SO1101 - Systems overview.txt

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  1. What is the generator cut-in range
  2. Generator output?
    • 115-220V
    • 3-phase
    • 320-480 cycles per second
  3. What range does the airframe mounted gearbox shift
    65-75% RPM
  4. Does the OFF position stop the generator?
    No, it disconnects it from its bus
  5. What three situations will the generator caution light illuminate
    • generator malfunction
    • bus fault
    • switched to OFF
  6. When a generator drops off line due to a bus fault, can you get a good crossover?
    No, If the malfunction is a bus fault, the protection panel will not allow a generator reset or bus transfer to the opposite generator
  7. What does the static inverter power?
    • either engine start (ground or air)
    • right engine AC sensors
    • both fuel quantity sensors and oxygen quantity
  8. How is the static inverter activated?
    • pushing either engine start button
    • advancing either throttle to AB
    • holding the fuel/oxygen check switch
  9. How are the engine Tachometers powered?
    they have their own independent generator in the engine accessory gearbox
  10. Name the AC powered engine sensors
    • oil pressure
    • fuel flow (also needs left essential DC)
    • hydraulic pressure
    • fuel quantity
    • oxygen quantity
    • Tachometer
  11. How and which busses does the APU power?
    The APU connects to the AC busses which power the TRUs which power the DC busses
  12. Indications of generator fail with good crossover
    illumination of MASTER CAUTION and generator lights and caution alert messages
  13. How many times can a generator be reset?
  14. Right gen fail no cross indications
    • HUD and UFCP go blank
    • MFD reverts to backup display
    • right oil pressure and fuel flow, oxygen quantity and all three fuel quantity show OFF
    • Flight control hydraulic indicator freezes at last position
  15. Left gen fail no cross indications
    • Illumination of the AOA indicator lights and CAUTION alert message on the HUD and MFD
    • left oil pressure and fuel flow indicators show OFF
    • utility hydraulic pressure gauge freezes
  16. Airframe mounted gearbox failure indications
    MASTER CAUTION, generator and hydraulic lights
  17. Gearbox failure to shift indications
    • occurs when moving throttle(s) through 65-75% RPM
    • Indications are the same for a generator failure
  18. Partial electric failure indications
    same as gen fail with crossover
  19. Partial electric failure indications with no cross
    • Flaps and boost pump operates slower or not at all
    • Slow or inop boost pump may lead to Fuel low pressure light
    • HUD operation/display may be affected
    • TRUs may drop offline
  20. How is the Caution Light Panel and MASTER CAUTION light powered
    • both are DC in bright and right AC in DIM
    • FIRE light is bright and DC only
  21. How can you light the WCA lights without DC power
    Set to DIM
  22. How can you light the WCA lights without AC power
    Set to BRIGHT
  23. Does a GENERATOR light always mean a generator failure?
  24. HYDRAULIC light illuminate when hydraulic pressure drops below ___ or what?
    1500, overtemp
  25. When does the FUEL PRESSURE light illuminate?
    fuel pressure drops below 6psi (normally 10)
  26. When does the ENG ANTI-ICE ON light illuminate?
    switched on, right fail gen no cross
  27. When is the ANTI-ICE system on w/o the light?
    below 65% RPM
  28. When does the OXYGEN light illuminate?
    below 1 liter, may blink due to sloshing
  29. When does the FUEL LOW light illuminate?
    7.5 seconds at 250lbs
  30. Will the MASTER CAUTION light reilluminate after being reset when the second tank goes below 250?
  31. What is the approximate life of the battery after TRU failure?
  32. During normal operation, what is the primary DC power source
  33. Which of the following aircraft components are inoperative when there is complete DC electrical failure
    • MFD
    • AB operation
    • Crossfeed operation
    • Landing Gear Indicators (Bright mode)
    • Fire warning lights
    • EED
  34. The right TRU receives power from the ___ and the left receives power from the ___
    • right AC bus contactor
    • left AC bus contactor
  35. Can one TRU carry the entire DC load
  36. What if both TRUs fail?
    the battery picks up the DC load for only the two essential DC busses
  37. When is the non essential DC bus shed?
    when the bus drops from 28 VDC to 24 VDC
  38. What may cause a momentary illumination of XMFR RECT OUT?
    • flaps moving
    • fuel/oxygen quantity check
    • AB ignition
  39. Is the battery charging when the APU is connected?
  40. What three times is battery power required?
    • non-APU start
    • both TRUs fail
    • both gen inop
  41. Indications of a single TRU fail
    AVIONICS alert on the HUD/MFD
  42. Indications of both TRU fail
    MASTER CAUTION, XMFR RECT OUT illuminates and caution alert is displayed on MFD
  43. If ON, when does the battery drop off line?
    drops below 10V
  44. If ON, indications of weak battery
    • low volumes
    • raspy interphone and poor radio transmission capability
    • caution panel lights dim
  45. If the battery is on, power can be conserved by turning off what
    • MFD
    • EED
    • UHF backup control
    • EGI
    • emergency flood lights
    • TCAS
  46. Total DC failure recovery considerations
    chase ship or to a VFR field (Lost all comm/navigation capability)
  47. Right essential DC bus failure recovery considerations
    • standyby instruments for control and performance
    • stay VMC
    • use chase ship to lead back
    • Squawk emer and use NAV B/U for the VOR
    • Alternate gear extension
  48. Left essential DS bus failure recovery considerations
    • stay VMC or use chase to lead back
    • No-flap required
  49. Total electrical failure recovery considerations
    • standy by instruments only
    • Idle to Mil only, no AB.
    • No airstart
    • alternate gear extension with no indication
    • No flaps trim or speedbrake
  50. Right AC bus Failure considerations
    • MDP and HUD inop.
    • Only backups on MFD.
    • Must use UHF/NAV backup control panel.
    • No flaps, trim, right boost pump, A/C and eventually canopy seal
  51. Left AC bus failure considerations
    • mostly a concern at night since normal aircraft lighting is affected.
    • SAS, rudder trim and left boost pump are inop
  52. What is AC power provided and how are they powered?
    2 independent generators powered through airframe mounted gearbox
  53. TRUs convert power from AC to DC or DC to AC?
    AC to DC
  54. TRUs convert ___ - ___ volt three-phase AC power to __ ___ DC power
    • 115-200
    • 28 Volt
  55. What is the purpose of the TRUs?
    Provide primary DC power source
  56. What is the alternate DC power source?
    24-volt lead acid battery
  57. What two things does the battery provide power to when the TRUs are offline?
    Essential DC busses and battery bus
  58. What position should the battery switch be in for an APU start?
  59. What is the primary purpose of the battery?
    Engine Starts
  60. What is the static inverter powered by?
    Battery bus
  61. What does the static inverter do?
    Converts DC to AC for instruments monitoring right engine start
  62. What three ways is electrical power distributed in the T-38?
    • Left and right AC busses
    • 3 DC busses (1 non-essential)
    • and battery bus
  63. EGI storage and memory requires at least ___ secs of aircraft power after turning off the EGI switch on the AAP
  64. AC Electrical Components
    • (GAP SAAB)
    • Generator
    • AC Bus
    • Protection Panels
    • Static Inverter
    • AC-powered instruments
    • APU
    • Bus contactors/transfer relays
  65. What are the three main specifications of the generators?
    • three phase
    • 320-480 cycle
    • 115-200 volt
  66. What does the engine-mounted gearbox power besides the generator?
    Hydraulic pump
  67. What RPM does gearbox shift occur?
  68. Each generator supplies AC electrical power to what?
    AC electrical bus
  69. Generators normally carry ___ the electrical load
  70. If one generator fails, the other will supply AC power to both systems dependent on what?
    Transfer relay
  71. What are the three generator switch positions?
    On, Off, and Reset
  72. What does putting the gen switch to OFF do?
    Disconnects the generator from the circuit. DOES NOT turn off the generator (engine windmilling)
  73. How would you attempt to get a failed generator back online?
    Select RESET then ON
  74. When do GEN caution lights illuminate?
    GEN switch in off or any GEN malfunction or bus fault
  75. How many bus contactors are there for each generator and where are they?
    2 located in the aft electrical compartment (behind the rear seat)
  76. What is contained within the bus contactors?
    Main relays and transfer relays
  77. What is the function of the main relays within the bus contractor?
    Connects generators to their respective busses
  78. What is the function of the transfer relays within the bus contractor?
    Connect bus loads to opposite generator in case of a malfunction.
  79. What does the transfer relay do in the event of a bus fault?
    Does not allow a transfer to the other generator
  80. What are the 2 times a generator will disconnect from its bus?
    Gen malfunction (cross) and bus fault (no cross)
  81. What are the 2 times in the checklist that the transfer relay (crossover) is checked?
    R-L checked on R engine start. R-L and L-R checked during before taxi check
  82. What are the 3 ways to activate the static inverter?
    • Placing either throttle in AB
    • using fuel/o2 test switch
    • pressing start button
  83. Static inverter provides power to the following equipment
    • Right engine AC instruments
    • Ignition - L and R
    • Fuel and O2 quantity gauges
  84. What do most standard AC instruments do when they fail?
    They freeze (AC lies, DC dies)
  85. What would happen to your instruments with a loss of AC?
    Loss of EED indications (oil, fuel flow, fuel quantity) hydraulic and O2 freeze
  86. What type of power does the APU provide?
    AC (replicating generators and engines running)
  87. What happens when a generator connects to a bus after an APU is connected?
    External power relay disconnects the APU
  88. What must you sometimes do to get the aircraft to accept APU power?
    Cycle battery off, then on
  89. What type and amount of power do the TRUs put out?
    28V DC
  90. What happens if one TRU fails?
    The other will carry the entire DC electrical load
  91. How many and what types of DC busses are there?
    3 - 2 essential, 1 non-essential
  92. What DC busses are powered if the battery is the only source of power?
    2 essential busses
  93. What are the 4 situations when the battery would be the only source of DC power?
    • Starts without an APU
    • both TRUs failed
    • Both GENs inop
    • DC components causing a drain on DC bus below 24 volts
  94. What three things are on the battery bus?
    • static inverter
    • L/R start control
    • L/R afterburner ignition control
  95. What is the min volts for the battery to connect to the DC bus?
    18 volts
  96. What is the min voltage for the battery to stay online?
    10 volts
  97. How long (approximately) will battery power last?
    15 mins at 80% charge
  98. What are the DC-powered instruments and displays?
    • (FEMS)
    • Flap position indicator
    • EED (EGT. Nozzle position)
    • MFD
    • standby attitude indicator
  99. Are map lights DC or AC?
  100. Is interior lighting DC or AC?
  101. During an AC power failure, what will happen to the interior lights?
    They will revert to DC - bright during night, dim during day
  102. Is bright mode for the WCA system AC or DC?
  103. What are the 4 instruments not affected by the caution/light panel dimmer switch?
    • Marker beacon
    • FIRE lights
    • AOA
    • takeoff trim indicator lights
  104. How do you dim the WCA lights?
    Ensure rheostat is out of off, place switch in DIM to change from DC to AC
  105. What happens of an AC power failure occurs for the WCA lights?
    Revert to DC (bright) mode
  106. What 2 lights cannot be dimmed?
    FIRE lights and Takeoff trim indicator
  107. What 3 lights are inop with a DC failure?
    • FIRE lights
    • Master Caution Lights
    • RCP nosegear light
  108. What 2 things have to happen for the tone test pattern to work?
    MDP timed-in and gear warning silence button depressed
  109. What 3 things does the test switch on the right front console test?
    • tone test pattern
    • fire detection system
    • and master caution and caution panel lights
  110. What are the 2 places the rotating beacon is located?
    Bottom of fuselage and vertical stab
  111. What 3 places are position lights located?
    wintips, vertical stab, lower fuselage
  112. What are the two main features of the landing/taxi light?
    Retractable, and dual filament
  113. What two things must be activated for the landing/taxi light to be extended?
    Position lights ON, and landing gear handle DOWN
  114. When are both filaments in the landing light on?
    When the aircraft is airborne and the gear is down
  115. When is only one filament in the lighting light on?
    When the weight of the aircraft is on the main gear
  116. How long does it take the landing light to retract?
    10 seconds
  117. What is the center of gravity restriction for a fuel imbalance during solo flight?
    The right system cannot exceed twice the amount of the left system
  118. In the event of AC power failure, how could you check your fuel quantity?
    • Hold the fuel/oxygen check switch in the QTY CHECK position
    • Hold the fuel/oxygen check switch in the GAGE TEST position
    • Activate either start button
  119. When will the fuel quantity low-level (FUEL LOW) caution light illuminate?
    Within 7.5 seconds after either indicator reads below 250 pounds remaining
  120. While flying in the traffic patter, what procedure is recommended to balance the fuel
    Use differential power settings
  121. With 1,000 pounds of fuel in each system, the right engine flamed out and will not restart. All other sytems are operating normally. After 10 minutes of single-engine operation, the left fuel system drops down to 750lbs while the right fuel system remains at 1,000lbs. How can the fuel switches be setup to guarentee the use of the fuel in the right fuel system
    Use the crossfeed operation with the left boost pump OFF
  122. Four steps to crossfeed from the left system (right system low) and then return to normal operation.
    • crossfeed switch ON
    • Right boost pump switch OFF
    • Right boost pump switch ON
    • Cross feed switch OFF
  123. The fuel crossfeed allows you to
    • Feed both engines from either system
    • Feed either engine from both systems
  124. Which of the following statements describes the operation of the FUEL PRESS caution light
    Illumination of the light indicates a loss of fuel pressure and possible boost pump fail
  125. The fuel (JP-8) capacity of the T-38C with single point refueling is
    3906 usable
  126. During flight, your right boost pump is inop. Thr right system contains 1500lbs and the left is at 1200lbs. Which of the following would correctly allows you to balance the system
    Differential power settings
  127. Normal refueling is done how?
    single point refueling
  128. Single point refueling provides how much fuel?
    3906lbs usable
  129. What kind of fuel is used?
  130. How many pounds in the right tanks?
  131. How many pounds in the left tank?
  132. Over the Top refueling provides how much fuel?
    3866lbs usable
  133. If being filled "Over the Top" which tank must be filled first?
  134. How many fuel cells are there?
  135. Which fuel cells provide fuel to the left tank?
    Fore and aft dorsal cells, and forward fuselage cell
  136. Which fuel cells provide fuel to the right tank?
    Center and aft fuselage cells
  137. Where is the common vent located for the fuel tanks ?
    In the tail above the rudder
  138. How many fuel probes are there?
  139. The fuel indicator displays total capacity or usable fuel?
    usable fuel
  140. When does the FUEL LOW light illuminate?
    when EITHER fuel indicator reads below 250 for 7.5 seconds
  141. Does the FUEL LOW light illuminate when you have 250lbs or less in the tank or when the indicator reads 250 or less?
  142. Will you still get the FUEL LOW light if you lose the fuel quantity indicator?
  143. What powers the boost pumps?
    AC on the respective side
  144. How does the fuel system compensate for inverted or 0-G flight?
    The boost pump is contained in and inverted flight chamber which traps enough fuel for short periods of time
  145. In MAX power, gravity feed should provide sufficient power up to what altitude?
  146. In MAX power, gravity feed is guaranteed only to what altitude?
  147. In MAX power and gravity feed, flameouts have occurred as allow as what altitude?
  148. What powers the fuel shutoff valves?
    Left essential DC
  149. Where are the fuel shutoff valves located?
    after the boost pump and before the filter and pressure sensor
  150. What two ways can you close the fuel shutoff valves?
    Fuel shutoff switch and throttle(s) - off
  151. Why don't you use the fuel shutoff switch in normal operation?
    it can damage the fuel system
  152. What happens when the fuel filter becomes clogged?
    filter is bypassed
  153. what indicates a bypassed filter?
    red indicator extends from the underside of the aircraft
  154. Where is the fuel filter located?
    after the fuel shutoff valve and before the pressure sensor
  155. Where are the boost pumps located?
    at the bottom of the tank systems in an inverted flight chamber for each respective side
  156. What does the FUEL PRESS light indicate?
    pressure is below 6 psi (normally 10). Possible leak or loss of boost pump
  157. Where is the fuel pressure sensor?
    after the filter, before the engine
  158. With FUEL PRESS light on, crossfeed OFF, fuel shutoff in norm and throttle is out of off, is it boost pump fail or leak?
    boost pump fail
  159. With FUEL PRESS light on, crossfeed ON, fuel shutoff in norm and throttle out of off, is it boost pump or leak?
  160. Easy way to differentiate between boost pump fail and fuel leak with FUEL PRESS light?
    crossfeed OFF is boost pump fail, crossfeed ON is fuel leak
  161. When is a normal momentary illumination of the FUEL PRESS light?
    AB ignition
  162. How much of an imbalance before using crossfeed?
  163. Can you transfer fuel from one tank system to another using crossfeed?
  164. If operating single engine, how do you use all the available fuel in both sides?
  165. When crossfeeding with only one engine (using fuel from both sides), the engine is fuel by which tank group?
    the one with the stronger boost pump
  166. When less than 250 lbs in either system managing balance is less important than what?
    preventing a flameout
  167. When less than 250 lbs in either system, what should be done to prevent flameout?
    Both boost pumps on, crossfeed on
  168. With both boost pumps on, crossfeed on and one tank empties, what happens?
    the other tank takes full over fuel feeding
  169. The RCP boostpump and crossfeed lights indicate what?
    switch position and not actual operation
  170. What 5 times do you not cross feed?
    • Boost pump fail
    • Fuel leak
    • Fuel quantity malfunction
    • Two engines and low altitude
    • Two engines and low fuel
  171. How is the engine fuel if the boost pump is inop?
    • gravity feed
    • With one to two engines and one to two fuel systems (left/right) when will gravity feed provide sufficient fuel gravity feed should be sufficient for 2 engine and 2 fuel systems, 1 engine and 2 fuel systems, but may NOT be sufficient for 2 engines and 1 system
  172. T-38 engine model designation
    J85-GE-5R (PMP)
  173. What are the 7 parts of the engine, in order
    • (FCMCTEAN)
    • Front frame
    • Compressor
    • main frame
    • combustor
    • turbine
    • exhaust
    • afterburner
    • nozles
  174. What is the function of the front frame section?
    Admit air into compressor section and direct airflow into the first stage compressor at proper angle
  175. What is the function of the compressor section?
    Supply large masses of compressed air into the combustion section.
  176. What is the function of the main frame section?
    Primary structural component and divergent diffuser passage for compressed air entering combustion section
  177. What is the function of the combustion section?
    To add fuel to the compressed air and ignite it
  178. What is the function of the turbine section?
    Extract energy from the high-velocity airstream to drive compressor and engine accessories
  179. What is the function of the exhaust section?
    Smooths out airflow leaving turbine and entering tailpipe, contains AB fuel and lighting components and T5 sensor
  180. What is the function of the afterburner section?
    augment thrust of main engine 5-40% at a cost of twice the fuel consumption per pound of thrust
  181. What is the function of the variable area exhaust nozzle?
    Provides an efficient exit passage that opens and closes to optimize engine efficiency and control EGT
  182. What is the purpose of the variable geometry system?
    Inlet guide vanes direct incoming air to the optimum AOA
  183. What are the operating characteristics of the variable geometry system?
    At low RPM, bleed valve opens to allow compressed air escape the 3rd-5th stages of the compressor
  184. What is the purpose of the engine anti-ice system?
    To prevent ice build-up on the inlet vanes and bullet nose of the engine
  185. What are the operating characteristics of the engine anti-ice system?
    Directs 8th stage compressor air; automatically comes on with right AC failure
  186. What is the purpose of the engine accessories?
    Converts engine power into usable power for aircraft systems
  187. What are the operating characteristics of the engine accessories?
    Divided into 2 sections - airframe accessories and airframe mounted gearbox. Driven by a power takeoff (PTO) from engine compressor drive shaft
  188. What is the purpose of the fire detection system?
    Warn the pilot of a high-temperature condition in the engine bay
  189. What are the operating characteristics of the fire detection system?
    • Cannot be dimmed
    • independent for L and R
    • operates on DC power
    • sensors are pneumatically operated through inert gas
    • can respond to average or highly localized temps
  190. What is unique about the tachometer?
    Only independently operated indicator in the whole jet
  191. What are the three failure modes of the tachometer?
    • broken wire (0%)
    • sheared oil pump shaft
    • EED failure (FAIL)
  192. What are the AC-powered instruments?
    • hydraulic pressure
    • engine tachometer
    • fuel flow
    • fuel quantity
    • oxygen quantity
    • oil px
  193. What are the engine-oil restrictions for zero-g and neg-g flight?
    10 seconds and 30 seconds
  194. What are the DC-powered instruments?
    • (NEEF)
    • nozzle, EED, EGT, flaps
  195. What purpose of the inlet guide vanes serve?
    Reduce possibility of compressor stalls
  196. How will anti-ice be affected with an AC power failure?
    fully effective (automatic) above 80% RPM
  197. What atmospheric conditions should you use anti-ice?
    Temp near or below 32*, visible moisture or high humidity
  198. What is the primary advantage of afterburners in engine design?
    High thrust for low weight
  199. Name 3 properties of the T5 system and nozzles
    • Nozzles close until 97%
    • T5 operates nozzles to maintain 630-650 EGT in MAX
    • T5 system's purpose maintain EGT within limits
  200. What are two ways you can observe the T5 system working?
    • Observe EGT between 630 and 650
    • check nozzles open while advancing throttle from 97% to MIL
  201. What is the T5 electrical source?
    Independent AC alternator
  202. Main fuel pumps supply fuel under _________ pressure
  203. Main fuel control is a _______________ unit
  204. Main fuel control has two major systems, the _____________ and ________________ system
    • Computer
    • metering
  205. Main fuel control computer section…
    senses engine inlet temp, compressor discharge pressure, engine speed and throttle position
  206. Fuel metering section…
    delivers computed fuel flow to the engine
  207. Auxiliary function of the main fuel control is…
    schedule the Variable Geometry System (VGS)
  208. The overspeed governor (OSG)…
    mechanically monitors the maximum speed of the engine
  209. Fuel flow transmitter…
    measures main engine fuel flow only, not AB
  210. Afterburner fuel pump is mounted…
    on the engine accessory section
  211. Afterburner fuel control has three major sections…
    • 1. computer section
    • 2. fuel metering section
    • 3. nozzle control
  212. AB computer section senses…
    compressor discharge pressure and throttle setting
  213. AB fuel metering section…
    supplies correct fuel flow to pilot burner and main AB spraybar manifolds
  214. T5 system (turbine discharge temp) engages at ___
  215. AB nozzle control section…
    schedules the exhaust nozzle opening when directed by the T5 system
  216. # of sets of spraybars in the AB section
  217. ___________ bus is used for a ground start
  218. _________ engine should be started first
  219. Static inverter converts __ power to __ for the ______ engine instruments
    DC, AC, right AC
  220. Battery switch should be ___ before connecting the APU
  221. With one engine operating you can attempt _______________ airstarts
  222. With a dual engine flameout, attempt to start the ___________ engine first
  223. Leave the throttle at IDLE for __ seconds before aborting a start
  224. Airstart envelope
    • 25,000'
    • minimum of 12% RPM (18-20% is heart for all altitudes)
    • allow full 30-second cycle
    • if at extremely low altitudes use alternate airstart procedure
  225. Compressor stall is a…
    disruption of smooth airflow over the compressor blades
  226. Low altitude, high airspeed compressor stall indications
    • loud noise
    • rapid RPM increase
    • rapid EGT increase
  227. High altitude, low airspeed compressor stall indications
    • rapid RPM decrease
    • rapid EGT decrease
  228. Sheared oil pump shaft fail indications
    oil pressure and RPM decrease to Zero, T5 system fails
  229. Correct course of action for Sheared oil pump shaft
    Shut down the affected engine
  230. T5 system failure indications
    • AB will probably not ingnite
    • high EGT
    • closed nozzle at or above ~97% RPM
  231. Why does the T-38C aircraft have two hydraulic reservoirs
    To allow for two independent hydraulic systems
  232. What are the minimum, normal range, and maximum hydraulic system pressure limitations
    • 1500
    • 2850-3200
    • 3200
  233. When will the hydraulic caution light illuminate
    The hydraulic caution light illuminates when there is a hydraulic overtemp and hydraulic low pressure. It will NOT illuminate for an overpressure, but an overpressure will often lead to an overtemp
  234. Can you maneuver the T-38C with the left engine frozen and the right gearbox failed
    No, immediate ejection is recommended. A frozen engine produces no hydraulic pressure along with a gear box fail. With no pressure, you get not control
  235. Which of the following statements about the airframe mounted gearbox are true
    When you lose the airframe mounted gearbox, you lose the generator and the hydraulic pump. A gearbox fail to shift does not affect the hydraulics on that side
  236. If the left airframe mounted gearbox shaft shears
    the gear must be lowered with the alternate system
  237. With 0 hydraulic pressure will you have control of the primary flight controls
  238. The flight control hydarulic system is which side and controls what
    Right, ailerons, rudder, horizontal stabilizer
  239. The utility hydraulic system is which side and controls what
    • Left
    • flight controls
    • landing gear
    • NWS
    • stability augmentor
    • speed brake
  240. With both hydraulic systems inop, can you move the flight controls
  241. What are the main components of each hydraulic system?
    • Reservoir
    • Pump
    • indicating and warning system
  242. Where are the hydraulic reservoirs mounted in the engine bay
    above the hydraulic pumps
  243. How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?
    bleed air from the engine
  244. The hydraulic pump is driven by what?
    By the engine through the airframe mounted gearbox
  245. When the airframe mounted gearbox fails to shift, how does this affect the hydraulic system?
    No effect, the hydraulic pump compensates for both low and high engine speeds
  246. How is the hydraulic pressure indicating system powered?
    AC for each respective side
  247. After the MASTER CAUTION and the respective hydraulic light illuminate, when will both lights extinguish?
    When hydraulic pressure rises above 1800psi
  248. What distinguishes a hydraulic overtemp vs low pressure indications?
    Both will give MASTER CAUTION and respective hydraulic light but overtemp will indicate normal hydraulic pressure
  249. If caution light illuminate due to hydraulic overtemp, when will the lights extinguish?
    when the hydraulic temp drops below the high-temperature point (the temp at which the lights went on)
  250. Will a leak in one hydraulic system affect the other?
  251. With a leak in a hydraulic system, the hydraulic pressure ___ with control movements and eventually ___.
    fluctuates wildly, drops to zero
  252. With Low hydraulic pressure avoid ___ and then ___
    avoid zero and negative-G flight, land as soon as possible
  253. What can cause zero hydraulic pressure?
    engine seizure and airframe mounted gearbox failure
  254. With zero hydraulics, land as soon as ___.
    land as soon as possible
  255. What can cause high hydraulic pressure?
    faulty pressure regulator or a line restriction
  256. What can cause high hydraulic temp?
    • continued operation at high hydraulic pressure
    • engine fire
    • hydraulic pump malfunction
  257. Continued operation with high hydraulic temp will affect the flight controls how?
    eventually flight controls will get sluggish and may bind
  258. Indication of airframe mounted gearbox failure
    Both genertor and hydraulic light illumination on a side
  259. With a rudder system failure, the rudder may defelect a full __ degrees
  260. With a rudder system failure, the rudder will reach the full 30 degree position in __ to __ seconds
  261. Indications of rudder system failure
    increasing yaw followed by a violent roll and departure from controlled flight
  262. Can the aircraft be controlled with a rudder system failure?
    only for the first two seconds, but the 30 degree deflection will lead to an accelerated stall and become completely uncontrollable
  263. If rudder system failure in flight occurs, what actions are taken?
    immediate ejection
  264. If rudder system failure is suspected on takeoff roll, what actions are taken?
    high speed abort or ejection
  265. What is the difference between Rudder system malfunction and flap and aileron malfunction?
    Aircraft is controllable with flap or aileron malfunction
  266. With a stability augmentor malfunction, the rudder can move a maximum of _ degrees in as little as _seconds
    4, 0.25
  267. If in highspeed and high AOA a stability augmentor malfuntion can cause ___
    an abrupt uncommanded roll
  268. If a stability augmentor malfuction occurs, what action is taken?
    turn the stab-aug system OFF
  269. If turning the stability augmentor system off due to a malfunction, can you continue your mission?
  270. If the yaw damper switch disengages in flight, can you turn it back on?
  271. if you reset the yaw damper and it immediately disengages but rudder response is normal, can you continue your mission?
    yes, but write it up
  272. Indications of rudder system failure vs a stability augmentor failure
    with a stab-aug failure the rudder can still be moved and the aircraft is still easily controlled
  273. What provides the artificial feel for the flight control system?
    System of springs for aileron/rudder and a bobweight for the stabilizer
  274. Describe the flight control system path from control stick to flight controls
    Movement of the control stick/rudder pedals actuates a cable system which in turn operates hydraulic servo valves of actuating cylinders for each flight control surface
  275. How are the flight control servo valves' operation
    Pressurized hydraulic fluid flows to the actuated valve to the appropriate side of the cylinder, which operates the control surface
  276. What electrical system operates the trim?
    Right AC
  277. When the trim system is actuated, what actually happens?
    Electric motors move the control stick position relative to the artificial feel springs which in turn moves the flight controls hydraulically
  278. Which hydraulic system(s) to aileron and stabilizer trim use?
    Utility and flight
  279. What two things can move stabilizer trim?
    Stick trim button and takeoff trim button
  280. What does it mean when the takeoff trim light is green?
    The stabilizer is correctly trimmed for takeoff
  281. What is the range of movement for the rudder using rudder trim?
  282. What must be on for the rudder trim to operate?
    Stab-aug system
  283. What must be on for the stab-aug system to operate?
    Both EGI and yaw damper must be on
  284. What directly activates the stability augmentation system (SAS)?
    EGI switch
  285. What type of power does yaw damper require and what hydraulic system does it use?
    left AC and utility
  286. What hydrualic/electrical power does the speed brake use?
  287. How can you get intermediate speed brake positions?
    Momentarily placing either switch in the desired position and returning the switch to OFF
  288. What position must the speed brake switch be in to allow it to "creep" up with airload pressure?
  289. Which speedbrake switch has priority?
  290. What would cause the speed brake to freeze in position?
    DC electrical failure
  291. What hydraulic/electrical power does NWS use?
  292. What 2 things must happen for NWS to work?
    Weight on nosegear, NWS button depressed
  293. What happens when you release the NWS button?
    Nosewheel returns to center
  294. Utility hydraulics memory acronym
    FANGS - Flight controls, Augmenter (SAS), NWS, Gear, SB
  295. Landing gear hydraulic/electrical power?
  296. Why do we open gear doors on after landing checklist?
    Allows for preflight/postflight inspection of the gear well area
  297. What are the 2 times you would use thelanding gear alternate release handle?
    DC electrical or utility hydraulic failure
  298. How does the landing gear alternate release handle work?
    disengages electrical/hydraulics and allows gravity/airstream to bring the gear down
  299. In what position must the landing gear handle be in for the alternate release handle to work?
    Either position
  300. What becomes unavailable if alternate gear extension is used?
  301. The mechanical linkage rudder limiter system restricts rudder deflection to what when the nose gear is extended 3/4 or less?
  302. The mechanical linkage rudder limiter system restricts rudder deflection to what when the nose gear is extended greater than 3/4?
  303. What three conditions cause the gear warning (HUD, red light, aural tone) to go off when the gear is up?
    210 KCAS or less, 10,000 feet or below, both throttles below 96%
  304. When the gear handle is up, what does a red light in the handle indicate?
    gear doors not up and locked
  305. When the gear handle is down, what does a red light in the handle indicate?
    all three landing gear are not down and locked
  306. What electrical system operates the flaps?
    Right AC
  307. How many right AC-powered flap motors are there?
  308. How are the flap levers interconnected and which one actuates the electrical switch?
    Mechanically; front
  309. What stops the flaps at 60% when the lever is placed that position?
    Sensing switch
  310. What stops the flaps at UP or FULL when the lever is placed that position?
    limit switches
  311. How are the flaps connected to the slab?
    Mechanically through a flexible cable in the right flap
  312. What are the 3 functions of the flap/slab interconnect?
    Reduces pitch changes with flap actuation, increases nose-down stick authority, and increases amount of slab deflection per inch of stick travel (pitch sensitivity)
  313. Does the stick move as the flap/slab interconnect repositions the slab?
    Nosewheel returns to center
  314. What will be the indications of a flap/slab interconnect failure with flaps down?
    Sudden pitchup and stall
  315. What is the best course of action to land with flap/slab interconnect failure?
    Land no-flap
  316. What intermediate flap setting should you use of a no-flap landing is not possible with flap/slab interconnect failure?
  317. What does the aux flap control allow you to do?
    Position flaps in intermediate positions
  318. How can you position flaps in intermediate positions using the aux flap switch?
    60% becomes the OFF detent
  319. What valve does the cabin pressure switch control?
    bleed air shutoff valve
  320. What type of power controls the cabin pressure switch?
  321. What is the guarded position of the cabin pressure switch?
    Bleed air shuttoff valve open, allowing air conditioning and pressurization to work
  322. What happens to the air as it is tapped off the compressor section and directed to the pneumatic system?
    Cooled as necessary and sent to the appropriate systems
  323. Memory acronym for pneumatic system
    DCGAP - Defog, canopy seal, g-suit, AC, pressurization, pressurization
  324. Up to what altitude can the pressurization system maintain a cabin altitude of 8,000'?
  325. What is cabin altitude tolerance up to FL230?
    +/- 1,000'
  326. What is the cabin altitude tolerance above FL230?
  327. What differential pressure is maintained above FL230?
    5.0 psi
  328. What is the formula for computing cabin pressure above FL230?
  329. How does the cabin temperature rheostat function?
    With toggle switch in AUTO the rheostat electrically (AC) moves the temperature control valve which controls how much air passes through the heat exchanger
  330. How does the cabin air temperature toggle switch function?
    Spring-loaded to off. Depressing the switch either direction manually moves the temperature control valve
  331. How long does it take the temp control valve to move from full cold to full hot?
    About 6 seconds
  332. What does the pneumatic defog control do?
    Governs only volume of airflow
  333. What temperature does the defog system try to maintain?
  334. What happens if defog air gets above 200°F?
    Temp control valve closes and heat exchanger air enters the system until below 200°
  335. What is the backup temp sensor's limit and what does it do?
    280°F/shuts off all airflow
  336. If the cabin pressure switch is set to RAM DUMP, what two pneumatic systems are still powered?
    Hydrualic reservoir and engine anti-ice
  337. What happens to the pneumatic system in the event of an AC power failure?
    All valves and temp setting remain as preset
  338. What are some corrective procedures if the temperature rheostat malfunctions?
    Try the manual hot/cold switch. If that doesn't work, select RAM DUMP. If that doesn't work poke a hole in or jettison the canopy
  339. What are indications of an air cooling turbine failure?
    Loud bang or rumbling vibration accompanied by smoke/fumes from AC outlets
  340. What are corrective procedures for a air cooling turbine failure?
    Select RAM DUMP below FL250 and reduce airspeed
  341. What is meant by "blowing out" the defog system?
    Turning defog to full and temp to full hot
  342. What does "blowing out" the defog system do?
    Clears the moisture separator precluding fogging up at level off
  343. What is the corrective action if canopies do fog up?
    Defog full and AC full cold
  344. What causes duct howl?
    Front cockpit outlet open while rear is closed or partially closed
  345. Corrective action for duct howl?
    Close front cockpit duct slightly or slight open rear cockpit duct
  346. What does a coalescer bag malfunction look like?
    Whitish smoke enters cockpit from behind the rear seat when blowing out the system
  347. Can you continue the mission with a coalescer bag malfunction?
    Yes, but write it up when you get on the ground
Card Set:
SO1101 - Systems overview.txt
2013-11-20 01:39:06

systems overview
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