Canine Feline Final Review - Part II
Home > Flashcards > Print Preview
The flashcards below were created by user
on FreezingBlue Flashcards
. What would you like to do?
What is the major cause of non-trauma-related morbidity and mortality in domestic cats world-wide?
What is the estimated number of cats in the US?
What is the estimated number of cats world-wide?
- Infectious viral diseases
- 60 million cats in the US
- 110 million cats world-wide
Feline Retrovirus Infections - Two ____ strands – in _________ of lipid surrounds the 2 strands of ____.
This “retrovirus” is a “________” by transcription its genetic message on a DNA copy in reverse sequence.
- RNA; envelope; RNA
- reverse virus
List the 3 subfamilies that Retroviruses are divided into and give an example of a virus that falls into the subfamily.
Which subfamily are cats are susceptible to infections?
- 1. spumaviridae - FeFV (Feline Foamy Virus)
- 2. oncornaviridae - FeLV (Feline Leukemia)
- 3. lentiviridae FIV (Feline Immunodeficiency Virus)
- cats are susceptible to infections by viruses from each of these subfamilies
Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) is a Retrovirus. (________) associated with an immunodeficiency disease in domestic cats. What is the etiology?
What is the scientific name & Nickname?
It shares many properties characteristic with what other lentivirus?
- FIV virus
- Feline Immunodeficiency Syndrome; feline AIDS
- human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
A virus may infect the cat without producing the symptoms of FIV infection. What are 2 possibilities that can occur?
- 1. Positive for virus – virus but no symptoms.
- 2. Syndrome (disease) – virus & symptoms.
What are 6 Symptoms of Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?
- neurological symptoms due to bacterial infection occasionally.
- profound Pyrexia (Virus plus Bacteria)
Any virus will cause a _______ in WBCs. Any bacterial infection will cause an _______ leukocytosis in WBCs.
What is the normal WBC count for a cat?
FIV is common _______, and its prevalence varies among geographic locations. Across the US the seroprevalence of FIV in cats is at high risk of exposure and in clinically ill cat’s it ranges from apx __% to __% with few apparent regional differences
Evidence from retrospective sero-surveys suggest that FIV had been present in the domestic feline population since at least ____.
FIV infection progresses through what 3 stages,
(similar to HIV-1 in people)?
- 1. Acute Phase – mild to no symptoms. This may last several days to a few weeks. Fever and malaise to acute enteritis, stomatitis, dermatitis and respiratory tract disease.
- 2. Clinically Healthy Period – up to 8 years without signs.
- 3. Terminal Symptoms – immune symptoms starts to decline resulting in death from many different causes. This where it is identified as FIV – the Disease
What are some symptoms of the Acute phase of Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)
Fever, loss of appetite, diarrhea, lethargy, and malaise to acute enteritis, stomatitis, dermatitis and swollen lymph nodes
How long can the Clinically Healthy period of Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) last?
Up to 8 years without signs
What are the symptoms of the Terminal stage of Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?
What causes death?
- Weight loss, sores in and around the mouth, eye lesions, poor hair coat, and chronic infections.
- The immune system becomes too weak to fight off other infections or diseases. As a result, the cat will die from subsequent bacterial infections
At what stage is the Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) identified as the Disease?
What is the primary means of transmission for Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?
What is a secondary mode of transmission?
- Horizontally by bite wounds
- vertically from queen to offspring if the queen is infected during pregnancy (congenital infection).
Experimentally there are over __% transmission in utero and post parturition via milk from Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)
When and by whom was FIV was discovered in the United States?
FIV is an immune suppressing virus related to the ______________.
However the FIV does not affect _____, and the HIV does not affect ______.
FIV is common in the ________ population.
- In 1986 by Dr. Neils Pedersen and Janet Yamamoto at the UC Davis
- Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
- humans; cats
- feral cat
Dr. Alice Wolf studied it in approximately 300 feral cats, all aggies. She found an incidence of __% in adult males and __% in adult females.
Nationwide, of 27,976 cats investigated ___% has antibodies for FIV. ___ were 3 times as likely to be infected with the FIV than ______. Most recent studies indicate that up to 1 in 12 cats in the US test positive for this acquired immunological disease (AIDs) virus. Actual infection rate can be higher in unhealthy cats. This would indicate an increase from __% to ___% in last 5 years.
- Males; Females
- 7.4% to 9%
What is the percentage of cats that test positive for the Feline Leukemia (FeLV) that will also test positive for FIV?
What is the percentage of cats that test positive for FIV that will also test positive for Feline Leukemia (FeLV)?
Which cats are at the highest risk of contracting Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?
How is FIV transmitted?
Can FIV be spread via water bowls and grooming?
- Outdoor cats
- Saliva (bite wounds esp. males) but also present in blood and cerebrospinal fluid
- unlikely but likely in FeLV
List 6 Similarities of FIV and FeLV
- 1. immunosuppression disease
- 2. gingivitis/stomatitis/glossitis/halitosis – Both produce mouth problems
- 3. myeloproliferative disorders
- 4. fibro/lymphosarcomas (sarcoma?) Hard tumors
- 5. diarrhea/panleukopenia/abortion/polyarthritis
- 6. both are considered congenital infections
__________ and _____ (most common in general practice) are the screening standards for FIV. The _____ is now the gold standard of conformity tests because it has the advantage of _________________. However, these tests only indicate the presence of _____ - they do not prove that there is an active infection. Note: This is true with antibody-antigen test in __% of test run in veterinary medicine.
- IFA (Immunofluorescent Antibody Test); ELISA
- Western Blot;
- looking for multiple antibody specificity rather than a single antibody class
The Houston Chronicle announced on _______ that the first vaccine for FIV (cat AIDS) was approved and was available to cat owners as early as the summer of that year.
What was the name of the vaccine and who developed it?
This vaccine is felt to be __% effective in preventing the infection
- March 30, 2002 This is the
- Fel-O-Vax FIV developed by Fort Dodge Animal Health, now owned by Pfizer Corp.
A current controversy still exists because of testing problems. Current testing for the FIV either in-house or by commercial labs, is based on detection of ________. Cats receive FIV vaccine will build these and will likely result in positive test results. The FIV antibody test cannot distinguish between ________________. Shelter cats with no history are at risk of euthanasia because __________ are often used to diagnose disease at risk.
- antibodies from vaccination and antibodies from disease
- high levels of antibodies
What are the Three groups of cats are recommended for vaccines?
- 1. Cats that go outdoors without direct supervision.
- 2. Cats that live indoors but have a housemate that goes out-doors without direct supervision.
- 3. Cats that live indoors in a household that includes an FIV-infected cat.
Feline Leukemia Virus
- Family: Retrovirus
- Subfamily: Oncornavirinae
Feline Leukemia virus (FeLV) was 1st identified in ________ as the suspected etiologic agent of ________ in a group of cats by Dr. W. Jarrett and co-workers when virus particles were seen budding from the membrane of malignant lymphoblast
In 1964 FeLV was considered to be: (3)
In 1964 it was estimated that ____ of all cancer deaths in cats were caused by FeLV
- 1. the principle scourge in cats.
- 2. accounted for most disease related deaths in pet cats - Most common killer of domestic housecats cats of US 2nd only to Hit by Cars (HBC)
- 3. responsible for more clinical syndrome than any other single agent
Identified in 1964 as a ______, it produces an enzyme called _______ that permits it to insert copies of its own genetic material into the infected cell.
After the initial infection, where does the virus replicate?
- reverse transcriptase
- In the tonsils and the pharyngeal lymph nodes and then spreads via blood stream into other parts of the body, especially lymph nodes, bone marrow, and intestinal tissue where it replicates
_______ means cancer of the white blood cells and thus is the first sign of FeLV but not the last.
What is the most common cause of cancer in cats?
Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)
On the basis of similarities in nucleotide sequence, it has been determined that FeLV evolved from a virus in an ______.
What was the means of transmission to cats?
The initial spread of FeLV among cats might have been inhibited by the aired nature of the desert in __________.
- ancestor rat
- ingestion of rats and rat bites
- North Africa
What are 2 viruses (antigens) that were originally identified as associated with FeLV?
- 1. Feline Sarcoma Virus (FSV) – is a mutation of the genes of FeLV and its host cells. (tumor)
- 2. Feline Oncornavirus - Associated Cell Membrane Antigen (FOCMA). This is protein on the cells of FSV and FeLV induced tumors. Antibodies have some protective activity against FeLV neoplasias. (blood)
What subgroup of FeLV do we vaccinate against?
What is the strain?
FeLV is divided into serial subgroups, but only subgroup _____ is infectious and transmitted from cat to cat.
List the other 3 subgroups that are not transmitted from cat to cat under natural circumstances. These subgroups can be generated into FeLV A infected cat by _________.
- FeLV A
- FeLV B, FeLV C, FeLV myc (not much isknown about this one yet)
What is the most common subgroup of FeLV? What is the percentage of positive cats?
FeLV B – co-infection with A in ___%
What are 4 signs/symptoms?
- Myeloproliferative, myelosuppressive, immunosuppressive, and neoplastic disease conditions.
FeLV C is a persistent virus in _______.
These animals are aborted or born with a persistent _________ and usually die.
__________, is not a subgroup of FeLV but is a mutation that arises by combination of the FeLV A genome with cancer associated cellular genes. The only way one can get an infection of FeLV B, C & myc or FSV is recombination of genes with _______.
- Feline Sarcoma Virus FSV
- FeLV A
___________ is a protein antigen that is expressed on the cell membrane of FeLV and FSV induced tumor cells and is believed to be the product of genetic recombination. It has been shown that ________ have some protective activity against the development of FeLV related neoplasia, but these antibodies do not prevent FeLV induced non-neoplastic diseases. FOCMA antigens produced antibodies will help diagnoses the ______ of FeLV infection and slow down FeLV development, FOCMA antibodies do nothing to stop the inevitable progression and disease.
- Feline Oncornavirus-Associated Cell Membrane Antigen (FOCMA)
- antibodies to FOCMA
In nature, FeLV has been reported mainly to infect ________. Case reports of FeLV in other felines are few.
FeLV does not appear to be enzootic in wild felids other than _______ in _____ & ______ Some evidence show that other wild felids may be susceptible
As far as prevalence, FeLV infection exists in domestic cats worldwide. The FeLV infection rate of free-roaming cats is similar throughout the world, ranging from __% to __% of healthy cats.
- domestic cats
- European wildcats; France and Scotland
- 1% to 8%
How is FeLV Transmitted Horizontal?
What are the most infective means of transmission?
- saliva just like FIV where the concentration of virus is higher than plasma except it is not by bite it is by food and water
- Social behaviors such as sharing food, water, mutual grooming, using common litter areas
Transmission FeLV – Vertical transmission from queen to kittens occurs in FeLV viremic cats. Neonatal kittens can be infected ______ or when the queen _______. In addition, isolated FeLV infection of the mammary glands of FeLV negative cats with transmission of FeLV via ____ has been described.
If in utero infection occurs, reproductive failure in the form of fetal reabsorption, abortion and neonatal death is common. Although up to 20% of vertical infected kittens may survive the neonatal period to become persistently infected adults
- licks and nurses them
Pathogenesis of FeLV - The outcome of FeLV infection mainly depends on what factors?
immune status and age of the cat, it is also affected by pathogenicity of the virus, route of inoculation and virus concentration.
Most likely to be infected with FeLV:
Neonatal kittens – _________%
8 week old kittens – _________%
Adolescent and adult cats less than __%
Primary infection problems with FeLV are with _______ and ________. Development of age related resistance is contributed to increase ____________ of the cat.
- pediatric; geriatric
Pathogenesis of FeLV is Divided into what Five Stages?
- Stage 1. Viral replication in tonsils/regional Lymph Nodes (due to virus is consumed orally thru H2O and feed)
- Stage 2. Infection of circulating lymphocytes (Type B)
- Stage 3. Replication in spleen, internal Lymph Nodes & marrow
- Stage 4. Release of infected neutrophils and thrombocytes from the bone marrow
- Stage 5. Infection of epithelial and glandular tissue shedding virus in saliva and urine
What are Four Possible Outcomes that Can be Anticipated with FeLV Infections?
- 1. Primary Viremia with immunity built by host
- 2. Viremia #2 or Secondary Viremia
- 3. Latency
- 4. Immune Carrier
Primary Viremia with immunity built by host.
What are 2 symptoms of this outcome?
How long do the Symptoms last?
This first outcome occurs in what percentage of the cases when cats are challenged for the first time?
- Host may become lethargic with anorexia.
- 3 to 10 days.
- about 40%
Viremia #2 or Secondary Viremia is characterized by a persistent infection of what 2 locations?
What is the percentage of Cats infected at the secondary viremia level that will be infected forever?
What are the symptoms?
- bone marrow; soft tissues
- Ultimately these cats will die however, they will demonstrate the same symptoms as the cats in the primary viremia for a few days and recover (for up to 3 years) only to be stressed and relapse and die
Describe Outcome 3/Latency of FeLV
Cat encounters the virus through an infected cats, harbors the virus and it is not detectable with normal in-house testing. This virus can remain undetected for an average of two years. During this time the cat will appear completely normal.
Outcome #4/Immune Carrier Most dangerous of the FeLV infections - The FeLV becomes hidden in some of the _______. Although the FeLV is multiplying, it is not able to get out of these cells because the cat is producing ________ against the virus. These cats appear normal in every way. This situation represents on ____%
- epithelial cells;
Transmission of FeLV is through what means?
__________ & __________ are possible in surviving kittens. Anemia/death can occur
- saliva (primary means), urine, epiphora, milk.
- Transplacental; transmammary
Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)
Primary viremia – __%;
Secondary viremia – __%;
Divided between latency period and immune period - __%
What are 2 types of Neoplastic Disease that are associated with FeLV?
- 1. Lymphoma (Lymphosarcoma) – most common (tumor) of the neoplastic disease
- 2. Lymphoid Leukemia (non-solid tumors – blood disorders)
The Lymphoma (Lymphosarcoma) form of FeLV neoplasma are classified in what 3 ways?
- 1. Thymic (around lymph nodes in throat)
- 2. Multicentric (all over body)
- 3. Alimentary (in intestines)
Non-neoplastic Disease – these presentations are virtually identical to the diseases associated with FIV. List 4 clinical findings
- 1. Thrombocytopenia (reduction in the thrombocytes)
- 2. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
- 3. Glomerulonephritis (kidney failure)
- 4. Thymic atrophy (fading kitten syndrome)
List 3 Prevention and Control measures for FeLV
- 1. Prevent multi-cat contacts – Ideal
- 2. Separate positive and negative cats in multi-cat households
- 3. Vaccination – should test prior to vaccinations
What are 2 types of vaccinations for FeLV?
- 1. Inactivated whole virus vaccine
- 2. Inactivated subunit vaccine
- Note: Study shows significant protection two years post subunit vaccine following initial series.
What was the 1st Feline Leukemia Vaccine? Who developed the vaccine?
What type of vaccine is it?
- Leukocell (PN)
- Norden Company
- killed virus
What Do You Tell The Client To Prevent Their Cat From Contracting The Disease? The most obvious is to _____________. This however, isn’t always possible or practical. The best solution is to see your veterinarian and have your cat or cats ____________________.
- limit or eliminate all contact with other cats
- vaccinated after they have been tested negative for FeLV. Then revaccinate yearly to maintain a high level of immunity titer.
The most frequently occurring type of soft tissue sarcomas is the ___________. The most common vaccines associated with this tumor is the ______ vaccine and _____ vaccines containing adjuvant __________. Incidence ranges from 1 tumor/1,000 vaccines to 1 tumor/10,000 vaccines.
These tumors may occur as soon as 4 months or as long as 2 years after vaccination with ________.
- FeLV; Rabies
- median 1 year Median = apx 12 months
In attenuated vaccines (Modified live), adjuvant is added to enhance the __________ that is necessary in a killed product to provide necessary immunity. This enhancement promotes _________ and results in a fibrosarcoma
- malignant transformation
What was the 1st Non-adjuvant vaccine?
Give proprietary name, manufacturer and what it contained.
- Feline Rabies Vaccine Pure Vax (PN)
- Live canarypox vector vaccine
List the Diagnostic Test for
- FIV: ELISA test & IFA (Immunoblot or Western Blot)
- FeLV: ELISA test, IFA (Immunofluorescent Antibody Test) & Viral isolation
Commercial FeLV test for viral ______ rather than ________ like other routine lab test Because of this the previous vaccine doesn’t
interfere with the ability to detect FeLV infections as in other years
Previously known as:
- Nickname: Feline Foamy Virus
- Family: Retroviridae
- Subfamily: Spumavirinae.
- Previously known as: “feline syncytium-forming virus”.
Although this virus has been isolated from primary cultures of tissue and body secretions in up to ___% of a population of cats, the FeFV infection rate in cat colonies is actually lower than that in the random cat populations.
FeFV has yet to be associated with any disease
Most cats with Feline Foamy Virus (FeFV) Infection are asymptomatic. If they are infected what are one of two forms demonstrated?
- 1. osteoporosis and periarticular periosteal proliferation producing arthritis
- 2. periarticular erosions, collapse of the joint space, and joint deformities also producing arthritis of a more severe nature
How do you Diagnose Feline Foamy Virus (FeFV)?
Joint fluid abnormalities with high neutrophils and large monocytes.
Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
What is another name for this Disease?
How is it transmitted?
Clinically when was it first described?
What is the Family?
What is the Order?
- Feline Coronavirus Infection
- Social type of transfer from feces from the litter box
What are the symptoms of Feline Enteric Coronavirus (FECV) Do we vaccinate for this in cats?
What are the symptoms of Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)? Do we vaccinate for this in cats?
What coronavirus is closely related to the FIP virus?
- Mild diarrhea and vomiting, and is not fatal. Normally we do not vaccinate for this in cats.
- Extremely virulent Coronavirus that always leads to death. We generally do vaccinate for this type of Coronavirus in cats.
- Canine coronavirus
The Feline Coronavirus (FCoV) is a _____ enveloped RNA virus that comes in what two forms?
- pleomorphic (ever changing shape and position)
- FIPV (Feline Infectious Peritonitis) and
- FECV (Feline Enteric Coronavirus).
List the 2 Corona viruses that are associated with the pig and the dog
- Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE) porcine
- Canine Coronavirus (CCV) dogs
The coronavirus are large, ______ and positive strained ___ viruses.
The major viral proteins are divided into what 3 different categories?
- enveloped; RNA
- 1. Spike (S)
- 2. Nucleocapsid (N)
- 3. Membrane (M)
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) caused by _______________.
How did SARS come to the US?
What city has the highest incident of upper respiratory Coronavirus/SARS virus in the United States?
- SARS coronavirus (SARS-CoV)
- China/Hong Kong into Toronto then into the US
- Las Vegas
Feline Coronaviruses (FCoV) are in group ________ of Coronaviridae?
List 2 other diseases are included in this group?
- 1S (Spike)
- Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE) in pigs. Canine Coronavirus
What are 2 reasons for the increase in the Prevalence of FIP in Recent Years?
- Reason1: With the introduction of cat litter, more cats have been kept permanently indoors, exposing them to large doses of feline coronavirus in the feces
- Reason2: More cats are spending part of their lives in multi cat crowded environments which increases stress and chances of exposure to pathogen while in such an environment. Overcrowding and poor housing increases spread of the virus.
List the 4 viruses found in kennel cough.
- Canine Adenovirus Type2 (CAV-2)
- Parainfluenza virus
- Bordetella bronchiseptica
- Canine Coronavirus
Research at Cornell University revealed in the journal Emerging Infectious Disease that they discovered how feline enteric coronavirus (FECV) turns into ____________.
A Cornell vet 1st discovered FIPV in ____.
During transformation, FECV mutates and migrates from intestinal cells to the WBCs or macrophages, where it becomes deadly, especially among _______.
- feline infectious peritonitis or FIPV;
How is Feline Coronavirus Spread?
CoV positive cats can live a very long time if not stressed by environment; however they remain ________ indefinitely for the remainder of their life and thus other cats in the household should be checked to insure they are FCoV negative and then separated from a positive cat forever. If an owner seeks to keep the positive cat, they must be separated and never use a common ________.
- Feces is the primary source point.
- litter box
What are Two Forms of FIP?
Which is more prevalent among the cat population?
What determines which form of the disease the cat will contract?
What is a constant symptom of both forms?
- The Effusive (wet) Acute Form; The Non-effusive (dry) Chronic Form
- Effusive (wet) Acute Form
- The strength of the animals immune system
What are 2 clinical signs of the Effusive (wet) Acute form of FIP?
- Lung signs include muffled cardiac and pulmonary sounds, dyspnea, cardiac tamponade and decreased chest compressibility.
- Abdominal signs include the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the abdominal cavity characteristic of a typical case of ascites
What are signs of the Non-Effusive Form or Dry Form?
- Signs of the CNS and ocular disease can either accompany or be the sole evidence of the non-effusion form
- One will witness ataxia, seizures, behavioral changes, vestibular signs, cranial nerve dysfunction, paresis, hyperesthesia and urinary incontinence.
Clinical Signs of the common FIPV
Effusive (Wet) Form:
Non-effusive (granulomatous) Dry Form:
- Effusive (Wet) Form: Protein-rich fluid in abdomen & lungs (transudate early, exudate later), Ascites of the abdomen and Pulmonary Edema of the lungs
- Non-effusive (granulomatous) Dry Form: CNS & Ocular Disease most common
How do you Diagnose FIP?
Histopathologic exams are the only definitive method as cats often have high titers to coronaviruses without developing FIP disease (symptoms).
There has never been a definite correlation between circulating ________ and protection to FIPV or FECV.
What is the name and manufacturer for the FIP Vaccination? This vaccine provides a significant titer for protection in cats over ______ of age and is safe in ______% of vaccinates
- Primucell FIP from Pfizer
- 16 weeks
What are 4 Treatments for FIP?
Dr. Younger used _______ in his pet along with blood transfusions. Why this drug?
- 1. Drain fluid from abdomen
- 2. antibiotics for secondary bacterial infections
- supportive therapy
- 3. fluid therapy for dehydration
- 4. good nutrition
- prednisone - It reduces in the inflammation associated with the virus
Life expectancies of FIP are dependent on
- immune system
- supportive care
- type of FIP form
What disease would you refrain from giving vaccinations if the animal tests positive?
Why do you not give the vaccine?
- Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
- because it predisposes the animal to use what antibodies the animal does have engaged.
Feline respiratory disease caused by ______ viral agents continues to be a serious problem within the cat population, especially in ___________. Spread by ______ and easily transmitted by multiple cat facilities
- large metropolitan areas likes Houston and multiple cat facilities and breeding catteries
List the 3 respiratory viral agents responsible for the majority of viral respiratory infections in cats.
What are 3 others that we can vaccinate for include reovirus, Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP) and Feline Leukemia virus
- feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1); feline viral rhinotracheitis (FRT); feline calicivirus (FCV)
- reovirus; Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP); Feline Leukemia virus
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis - called “______”
______ with ______ envelope
- Etiology: feline herpesvirus (FHV-1)
- Family: Herpesviridae
- Subfamily: Alphaherpesvirinae
- DNA; lipoprotein
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis - Human Treatment is a ointment for the eyes called _______ that kills FHV-1 applied once to twice a day
Envelope - they are ____ to kill with disinfectants.
Non-envelope - they are ____ to kill
- difficult ie. Parvo use sodium hydrochloride (bleach)
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis
Enzootic = ____% - Morbidity; __% - Mortality
What members of Felidae family are susceptible?
- 100%; 30%
- All members of Felidae family are susceptible
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FVRT) Feline herpesvirus (FHV-1)
What are 2 modes of Transmission:
What is the Incubation period?
What is the Course of the Disease if uncomplicated?
- 1. Aerosol & direct – cat to cat transmission
- 2. Vertical – queens to kittens (abortion)
- 3 – 5 days after exposure
- 5-7 days
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FVRT) Feline herpesvirus (FHV-1)
What are the Clinical Signs?
What are 2 ways to Diagnose?
Differential includes what 2 diseases?
- sneezing, conjunctivitis, and ocular discharge. Appear 3-5 days after the exposure to virus. Most common sign for Feline herpesvirus is sneezing.
- Clinical Signs (primarily) & Viral Isolation – not practical ($)
- Calicivirus and Pneumonitis (bacteria)
________ propels many viral particles into the air attached to moisture droplets on which FHV-1 may be transmitted to susceptible cats by _____________. Nursing queens may start to shed the virus at _____ postpartum which coincides with the loss of maternally derived immunity to FVRT
- contaminated food dishes, cages, utensils, and the clothing & hands of people.
- 4-6 weeks
________ is the most common cause of abortion in cats
________ is a common cause of abortion in equine.
- Equine Rhinopneumonitis
In the Combo FeLV & FIV SNAP Test -
Antigen for ____.
Antibody for ____.
Upper respiratory means from the
Lower respiratory means from the
- trachea bifurcation up
- trachea bifurcation down
________ – sneezing and ocular discharge - bilateral infection always present
Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FVR)
___________ – no sneezing but ulcerative stomatitis (mouth ulcers)
Feline Calicivirus (FCV)
You may see mouth ulcers with what 2 diseases?
FeLV & FIV
_________ – ocular discharges not usually bilateral
____________ – bacteria generally thought of in dogs but can be seen in stress related cats. Opportunist type disease that is waiting for a suppressed immune system.
Cause of strangles is horses ______. If I put my needle into the Bithorax triangle and pull out pus most likely your going to culture equine ______________.
- Streptococcus equi
- Streptococcus zooepidemicus
Feline Calicivirus Infection
Originally a ______ of the Family ___________
- Etiology: feline calicivirus (FCV) - RNA
- Family: Caliciviridae
- Genus: Vesivirus
- picornavirus; Picornaviridae
Feline Calicivirus Infection
- Epizootiology: all cats world wide
- Morbidity: 100%
- Mortality: 10%
- Host: Primarily domestic house cats
- Transmission: Direct with fomites & carrier cats
- Clinical Signs: Mouth ulcers (# 1 sign), pneumonia, URI, ulcerative stomatitis, enteritis, acute arthritis and chronic stomatitis
- Diagnosis: Clinical signs – primarily.
Feline Calicivirus (FCV) is a small ____ single stranded ___ virus. It is very resistant. Incidence occurs when large numbers of susceptible _______ kittens are exposed. Virus is seen most often in kittens around ____ of age.
- non-enveloped; RNA
- 2-6 months
The clinical signs produced by Feline Calicivirus (FCV) vary greatly depending on:
- The strain of the virus
- The age of the cat
- Any co-existing infections
Most practitioners differentiate the type of URI based in the location of the _____ in the cats. Lab confirmation of a diagnosis of FCV can be done by ______. This best performed on swab samples taken from the _________ or from the ____ of fatal cats. Generally the virus will either kill them or they will get better in about _________.
- viral isolation
- oropharynx; lungs
- 3-5 days
What is the Treatment for Feline Calicivirus (FCV)?
Long term persistence of this titer has been reported following vaccination with an _____. Titers for ______ in 10 isolated cats vaccinated with this type of vaccine demonstrated resistance to exposure.
Feline calicivirus vaccines are only available in combination with the _________ vaccine.
- Make sure they eat or feed them via esophageal tube.
- inactive vaccine
- 18 months
- feline herpesvirus
What is the mutation of the Calici virus called? This mutated form starts as a typical upper respiratory proto-type and progresses to an edematous swelling in the _____ or over __________. Next alopecia and dermatitis occurs in the areas that began with the swelling.
- Virulent Systemic Feline Calicivirus (VS-Calici)
- facial region
- joints of the limbs
Mild clinical signs of VS-Calici occur in about __% of those affected with severe signs including death occurring in about __%. More ______ than _________ will die.
What are 5 Characteristics that have been found with VS-Calici outbreaks?
- 1. Generally isolated to focal groups like in the Woodlands
- 2. Disease is primarily in adults that were vaccinated.
- 3. Spread is via fomites or employees
- 4. Not in the community like Harris County
- 5. Outbreaks resolve in 6-8 weeks
What is the measures should be taken when dealing with VS-Calici?
How long can the virus can survive?
Is there a vaccine available?
- Every surface should be decontaminated including walls, tables, floors, sinks, etc. Use 1:32 solution of bleach
- up to 28 days
- There is a vaccine available but will not protect against all
Panleukopenia (Feline Distemper) is an acute, severe, systemic and enteric viral disease of cats characterized by what 7 signs/symptoms?
- sudden onset pyrexia
- high mortality rate.
Until the discovery of ____ as a primary cause of death in cats, Panleukopenia was considered the primary infectious disease causing fatalities in the world.
- Nickname: Feline Distemper given to disease in the 1960s
- AKA: IFE – Infectious Feline Enteritis.
- Etiology: feline parvovirus (FPV)
- Epizootiology: all cats world wide
- Transmission: Direct (cats & fomites)
- Pathogenesis: fetus in utero results in death. Stillborn, cerebellar hypoplasia, mummified fetuses.
What are the 3 primary causes of abortion in cats listed in order?
- 1. Feline Herpesvirus – Type 1 (FHV-1)
- 2. Feline Leukemia virus (FeLV)
- 3. Feline Panleukopenia virus (FPV)
Feline panleukopenia is caused by small serologically homogeneous parvovirus with single stranded ___.
The feline parvo virus is closely related to what 3 viruses?
CPV strand _______ have been isolated from healthy cats and from those with signs of Feline Panleukopenia. In contrast Feline panleukopenia has limited replication in dogs after experimental inoculations.
- blue fox parvovirus, mink enteritis virus and of course canine parvo virus.
- 2a and 2b
Like many unenveloped parvos Feline panleukopenia survives disinfection with __% alcohol and various dilutions of Roccal, Betadine, Phenolax and other chlorine compounds. Like other unenveloped parvos the only deactivation that we know works well is _____________.
- 1:30 sodium hypochlorite
Panleukopenia (a parvo virus) means a decrease in the number of _______.
Panleukopenia is Feline Parvo from the family ________. This virus effects all species of the families ___________________. The Feline Panleukopenia virus is thought to have mutated from ________ originally and then ________ mutated to _____ in the late 70s.
- ALL the white blood cells.
- Felidae and most species of Viverridae, Procyonidae, and Mustelidae.
- Pig Parvo; Feline Parvo; Canine Parvo
6 Transmission modes of Panleukopenia
- 1. Feces
- 2. Urine
- 3. Nasal Secretions
- 4. Blood
- 5. Fomites
- 6. Fleas
List the Primary modes for transmission:
Feline Rhinotracheitis –
Feline Calicivirus –
Feline Panleukopenia –
- food & water
- feces & urine
Feline Panleukopenia causes rapidly dividing cells in what 5 areas?
- bone marrow
- lymphoid tissues
- intestinal epithelium
Feline Panleukopenia - Clinical Disease:
1. Peracute Feline Panleukopenia – mortality = ___%
2. Acute FP – mortality = _______% 3-4 days Classical signs with vomiting and diarrhea
3. Subacute – mortality = __% Mild classical signs of enteritis
4. Subclinical – no outward signs
5. InUtero – fetal death due to __________.
- 100%; Death within 24 hours
- 25 to 90%
- cerebellar or retinal dysplasia
What are 2 ways to Diagnose Panleukopenia?
- 1. Clinical signs: with history of vaccinations or no vaccinations and severe leukopenia due to a parvo virus.
- 2. Lab Diagnosis: a) CITE (ELISA test) b) Serologies can be performed by TVMDL; c)Laboratory viral isolation – not practical but can be performed at the TVMDL
What are 6 External Symptoms of Feline Panleukopenia?
- 1. High fever leading to anorexia
- 2. Cats assume a typical “hunched” posture
- 3. The head will often hang over water bowl
- 4. Animal is reluctant to swallow
- 5. Unlike the canine, enteritis in the cat is not common
- 6. In utero infection, fetal death and cerebral hypoplasia is common
List 3 Feline Viral Intestinal (Enteric) Infections
- Feline Panleukopenia
- Feline Rotavirus
- Feline Astrovirus
Where does the virus attack?
What are the symptoms?
Where is the virus Isolated?
- on the villi of the small intestine
- enteritis and diarrhea
- from feces
What is the Treatment for enteric viruses like PCV, Rotavirus and Astroviruses?
supportive including fluids/electrolytes for the diarrhea and the dehydration that accompanies the fluid loss symptoms
___________ have been identified as viral pathogens of the intestinal tract in a number of young animals. It attacks the villi of the small intestines, _____________ are the primary symptoms
- enteritis and diarrhea
What is the treatment for enteric viruses like PCV, Rotavirus and Astroviruses?
Supportive including fluids/electrolytes for the diarrhea and the dehydration that accompanies the fluid loss symptoms.
How is the parasite passed?
- Etiology: protozoan Toxoplasma gondii
- Definitive host: cat is the only definitive host for T. gondii
- Through the feces (only in cats)
Toxoplasmosis is believed to be the most common parasitic infection worldwide with over ________ people in the US infected with the parasite on record. The CDC for human medicine in Atlanta estimate that over ___% of the human population ____ and older have been infected at one time or other in their lives.
Newly infected cats can pass oocysts in their feces for up to ________. Oocysts can remain infectious for months in the environment.
What are 4 ways that carnivores (cats) and omnivores (dogs and humans) become infected?
- 2 weeks
- 1. ingesting raw meat
- 2. ingesting infectious oocysts in food and water
- 3. inhalation of oocysts from aerosols
- 4. direct contact with contaminated soil, sand & fruit
What is the primarily means of T. gondii infection in humans?
What is the only communicable way T. gondii is transmitted directly from human to human?
In animals it is only communicable in ________.
- by ingesting raw or uncooked food
- In the uterus
Toxoplasmosis (only in pets) Most infected pets are asymptomatic. If they do appear what are 4 symptoms?
- 1. Pyrexia that does not respond to penicillin and most antibiotics
- 2. diarrhea
- 3. seizures
- 4. abortion depending on whether the infection is acute or chronic.
What animals are the most susceptible to Toxoplasmosis?
If diagnosed you should also test for what 3 diseases in cats and 1 in dogs?
- Immunocompromised animals
- If diagnosed, one
- should also test for FIV, FeLV and FIP in cats and Canine Distemper in dogs.
___________ are often not conventional diseases as such, but are complications commonly seen in the domestic cat especially in the United States.
____________ Any disease that occurs from the urethra bladder outward
____________ is the term generally used for a stopped up Tom cat
What are the 3 elements of Struvite and which is the primary form?
- Feline Lower Urinary Tract Disease (FLUTD)
- Feline Urological Syndrome (FUS)
- Magnesium, Ammonium, Phosphate, hexahydrate (new discovery); magnesium
What are 6 common uroliths that may affect cats?
- 1. Struvite (magnesium, ammonium, phosphate, hexahydrate new discovery) Alkaline stone
- 2. Calcium oxalate (monohydrate or dihydrate) Most common in cats today
- 3. Ammonium urate
- 4. Xanthine (yellow and green tint)
- 5. Cystine (forms in acidic urine – common in dachshunds)
- 6. Calcium phosphate - Most common in dogs
What urolith is:
the most common in cats today?
common in dachshunds?
most common in dogs?
- Calcium oxalate
- Calcium phosphate
What percentage of uroliths from cats are composed of either struvite or calcium oxalate Calcium oxalate is composed of what 2 elements?
- monohydrate or dihydrate
Although struvite uroliths have traditionally been considered the most common type to
occur in cats, over the past few years more than 50% of bladder uroliths and more that 90% of kidney uroliths have been composed of ____________.
The most important driving force behind urolith formation is the state of urinary saturation. When a salt is added to a solvent, the salt dissolves until a particular concentration is reached, beyond which no further dissolution is possible. At this point the water (solvent) is saturated with sodium chloride. Additional salt added to the water will crystallize. This is known as ____________.
_________ is a zoonotic fungal infection of the dead, keratinized parts of the skin, including the hair, nails, and stratum corneum.
Dermatophytosis (means ringworm)
What is the most common problem of shelter dogs here at Tomball?
What is typically the etiology for dermatophytes in cats?
What are etiologies for dermatophytes in dogs?
- Microsporum canis
- M. canis, M. gypseum, or Trichophyton mentagrophytes
How are dermatophytes transmitted?
Microsporum canis is acquired from infected ______.
T. mentagrophytes is transmitted by ______
M. gypseum from _________.
M. canis is our primary problem here at Tomball College since it can remain infective in hairs and in the environment for up to _____.
- contact with infected hair and scales, fungal elements in the environment, or on fomites
- digging in the soil
- 18 months
What is a typical way to identify the Dermatophyte Lesion?
What is a less typical sign of lesions in the dog?
What is are 4 less typical signs of lesions in the cat?
- Lesions are expanding areas of alopecia (“ringworm”), peripheral erythema and papules, and hairs that fall out easily
- folliculitis on leg, paw, nail bed and nail
- miliary dermatitis (normally associated w/fleas), chin acne, stud tail, less frequently with otitis externa
What are 2 ways to diagnose Dermatophytes?
- 1. Wood’s Light/woods lamp– only M. canis will fluoresce and should be viewed in the dark.
- 2. DTM fungal culture: most reliable.
What are the 4 steps to a DTM fungal culture?
- 1. collect hairs
- 2. keep culture at room temp with no light
- 3. watch for color change in the DTM medium
- 4. look at fungus under the microscope
What are 3 Treatments for Dermatophytes?
- 1. Have the owners clip the hairs (whole body clip) at home and dispose of the hair.
- 2. Local lesions – miconazole nitrate (Monistat – in drugstores) or terbinafine.
- 3. Whole body lesions – shampoos like Malaseb-DVM (chlorhexidine blue stuff & Miconazole), LymDyp-DVM (Lime Sulfur)
What are 4 other common drug treatments?
- 1. Griseofulvin – inhibits cell wall synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis and mitosis. Don’t use on preg animals can cause abortions.
- 2. Ketoconazole – prevents the production of ergosterol needed for fungal cytoplasmic membrane formation. No for cats. Used for systemic infections
- 3. Itraconazole – used commonly for cats due to less side effects.
- 4. Terbinafine inhibits the formation of ergosterol. Appears to be safe and effective.
What is the Newest Treatment for dermatophytes?
A system treatment using, in high doses, Lufenuron (Program), which inhibits the synthesis of the fungal cell wall component chitin. Lufenuron has been shown to exhibit impressive efficacy and safety in cats and dogs using single treatment at doses exceeding those used for flea prevention.
________ – coyote, fox, jackal, wolf, dingo
________ – tiger, leopard, lion, cheetah, lynx, ocelot, margay, cougar
________ – raccoon
________ – ferret, mink, otter, skunk, weasel, marten, sable, fisher, badger
________ – bear
________ – hyena
List the disease that each of the species listed below are susceptible
All warm blooded animals are susceptible to
- Canidae: Canine Distemper (CD) and Canine Parvo
- Felidae: Feline Panleukopenia (FP) and Canine Distemper
- Procyonidae: FP and CD
- Mustelidae: FP and CD
- Ursidae: none
- Hyaenidae: FP and CD
_____________ is simply a collection of pus formed within the skin. Most commonly referred to as a ___________(deep and superficial)
__________ is a superficial pyoderma.
__________ is a deep pyoderma.
List the 2 Most common bacteria in pyodermas of animals
- 1. Staphylococcus pseudointermedius – this is the most bacteria seen in all abscesses.
- 2. Staphylococcus intermedius – is the most common bacteria seen in furunculosis.
What are the 4 Drugs of choice for the treatment of bacterial pyodermas?
- 1. Cephalosporin (Cephalexin) – first generation ceph.
- 2. Cephalosporin (Cephovacin)
- 3. Amoxicillin with Clavulante
- 4. Clindamycin (macrolides)
What are 3 Old Common Bacteria
Incriminated in pyodermas?
- 1. Staphylococcus aureus - This bacteria is rarely isolated today when cultures and sensitivities are performed. This is far different from 10 years ago.
- 2. Staphylococcus schleiferi - Although more common than aureus, it is rare in pyodermas.
- 3. Enterococcus - This is common in pododermatitis seen in dogs and rabbits, but rare in other abscesses.
What are 3 Signs of abscesses?
What are 2 Diagnostic Procedures?
What are 3 Therapies/treatments?
- Pyrexia, inflammation, & anorexia
- 1. Swab collection and 2. Biopsy for macerated tissue culture
- 1. Always drain an abscess 2. Flush out abscess with H2O2 & ab 3. Systemic ab treatments for 2 wks. past recovery
If we see a lot of ___ then we have to make sure we do the sensitivity as their presence indicates that the ab we are using is not working.
Procedure: patient should be off ab for ____ and we should institute ________ since this probably what we are looking for.
- 48 hrs
- anaerobic and fungal cultures
Skin fold Dermatitis - A bacterial surface skin infection in dogs with excessive skin folds.
List 5 types of skin fold dermatitis
- 1. Facial fold dermatitis
- 2. Lip fold dermatitis
- 3. Tail fold dermatitis
- 4. Vulvar fold dermatitis
- 5. Body fold dermatitis
________ is a superficial bacterial infection of non-haired skin that may be associated with a predisposing disease of other underlying factors such as endoparasitism, poor nutrition, or a dirty environment. Common in young dogs prior to puberty.
___________ is a superficial bacterial infection involving hair follicles and the adjacent epidermis.
Chin Pyoderma - This is not acne. It is a bacterial infection induced by ___________
Nasal Pyoderma - This is not common in dogs and cats, a facial bacterial skin infection that may be secondary to ___________.
- trauma. (I.e. lying on floors, licking, etc.)
- trauma or insect bites
___________ is a furunculosis (enterococcus usually) of the feet that is almost always secondary to some underlying factor. Common in d & c.
Dogs and cats with flea allergic dermatitis (miliary dermatitis in cats) exhibit What 5 mutilation type symptoms?
- 1. Pruruitis
- 2. Alopecia
- 3. Often folliculitis due to scratching
- 4. Hyperpigmentation
- 5. Excoriation/lichenification
What are 4 common causes of itching?
- food allergy
- sarcoptic mange
- atopy (inhalation).
What are 9 Types of Cutaneous Allergies
- 1. Canine Atopy (inhalant)
- 2. Canine Food Hypersensitivity
- 3. Flea Allergy Dermatitis - Most lesions in dogs are caudal to the rib cage
- 4. Mosquito Bite Hypersensitivity - most lesions occur on the bridge of the nose or pinnae of the ears
- 5. Urticaria and Angioedema (hives)
- 6. Feline Atopy (very similar to K-9 atopy)
- 7. Feline Food Hypersensitivity
- 8. Canine Eosinophilic Furunculosis
- 9. Contact Dermatitis
___________ is a new name for “ringworm” indicating an infection of the hair shafts and the stratum corneum layer of the dermis of the skin. The fungi are called ________ fungi.
What animals is this commonly seen?
- in immunocompromised young dogs and especially kittens.
Malasseziasis – caused by ________ is a yeast normally found in low numbers in the
external ear canals, around the mouth, and moist skin areas.
What are the symptoms in dogs and cats?
- Malassezia pachydermatis
- black, waxy otitis externa, with hand hyperkeratotic skin is common.
What would you like to do?
Home > Flashcards > Print Preview