3-Q5. What is the correct nomenclature for what is commonly referred to as the "manufacturer’scode"?
Commercial and Government Entity code (CAGE)
3-Q6. What term is used for a part, component, or system in which the requisitioned part is used?
Next higher assembly.
3-Q7. What are the two primary technical manuals used by the maintenance technician to order replacement parts?
IPB and MIM
3-Q8. What information is contained in the "Introduction" of the IPB?
General information and instructions for using the publication.
3-Q9. What part of the IPB contains information concerning detailed parts that make up a component?
The group assembly parts list.
3-Q11 What position(s) of the SM&R code indicate(s) the source from which you can acquire the item?
the first position
3-Q12 Which NAVSUP publication provides cross-reference information from a reference number to its national stock number (NSN)?
Master cross-reference list (MCRL)
3-Q13 What NAVSUP publication provides information on exceptions to the one-for-one turn-in rule?
Consolidated Remain in Place List (CRIPL)
3-Q14 How often is the ICRL-A revised?
3-Q15 What is the purpose of the Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL)?
AVCAL lists the items and quantities of aeronautical material authorized to be stocked by and aircraft carrier to support the maintenance and operations of embarked aircraft.
3-Q16 What are the first two-digits of the nine-digit NIIN called?
The national codification bureau NCB Code
3-Q17 What two instructions describe the procedures for allowance and inventory of the AMMRL program?
Navairinst 13650.1 for IMRL items and Navairinst 13630.1 for TOL items.
3-Q18 How is Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) involved in the AMMRLprogram?
Navairsyscom exercises overall program management and authority.
3-Q19. What are the major sections of the IMRL?
Employment data, change lists, index, main body, and the activity inventory record.
3-Q20. What section of the IMRL lists all of the items allowed for the activity along with allowance quantities?
The IMRL main body.
3-Q21. How often is the IMRL Activity Inventory Record reissued?
3-Q22. What work center is the point-of-contact for parts and material at the organizational maintenance level?
3-Q23 DD form 1348, Standard Form 44, and an identiplate (DD 1896 or 1897) are all issued as part of what package?
A flight packet
3-Q24 What level of maintenance orders the greater volume of parts?
3-Q25 The Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) is used by what work center to determine the repair capability of a component received by supply?
Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU)
3-Q26 What are the two sections of the Aviation Support Division/Supply Support Center (ASD/SSC)?
Supply Response Section (SRS) and Component Control Section (CCS)
3-Q27 If apart is listed in the CRIPL, the maintenance activity has how many hours after receipt of the replacement component to furnish the unserviceable part?
3-Q28 What items are maintained in the pre-expended bins (PEBs)?
High usage, low cost, maintenance related consumable materials that have a minimum demand frequency of three per month.
3-Q29 How often does supply review stock records for the PEB?
3-Q30 What section of ASD/SSC manages local repair cycle assets?
Component control section (CCS)
3-Q31 How many workload priorities can be assigned to a LRCA storage unit?
3-Q32 If a squadron requisitions an NMCS component from supply and, except for the turn-in, the only other part on station is in the IMA for repair, what priority will be assigned to the component received from the squadron?
Priority 1, and the part would be designated “EXREP” or expeditious repair.
4-Q1. How does corrosion endanger aircraft or reduce the margin of safety?
It reduces the strength and changes the mechanical characteristics of the material.
4-Q2. All maintenance personnel must be formally trained in what program?
4-Q3 What is the primary factor to consider when selecting materials for constructing an aircraft?
Weight to strength ratio
4-Q4 The decay of metals as they combine with oxygen is known as what type of corrosion?
4-Q5 What does an intact coat of paint provide to naval aircraft?
Protection from corrosive environments
4-Q6 In an electrochemical attack, electron flow is established in which direction?
From cathode to anode
4-Q7 How will heat, humidity, and moisture affect the electrochemical reactions that cause metal to corrode?
They speed the corrosion process.
4-Q8 Why are thick structural sections most susceptible to corrosive attack?
They are more likely to have variations in their composition, particularly if heat treated during fabrication.
4-Q9 In relation to corrosion, what affect does moisture have on avionics equipment?
Moisture is the single largest contributor to avionics equipment.
4-Q10 Which NAVAIR publication is entitled Aircraft Weapons Systems Cleaning and Corrosion Control?
4-Q11 NAVAIR 16-1-540 provides what information?
Information on cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment.
4-Q12 Information on the preservation of Naval aircraft and aircraft engines can be found in what publication?
NAVAIR 16-1-540 provides information on cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment.
4-Q13. What information can you find in NAVAIR 01-IA-507?
General uses for cements, sealants, and coatings.
4-Q14 What should happen to a good corrosion preventive program when carrier-based aircraft return to a shore activity after a deployment?
A period of intensive care should follow the deployment cycle to bring the aircraft up to standards.
4-Q15 Operating units that have the best safety records, maximum use of aircraft, and lowest operating costs will also have what program?
A good corrosion prevention program.
4-Q16 At a minimum, how often must aircraft be cleaned?
Every 14 days.
4-Q17 List the conditions that require the affected areas of an aircraft to be cleaned immediately.
Exposed to corrosive fire extinguishing materials,
Spilled electrolyte and corrosive deposits are found around battery terminals and battery area,
The aircraft has been exposed to significant amounts of salt water,
relief tube waste or other contaminants are apparent,
Fungus growth is apparent,
Chemical, biological, or radiological contaminants are detected.
4-Q18 What must be done on a daily basis with unpainted aircraft surfaces and actuating rods?
They must be cleaned or wiped down
4-Q19 What are the most serious hazards in handling, using, and storing aircraft cleaning materials?
Flammability and toxicity.
4-Q20 Why is there a requirement to use a respirator when working with solvents?
Inhaling toxic vapors can seriously affect the brain and central nervous system.
4-Q21 What must be done specifically when storing solvents that contain more than 24% chlorinated materials?
They must be kept in specially marked containers.
4-Q22 Where must flammable liquids be stored when not in use?
In a separate building or flammable liquids store room.
4-Q23 By what means is dry-cleaning solvent applied?
By spraying, dipping, brushing, or wiping.
4-Q24 Safety solvent is currently referred to by what name?
4-Q26. What material must be avoided as a substitute to aluminum oxide abrasive cloth and why?
Silicon carbide paper because it is sharp and the individual grains can penetrate steel surfaces.
4-Q27. Why is the conformable applicator cleaning pad better than a mop or bristle brush when cleaning aircraft surfaces?
It conforms to the surface, the applicator allows easier application of a constant scrubbing pressure on curved skin panels.
4-Q29. What is the first step in efficiently cleaning an aircraft?
Select the proper cleaning agent for the method of cleaning chosen.
4-Q30. When cleaning an aircraft what are the two directions in which cleaning compound andrinsing are applied?
Upward and outward
4-Q31. What substance may be used to spot-clean lightly soiled areas?
Dry cleaning solvent
4-Q32. Why should dry-cleaning solvent not be used in oxygen areas or around oxygen equipment?
It is not oxygen compatible and will cause explosion or fire.
4-Q33. In emergencies when regular waterproof canvas covers are not available, what materials can you use as covers and shrouds?
A polyethylene sheet, polyethylene coated cloth, or metal foil barrier materials.
4-Q34. The ground handling requirements for an aircraft can be found in what publication?
4-Q35. What technical publication covers emergency reclamation procedures for naval aircraft?
4-Q36 State the levels and terms of preservation used for naval aircraft.
Level I—Short term, up to 60 days.
Level II—60 days to 1 year.
Level III—Long term, 1 to 8 years.
4-Q37 What level of preservation is required if an aircraft is scheduled to remain idle for more than 14 days but less than 28 days?
4-Q38 MIL-C-16173, corrosion preventive compound, is available in three grades. Which grade(s) is/are easily removed with dry-cleaning solvent?
4-Q39 Corrosion-preventive petroleum, class 3, provides protection for what type of surfaces?
Antifriction bearings, shock strut pistons, and other bright metal surfaces.
4-Q40 When is general-purpose lubrication oil VV-L-800 used?
When water displacing, low temperature lubricating oil is required.
4-Q41 What type of corrosion-preventive compound MIL-C-81309 is used on avionics and electrical equipment?
4-Q42. What level of engine preservation requires the fuel system to remain at least 95 percent full of fuel for a period not to exceed 60 days?
4-Q43. What technical corrosion manual should you use for support equipment?
GSE cleaning and corrosion control, NAVAIR 17-1-125
4-Q45. The tarnishing of silver is a common example of what type of corrosion?
Uniform surface attack
4-Q46. Pitting is the most common effect of corrosion on what alloys?
Aluminum and Magnesium alloys
4-Q47. Pitting corrosion is first noticeable as what color deposit on a metal surface?
White or gray powdery deposit
4-Q48. How can concentration cell corrosion be controlled or even prevented?
Avoid the creation of crevices during repair work.
4-Q49. Define intergranular corrosion
An attack on the grain boundaries of alloys under specific conditions.
4-Q50. What is usually the cause of dissimilar metal corrosion?
It is usually the result of faulty design or improper maintenance practices.
4-Q51. What are some examples of internal stress corrosion?
Stress induced by press and shrink fits and those in rivets and bolts.
4-Q52. What causes fatigue corrosion?
The combined effect of corrosion and stress applied in cycles to a component.
4-Q53. What is the cause of fretting corrosion?
A slight variation, friction, or slippage between two contacting surfaces that are under stress or heavy load.
4-Q54. Filiform corrosion occurs on what types of metals?
Steel, aluminum, and magnesium.
4-Q55. The corrosion-prone areas for each specific aircraft are derailed in what publication?
Applicable periodic maintenance information cards (PMICs)
4-Q56. What are the three requirements for a corrosion cell to form?
A cathode, anode, and an electrolyte.
4-Q57. Cockpit fasteners should be touched up with what color paint?
Black paint to prevent glare.
4-Q58. In water entrapment areas of an aircraft, drains are required to be inspected how often?
4-Q59 What publication should you refer to for information about structural corrosion?
4-Q60 Hydrated ferric oxide is commonly known as what kind of corrosion?
4-Q61 What are the three types of aluminum surfaces insofar as corrosion removal is concerned?
Clad, anodized, and exfoliated.
4-Q62 How should you remove corrosion from clad aluminum surfaces?
Hand polish the corroded areas with metal polish.
4-Q63 What is the primary type of aluminum used on naval aircraft?
Nonclad aluminum alloys.
4-Q64 What are the approved tools for cleaning anodized aluminum surfaces?
Aluminum wool or fiber bristle brushes.
4-Q65 Who should evaluate any loss of structural strength in critical areas of an aircraft?
An aeronautical engineer.
4-Q66 What manual should you refer to for tolerance limits for dimensions of critical structural members?
Structural repair manuals for the specific aircraft model.
4-Q67 Copper and copper-based alloys are used in avionic systems for what purpose?
Contacts, springs, connectors, printed circuit board runs, and wires.
4-Q68 Where is titanium most often used on an aircraft?
In the engine exhaust areas.
4-Q69. What must you do before starting corrosion removal?
Conduct an inspection and evaluation of the suspected area
4-Q70. How should you remove moderate corrosion?
Extensive hand sanding or light mechanical sanding.
4-Q71. What is the most desirable method of mechanical corrosion removal?
VACU-blast dry honing portable machine.
4-Q72. What is the preferred surface preparation method for many of the components of supportequipment?
Abrasive or grit blasting.
4-Q73. What should you use during the abrasive process to prevent flash rusting?
4-Q74. Information regarding corrosion removal limitations can be found in what publications?
The applicable aircraft structural repair manual (SRM), or the corrosion section of the MIM
4-Q75. What is the purpose for chemically treating a surface for painting?
Chemical conversion coatings increase a surfaces resistance to corrosion and improve paint bonding to the surface.
4-Q77. What is the primary purpose of any paint finish?
The protection of the exposed surfaces against decay.
4-Q78. When using paint removers, you should wear what type of protective clothing?
You should wear eye protection, gloves, and a rubber apron.
4-Q79. What safety precaution must be taken before cleaning and stripping old finishes on aircraft?
You must make sure the aircraft is properly grounded.
4-Q80. What type of motor should you use to power a flap brush?
A NO LOAD 3200 air drill
4-Q81. Complete information on the types and applications of aircraft paint systems is contained in what publication?
4-Q82. After it is mixed, the storage life of epoxy-polyamide primer is limited to the amount that can be used in how many hours?
4-Q83. What is the standard, general-purpose, exterior protective coating for aircraft surfaces?
4-Q84. What are the two classes of spray guns?
Suction feed and pressure feed
4-Q85. When flammable materials are used, all sources of ignition must be at least how far away from the work location?
6-Q1. What is the primary concern of a work center supervisor?
Seeing that the job is done correctly, safely, and efficiently with no waste of materials.
6-Q2. The typical duties and responsibilities of the supervisor can be grouped into broad objectives. List these three objectives.
Operate with maximum efficiency and safety,
operate with minimum waste and expense,
and operate free from interruption and difficulty.
6-Q3. How does work center efficiency naturally increase?
Update equipment as old models become obsolete.
6-Q4. How can an effective supervisor offset the loss of experienced personnel?
Through an effective and continuing training program.
6-Q5. Which of the three broad objectives (of a supervisor) are affected by wasted materials?
Operating with minimum expense and waste.
6-Q6. Describe the primary purpose of delegation of authority
A means of relieving the work center supervisor of the details of a task.
6-Q7. Describe scheduled and unscheduled maintenance.
Scheduled maintenance is maintenance required by hours, calendar periods (days/weeks), and starts.
Unscheduled maintenance occurs on aircraft other than scheduled maintenance.
6-Q8. What is the most effective tool for ensuring a smooth flow of information regarding maintenance between shifts, other work centers, and maintenance control?
The daily maintenance meeting.
6-Q9. What is the purpose of the quality assurance division?
Determine deficiencies, analyze discrepancy trends, prescribe inspection procedures, and determine the quality of maintenance.
6-Q10. The prevention of the occurrence of defects relies on what principle?
Eliminating maintenance failures before they happen.
6-Q11. What are the three factors that ensure the achievement of quality assurance?
Prevention, knowledge, and special skills.
6-Q12. State the definition of a Q/A audit.
A periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records.
6-Q13. What does the frame of mind of all personnel assigned to a department determine?
The success or failure in achieving high standards of quality.
6-Q14. When must the production supervisor assign a collateral duty inspector to a task?
At the time the task is assigned.
6-Q15 At a minimum, how often must plane captains have their qualifications monitored by Q/A?
6-Q16 Why must a QAR brief the check pilots and aircrew prior to a functional check flight (FCF)?
To ensure the purpose and objectives of the check flight are clearly understood.
6-Q17 What division is responsible for reviewing all incoming technical publications and directives to determine their application to the maintenance department?
6-Q18 In relation to the organization of a quality assurance division, what determines the number of assigned personnel?
The size of the unit and the number of work shifts.
6-Q19 Who has the responsibility to review MDRs, NALCOMIS reports, and VIDS/MAFS to determine discrepancy trends and specific problem areas?
6-Q20 Under normal circumstances, what paygrade is usually assigned as a QAR?
E6 or above
6-Q21 How long may a CDQAR be assigned to a work center without having to notify the aircraft controlling custodian?
6-Q22 When may a CDI inspect his own work and sign as inspector?
6-Q23 When a deployment period is more than 90 days and all requirements for assigning QA personnel have been met by the detachment, who may designate QA personnel?
The officer in charge.
6-Q24 What is used to annotate an inspection on a VIDS/MAF in place of a signature at an AIMD?
A QA stamp
6-Q25 What person or activity decides if a CDI, CDQAR, or QAR is to perform inspections required by "QA " annotated on an MRC?
Local command make the decision and annotate the master and work center MRC decks.
6-Q26 During a maintenance evolution, inspections normally fall into three categories. What are the three categories?
Reveiving or screening inspection, in-process inspection, and final inspection.
6-Q27 QAR and CDQAR are required to conduct in-process and final inspections of all maintenance tasks that require what actions?
Functional check flights (FCF)
6-Q28 When must a QAR reinspect in-flight maintenance sign-offs?
When the discrepancy involves safety of flight.
6-Q29. What programs are managed by quality assurance?
QA Audit, CTPL, Safety, NAMDRP, SE misuse and abuse, Aviation gas free engineering
6-Q30. What are the two categories of audits performed by Q/A?
Work center audits and special audits.
6-Q31. Upon completion of an audit, the findings are forwarded to the AMO, with a copy going where?
The cognizant division
6-Q32. How long are past audits maintained by Q/A?
6-Q33. In addition to reporting naval aviation hazards in accordance with OPNAVINST 3750.6, you still must follow reporting procedures called for in what manual?
6-Q34. With regard to maintenance department safety, what does the Q/A division have a responsibility to do at least monthly?
Conduct maintenance department safety meetings.
6-Q35 What is the Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program?
(NAMDRP) is a method for reporting hazardous deficiencies in material, publications, substandard workmanship, and improper Q/A procedures.
6-Q36 What division assists the aviation safety officer in reviewing all correspondence about aircraft, ground, flight, or flight-related mishaps and explosive mishaps?
Quality assurance division.
6-Q37 Who has the responsibility to be alert for safety related defects or discrepancies?
6-Q38 OPNAVINST 3710.7 contains procedures to report discrepancies in what type of publication?
Q39 If a system failure or malfunction occurs because of a part design, which could allow improper installation of the part, an HMR priority precedence message must be submitted withinwhat time frame?
Within 24 hours of recovery.
6-Q40 What term should be used in conjunction with an HMR when an aircraft part is lost in flight?
TFOA (things falling off aircraft)
6-Q41 What are the three types of engineering investigations (EIs)?
Disassembly and inspection, material analysis, and engineering assistance.
6-Q42 What type of report provides activities with a means of reporting deficiencies in new or newly reworked material?
Quality deficiency report (QDR)
6-Q43 How long does the accepting activity have to submit a supplemental ADR? (Aircraft Discrepancy Report)
Within 30 days after completion of the check flight.
6-Q44 Where is the original misuse/abuse report sent?
The report is forwarded to the organization that has IMRL reporting responsibility for the item abused.
7-Q1. Define the term "management."
The efficient attainment of objectives.
7-Q2. What is the definition of maintenance?
Actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability.
7-Q3. Define the term "maintenance management. "
Actions taken to restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with a minimum expenditure of resources.
7-Q4. What work center manages and coordinates the overall production effort to maintain squadron aircraft in a mission-capable condition?
7-Q5. What division controls the daily workload and assign work priorities to the various work center supervisors?
7-Q6. What division is responsible for publishing a monthly maintenance plan?
7-Q7. What division is responsible for ensuring that aircraft undergo functional maintenance check frights as required?
7-Q8. What division maintains the Aircraft Discrepancy Book?
7-Q9. What is the primary purpose of the daily maintenance meeting?
It allows all the supervisors within your department or division to brief the maintenance chief on the status of equipment, components, or aircraft that currently have ongoing work or are scheduled to have maintenance performed.
7-Q10. What instruction provides specific guidelines on procedures for reporting your squadrons readiness and material condition to supporting commanders?
Aircraft material readiness reporting (AMRR)
7-Q11. When a special inspection is completed, how long must copy 3 of the controlling document be retained in the ADB?
At least ten flights or until the completion of the next like inspection.
7-Q12. Who is responsible for releasing an aircraft as "safe for flight"?
The aircraft maintenance officer (AMO) or designated representative.
7-Q13. What is the title of OPNAV 4790/141?
Aircraft inspection and acceptance record.
7-Q14. When an aircraft is released as safe for flight, if not specified otherwise, when must fuel samples be taken?
Before the first flight of the day
7-Q15 What publication contains detailed information on aircraft historical files?
4790.2 Vol 3
7-Q16 How long must aircraft inspection documents be maintained on file?
One inspection cycle, or 6 months, whichever is greater.
7-Q17 A completed VIDS/MAF requesting "local manufacture of drip pans" would be maintained in what historical file?
7-Q18. Equipment Operational Capability (EOC) codes are used on VIDS/MAFs or in NALCOMIS to generate what reports?
7-Q19. The Mission Essential Subsystem Matrices (MESM) is used to select what position of the EOC code that is entered on the MAF?
The first position of the EOC code
7-Q20. How are the second and third positions of the EOC code determined?
They are computer generated as determined by the documented WUC
7-Q21 What information MUST be transcribed on both sides of each logbook page to ensure positive identification when pages are removed?
Aircraft model and bureau number
7-Q22 Who is responsible for maintaining aircraft logbooks?
Reporting or physical custodians of all naval aircraft
7-Q23 Where can information be obtained on a specific aircrafts structural life limitations?
The periodic maintenance information cards for that specific aircraft.
7-Q24 On what OPNAV record in the logbook would an overweight landing inspection be recorded?
7-Q26 Where and how are interim technical directives (TDs) recorded?
The same sheet as formal TD’s, and identified by an ‘I’ before the TD number.
7-Q27 What is the purpose of the Miscellaneous/History Record?
Provides a means of recording significant information that affects the aircraft or equipment for which no other space is provided in the logbook.
7-Q28. When is an entry not required on OPNAV 4790/136A for preservation of installed equipment?
If the equipment is not preserved as part of an aircraft preservation action.
7-Q29. When aviation life support system's components, kits, or assemblies are involved in an aircraft mishap, what must be done with the associated records?
They are to be forwarded as required for investigation.
7-Q30. Once an engine module is installed in a particular propulsion system, what becomes of the Module Service Record (MSR)?
Maintained with and becomes part of the Aeronautical equipment service record (AESR)
7-Q31. In what section of the Assembly Service Record is the removal data documented?
7-Q32. What record is used to document the maintenance history data of an aeronautical component that has been determined to be life limited?
The Scheduled removal component card (SRC)
7-Q33. What system was devised to provide standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection information?
Naval flight record subsystem
7-Q31. In the intermediate maintenance activity (IMA), what work center is responsible for maintaining positive control of all accountable material?
7-Q35. What action is taken at least weekly to ensure all parts on order are still required and all required parts are still on order?
Awaiting parts validation (AWP)
7-Q36. Production control works with what other work centers in the supply department to set workload priorities?
Component control section (CCS) and the aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU)