanol wash
    • 4. Counterstaining: safranin or fuchsin
    • (wash with tap water after each step)
  65. Starting from a fixed smear, specify the main steps of the acid-fast stain (Ziehl-Neelsen) in the appropriate order!
    • 1. Stain with carbol-fuchsin (with heating)
    • 2. Differentiation: wash with acid-ethanol
    • 3. Counterstaining with methylene-blue
    • (wash with tap water after each step)
  66. What is the difference between agglutination and precipitation?
    • Both are serological reactions where specific binding of the antigen with the antibody directly results in a reaction visible by the naked eye. The difference is in the nature of the antigen.
    • Agglutination: particulate antigen (RBC, bacteria, latex particles).
    • Precipitation: antigen is in solution before the reaction.
  67. What does titer mean in serological tests?
    The highest dilution of the serum sample that gives a positive reaction in the test.
  68. How can one differentiate between past and current infections in serological tests?
    Current infections are indicated by: either IgM class specific antibodies or, in the case of paired serum specimens (taken from the same patient at least 7-10 days apart), a significant (at least 4-fold) rise in the titer of specific antibodies.
  69. Specify the main steps of an ELISA test in which we detect antibodies from patients’serum samples using known antigens!
    • 1. Binding antigen to plastic surface (in wells of a 96-well plate)
    • 2. Adding diluted serum sample (specific antibodies bind to the antigen)
    • 3.Adding conjugate (secondary antibody conjugated with an enzyme)
    • 4. Adding the substrate of the enzyme, reading the colour reaction.
    • (wash with buffer after steps 1-3.)
  70. How can one determine the minimal inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic to a bacterial isolate?
    Inoculate the bacterial isolate into a series of test tubes containing 2-fold dilution series of the drug (prepared in appropriate liquid culture medium). After overnight incubation, the lowest concentration of drug that prevents visible growth of the organism is the MIC.
  71. Mention 5 diseases that can be caused by Staphylococcus aureus!
    Impetigo, furunculus, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning etc.
  72. Mention 2 toxin-mediated staphylococcal diseases!
    toxic shock syndrome (TSS), scalded skin syndrome, food poisoning
  73. Mention 3 toxic products produced by Staphylococcus aureus!
    TSST (toxic shock syndrome toxin), enterotoxin, exfoliatin, leukocidins, hemolysins
  74. Which is the most virulent species of Staphylococcus?
    S. aureus
  75. Which enzymatic virulence factor is characteristic exclusively for Staphylococcus aureus?
  76. How can we identify the source of infection in a staphylococcal food poisoning?
    by phage typing
  77. Which antibacterial drug is the first choice in serious infections caused by methycillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) strains?
    glycopeptides (vancomycin, teicoplanin)
  78. In which disease is Staphylococcus saprophyticus considered an obligate pathogen!
    cystitis in young women
  79. Which cell constituents determine the group-specific, and the type specific antigens of Streptococcus pyogenes, respectively?
    • group specific: C- polysaccharide
    • type specific: M protein
  80. Mention 3 enzymes produced by Streptococcus pyogenes that enhance the spread of the bacterial infection in the body!
    Streptokinase (fibrinolysin), hyaluronidase, streptodornase (DNAse)
  81. List 3 diseases caused by Streptococcus pyogenes in the skin or in subcutaneous tissues!
    impetigo (pyoderma), cellulitis, erysipelas, fasciitis, myositis
  82. Mention a toxin-mediated streptococcal disease, specify the name of the toxin and its mechanism of action!
    Scarlet fever - erythrogenic toxin – superantigen causing capillary destruction
  83. Mention 2 poststreptococcal diseases!
    Glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever, erythema nodosum, chorea minor.
  84. Which product of Streptococcus pyogenes has a major pathogenic role in poststreptococcal diseases?
    M protein: may induce hypersensitivity reactions
  85. How long does immunity against scarlet fever exist? Which immune effector mechanism is involved?
    Life-long immunity. Antitoxic antibodies are involved.
  86. What is the drug of first choice in Streptococcus pyogenes infection?
  87. What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal rheumatic fever?
    type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic antibodies)
  88. What is the patomechanism of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
    type III hypersensitivity (immune complexes)
  89. Which Streptococcus species plays major role in the meningitis of newborn babies?
    Group B Streptococcus (S. agalactiae)
  90. What is (are) the major causative agent(s) for subacute bacterial endocarditis?
    Viridans streptococci
  91. What are the characteristics of Enterococci that can be used in their identification?
    D group polysaccharide antigen; tolerance to bile and hydrolysis of esculin (BEAmedium: bile esculin agar); growth in the presence of 6,5 % NaCl
  92. What are the specific morphologic features of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
    Gram positive diplococcus, lancet shape, capsule.
  93. Mention 3 diseases that can be caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae!
    Pneumonia, meningitis, sinusitis, otitis media, sepsis, (ulcus serpens corneae)
  94. What fast diagnostic procedure can be used in acute Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection?
    Demonstration of bacteria (intracellular in PMNs) from urethral discharge by Gramor methylene blue stain; PCR amplification of bacterial DNA
  95. What kind of immunity develops after Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection
    Partial immunity of short duration; no protection from reinfection
  96. Specify at least 2 of the most important manifestations of disseminated gonorrhoeal infections!
    arthritis, skin eruptions, (endocarditis, meningitis)
  97. What is the major manifestation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in newborns?How can it be prevented?
    Blenorrhoea (ophtalmia) neonatorum, silver acetate eye drops or erythromycinointment
  98. Mention at least 3 major virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhoeae!
    pilus, outer membrane proteins, LOS (lipooligosaccharide), IgA protease
  99. Mention at least 2 major virulence factors of Neisseria meningitidis!
    polysaccharide capsule, LPS, IgA protease
  100. What is the site of entry of Neisseria meningitidis infection? Which diseases are caused by this bacterium?
    The site of entry is the nasopharynx (transmitted by airborne droplets).Meningococcemia (characterized by skin lesions), and acute (purulent) bacterial meningitis.
  101. What kinds of prophylactic measurements are available against Neisseria meningitidis infections?
    • Chemoprophylaxis: rifampin or ciprofloxacin.
    • Vaccination: capsular polysaccharide (types A, C, Y and W135). No vaccine against type B!
  102. Which rapid diagnostic methods can be used in the presumptive diagnosis of purulent bacterial meningitis?
    • Gram or methylene blue stain of CSF sediment.
    • Demonstration of bacterial capsular antigens by latex agglutination (from CSF).
  103. Which capsular serotype is included in the vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae?
    type b
  104. Which are the portals of entry of Bacillus anthracis?
    Skin, lungs, gastrointestinal tract
  105. Mention 3 important bacteria involved in nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections!
    Staphylococcus aureus, Enterococcus faecalis, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichiacoli
  106. Mention four E. coli pathogenetic groups involved in enteric diseases!
    • Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
    • Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC)
    • Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
    • Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
    • Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAggEC)
  107. What are the most important extraintestinal infections caused by E. coli? Mention at least 3 of them!
    urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, nosocomial wound infections
  108. The most frequent causative agent of urinary tract infections is:
    Escherichia coli
  109. Which 2 diseases are caused by E. coli O157:H7?
    hemorrhagic colitis +/- HUS (hemolytic uraemic syndrome)
  110. What is the reservoir of Salmonella typhi?
    humans (with disease, or healthy carriers)
  111. Which bacteria cause most frequently typhoid fever and enteric fever, respectively?
    • Salmonella typhi (typhoid)
    • Salmonella paratyphi A, B, C (enteric fever)
  112. When typhoid fever is suspected, what kinds of clinical samples should be used to isolate the causative agent in the first 2 weeks of the disease?
    Blood, (bone marrow)
  113. What is the route of infection in Salmonella gastroenteritis?
    Ingestion of contaminated food (such as eggs, cream, mayonnaise, creamed foods, etc.)containing a sufficient number of Salmonella.
  114. Which antibacterial drugs should be administered in gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella?
    Antibiotics are not usually necessary unless the infection is generalised. In case of extraintestinal infection (very young, very old or immunosuppressed patients):ampicillin, gentamicin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, or ciprofloxacin.
  115. List the 4 Shigella species causing human disease!
    Shigella dysenteriae, S. flexneri, S. boydii, S. sonnei
  116. Mention 2 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause bacillary dysentery
    Shigella dysenteriae, (Shigella flexneri, Shigella boydii, Shigella sonnei), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
  117. Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause enteritis or enterocolitis!
    Campylobacter jejuni, Escherichia coli, Salmonella enteritidis, Shigella, Yersinia enterocolitica
  118. Mention 2 bacteria causing intestinal infections which have animal reservoirs
    Salmonella (not Typhi and Paratyphi!), Campylobacter jejuni, Yersinia enterocolitica, Listeria monocytogenes, E. coli O157
  119. What are the modes of transmission for the 2 different epidemiologic forms of plague?
    • - Bubonic plague is transmitted by the bite of infected rat fleas from rats to humans.
    • - Primary pneumonic plague spreads directly from human to human via respiratory droplets.
  120. What are the possible portals of entry of Francisella tularensis? Specify at least 4!
    tick bite, mucous membranes, skin abrasions, resp. tract, gastroint. tract
  121. How do humans acquire brucellosis? Where do the bacteria replicate in the human body?
    Via contaminated milk products or through skin abrasions (contact with animals).Organisms spread to the mononuclear phagocytes of the reticuloendothelial system(lymph nodes, liver, spleen, bone marrow).
  122. What are the reservoirs of the different Brucella species, respectively?
    • B. abortus: cattle
    • B. melitensis: goat, sheep
    • B. suis: swine
  123. What is the mechanism of action of cholera toxin?
    Cholera toxin activates the adenylate cyclase enzyme in cells of the intestinal mucosa leading to increased levels of intracellular cAMP, and the secretion of large amount of water, Na+, K+, Cl-, and HCO3- into the lumen of the small intestine.
  124. What is the principle of the treatment for cholera?
    Rapid intravenous or oral replacement of the lost fluid and ions. (Administration of isotonic maintenance solution should continue until the diarrhea ceases.) In severe cases:administration of tetracycline (in addition to rehydration).
  125. Mention 4 diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae!
    • purulent meningitis
    • epiglottitis (obstructive laryngitis)
    • otitis media and sinusitis
    • pneumonia
    • (cellulitis, arthritis)
  126. Which disease is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi?
    Chancroid (soft chancre or ulcus molle)
  127. What can serve as source of infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    Pseudomonas species are normally present in the environment and can be isolated from the skin, throat, and stool of some healthy persons. They often colonize hospital food,sinks, taps, mops, and respiratory equipment.
  128. Mention 4 diseases that are frequently caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa!
    • urinary tract infections
    • wound infections (burns)
    • pneumonia, sepsis (immunosupression)
    • otitis externa
  129. Mention at least 3 drugs which may be effective to treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa!
    certain penicillins: piperacillin/tazobactam combination

    a 3rd generation cephalosporin: ceftazidim

    a 4th generation cephalosporin: cefepime

    certain aminoglycosides: gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin

    carbapenems: imipenem, meropenem
  130. Which 2 diseases are caused by Legionella pneumophila?
    • - legionellosis, legionnairs’ disease (atypical pneumonia)
    • - Pontiac fever (mild, flu like illness without pneumonia)
  131. List 3 important virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis!
    • filamentous hemagglutinin, pertussis toxin,
    • adenylate-cyclase toxin, trachealcytotoxin
  132. Mention 3 bacterium species causing food poisoning!
    Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridiumbotulinum, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, (Salmonella serotypes causing enterocolitis)
  133. Which bacterium has the highest germ number in the colon?
    Bacteroides fragilis
  134. Mention 4 bacterial genera that are obligate anaerobes!
    Clostridium, Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Fusobacterium, Actinomyces,Bifidobacterium, Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium
  135. Which is the most important gas gangrene Clostridium? What is its main virulence factor?
    • Clostridium perfringens
    • alpha-toxin (lecithinase)
  136. Mention 3 Clostridium species causing gas gangrene! How are they acquired?
    • Clostridium perfringens, C. novyi, C. septicum, C. histolyticum, C. tertium, C.bifermentans, C. sporogenes
    • The site of infection is usually a wound that comes into contact with Clostridium spores that germinate in an anaerobic environment.
  137. How can be tetanus prevented in patients who have wounds possibly contaminated with C.tetani spores?
    Wound should be cleaned and debrided; tetanus toxoid booster injection given;tetanus immunoglobulin (TETIG) in previously unvaccinated patients and in case of heavy contamination of wound; penicillin may be added prophylactically
  138. What are the main symptoms of tetanus infection? Specify at least 3!
    Spastic paralysis: muscle spasms; lockjaw(trismus), rhisus sardonicus (grimace of theface), opisthotonus (spasm of the back); respiratory paralysis
  139. What is the mechanism of action of the botulinus toxin?
    Blocks release of acetylcholine in peripheral nerve synapses;
  140. What are the main symptoms of botulism? Specify at least 3!
    flaccid paralysis: diplopia (double vision), dysphagia (difficulty to swallow),dysphonia (hoarseness), respiratory paralysis
  141. What kind of therapy is used to treat botulism?
    Treatment: respiratory support + trivalent antitoxin
  142. Explain whether or not antibiotic treatment is useful in botulism!
    Not, because antibiotics are not effective against preformed toxins.
  143. What diseases may be associated with Helicobacter pylori? Specify at least 3!
    Gastritis, peptic and duodenal ulcers, gastric carcinoma, MALT lymphoma
  144. What is the most important virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
    Diphtheria toxin
  145. What is the mechanism of action of the diphtheria toxin
    Inhibits protein synthesis. Inhibits peptide elongation in eukaryotic ribosomes by ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (elongation factor-2)
  146. How long does immunity against diphtheria exist? Which immune effector mechanism is involved?
    Antitoxic antibodies, long lasting immunity
  147. Which assays should be done in the lab in order to prove diphtheria?
    Smears of the throat swab should be stained with methylene blue or Neisser stain;bacteria are cultured on Löffler’s or tellurite (Clauberg) medium; toxin production must be demonstrated by agar precipitation ( ELEK-test)
  148. What feature of Mycobacteria make them acid fast?
    The cell envelope contains a high amount (60 – 70 %) of complex lipids: mycolic acid,cord factor. Once the cells are stained (by carbol-fuchsin) they resist decolorisation by acid-ethanol.
  149. Mention 2 atypical Mycobacterium species!
    M. kansasii, M. marinum, M. avium-intracellulare complex, M. fortuitum-chelonei complex
  150. How can one demonstrate the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in clinical samples?
    • Acid-fast staining (Ziehl-Neelsen)
    • Culture on selective media (Löwenstein-Jensen agar, liquid BACTEC medium)
    • PCR amplification of bacterial DNA
  151. Why is multi-drug therapy used for tuberculosis?
    To prevent the overgrowth of drug-resistant mutants during the long treatment period (if bacteria resistant to one drug emerge, they are most probably inhibited by the other drugs).
  152. What is the main immune defense mechanism against Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
    activated macrophages
  153. Mention 3 antituberculotic drugs that are of first choice against Mycobacterium tuberculosis!
    isoniazid (INH), pyrazinamid, rifampin, (ethambutol, streptomycin)
  154. What disease is caused by Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare? What patients are characteristically susceptible to infection?
    It causes TB, especially in immunosuppressed patients (such as AIDS patients).
  155. What is the reservoir of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
  156. What is the reservoir of atypical Mycobacteria?
    environment (soil, water)
  157. What are the 2 distinct forms of leprosy?
    Tuberculoid, lepromatous forms
  158. Mention 3 Gram-negative bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis!
    Brucella, Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis, Pasteurella
  159. Mention 2 Gram-positive bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis!
    Listeria monocytogenes, Bacillus anthracis, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  160. Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that are frequent causes of urinary tract infections!
    E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterococcus faecalis
  161. Mention one aerobic and one anaerobic bacterium of the normal flora of the skin!
    • aerobic: Staphylococcus epidermidis
    • anaerobic: Propionobacterium acnes
  162. Give two genuses for each category of bacteria!
    Gram positive aerobic: Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Bacillus, Corynebacterium,…Gram positive anaerobic: Clostridium, Actinomyces, Propionibacterium, Lactobacillus
  163. Give two genuses for each category of bacteria!
    • Gram negativ aerobic: Vibrio, Neisseria, Haemophilus…
    • Gram negativ anaerobic: Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Veillonella…
  164. Give 2 genuses for each category of bacteria!
    • Gram positive coccus: Staphylococcus, Streptococcus
    • Gram negative coccus: Neisseria, Veillonella
    • Gram positive rod: Clostridium, Bacillus
  165. Give 2 genuses for each category of bacteria!
    • Gram negative rod: E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella
    • Spirochetes: Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira
  166. Describe the color and the shape of Clostridia in a Gram stained smear of gas gangrene exudate!
    Gram positive (dark blue) rod (it usually does not form spores in vivo)
  167. Mention 2 antibiotics which can be used in the empirical treatment against Gram negative obligate anaerobic bacteria!
    Metronidazol, amoxicillin + clavulanic acid, imipenem
  168. Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of neonatal (< 1 month of age) meningitis?
    Streptococcus agalactiae, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes
  169. Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of meningitis among babies (> 1 month of age) and children?
    Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
  170. What is the causative agent of febris undulans (undulant fever)?
  171. What is the precise definition of bacterial food poisoning?
    Acute disease, usually with vomiting and diarrhea, caused by preformed toxins produced by bacteria contaminating the food. The period between consumption of food and the appearance of symptoms is short (< 4-6 hours).
  172. What are the main symptoms in the different stages of syphilis?
    • Primary syphilis: nontender ulcer (hard chancre)
    • Secondary lesions: maculopapular rash on skin, and condylomata lata on mucous membranes
    • Tertiary stage: granulomas (gummas), central nervous system involvement (tabesdorsalis, paralysis progressiva), cardiovascular lesions (aortitis, aortic aneurysm)
  173. When syphilis is diagnosed in the lab, which antigens are used in the non-treponemal and in the specific treponemal antibody tests, respectively?
    • Non-treponemal antibody tests: cardiolipin
    • Specific treponemal antibody tests: Treponema pallidum
  174. Which are the two different kinds of antibodies used in the diagnosis of syphilis? Give examples for tests demonstrating them!
    • Reagin (nonspecific antibody) – RPR, VDRL (flocculation tests)
    • Immobilisin (specific antibody) – TPHA (T. pallidum hemagglutination), FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal assay – with antibody absorption), TPI (T. pallidum immobilisation test).
  175. What is the advantage and disadvantage of the FTA-ABS syphilis serologic test compared to the VDRL test?
    Specific (treponemal) tests such as FTA-ABS are more specific, but they can not be used to follow the efficacy of treatment (because the specific antibodies persist even after effective eradication of bacteria)
  176. What is the drug of first choice in the treatment of syphilis?
    penicillin G
  177. What is the reservoir and what is the vector for Borrelia recurrentis?
    Reservoir: human; vector: louse
  178. What is used for the laboratory diagnosis of relapsing fever?
    Direct demonstration of bacteria from peripheral blood smear by microscopy (Giemsa stain or dark field illumination)
  179. What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?
    Borrelia burgdorferi
  180. Mention 2 antibacterial drugs that are of first choice in early stage Lyme disease?
    Tetracyclines, amoxicillin, cefuroxim
  181. What is the first characteristic manifestation in the early phase of Lyme disease?
    Erythema (chronicum) migrans
  182. Which manifestations are characteristic for the late phases of Lyme disease?
    Arthritis, cardiac manifestations (myocarditis, pericarditis) and neurological involvement (meningitis, peripheral neuropathies)
  183. What is the reservoir of Leptospira interrogans?
    rodents, household animals (dog, swine etc.)
  184. Mention 2 obligate intracellular bacterial genuses!
    Rickettsia, Chlamydia, (Coxiella, Ehrlichia)
  185. Mention 4 bacteria causing atypical pneumonia!
    • Chlamydia pneumoniae
    • Chlamydia psittaci
    • Coxiella burnetii
    • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    • Legionella pneumophila
  186. Which two diseases are caused by Rickettsia prowazekii?
    • Louse-borne epidemic typhus
    • Recurrent form: Brill-Zinsser disease
  187. Mention an antibacterial drug active against rickettsial infections!
    Tetracycline, chloramphenicol
  188. What are the reservoir and vector of Rickettsia prowazekii infections?
    reservoir: human; vector: louse
  189. What are the reservoir and vector of Rickettsia typhi infections?
    reservoir: rodents; vector: flea
  190. What is the causative agent of epidemic typhus?
    Rickettsia prowazekii
  191. What is the causative agent of endemic typhus?
    Rickettsia typhi
  192. How can be Chlamydiae and Rickettsiae cultivated?
    These are obligate intracellular bacteria, can be cultured in experimental animals,embryonated eggs, and cell culture
  193. Mention an antibacterial drug active against chlamydial infections!
    Tetracycline, erythromycin, azithromycin
  194. List the serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis and the diseases caused by them!
    • Types A,B and C: trachoma (chronic conjunctivitis)
    • Types D-K: genital tract infections (NGU, PID), inclusion conjunctivitis
    • Types L1-L3: lymphogranuloma venereum (STD)
  195. Mention an antibacterial drug effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections!
    Erythromycin, azythromycin, tetracycline
  196. Why are penicillins not effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?
    Because of the absence of a cell wall, penicillins are ineffective (penicillins inhibit cell wall synthesis)
  197. What is the Weil-Felix reaction?
    It is based on the cross-reaction of an antigen present in many rickettsiae with the Oantigen polysaccharide found in certain Proteus vulgaris strains (OX19 OX2, OXK).The test is a tube agglutination test in which these Proteus strains are used as antigens to demonstrate antibodies from the patient’s serum sample.
  198. Mention 4 bacteria frequently causing sexually transmitted diseases (STD)!
    Treponema pallidum, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus ducreyi, Chlamydiatrachomatis, (Calymmatobacterium granulomatis)
  199. Which bacterial species can cause hepatitis (jaundice)?
    Leptospira interrogans
  200. Mention 2 bacteria causing aseptic (serous) meningitis!
    Treponema pallidum, Leptospira interrogans, Borrelia burgdorferi
  201. Mention a bacterial pathogen which eludes the host immune response by frequent antigenic changes!
    Borrelia recurrentis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  202. What is the causative agent of febris recurrens (recurrent fever)?
    Borrelia recurrentis
Card Set
Micro 1st semester 2013
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