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  1. In 1943, as a result of the reorganization of the War Department, General Henry H. “Hap” Arnold established what?
    The office of the air provost marshal
  2. What where Military police companies in the new army air force named?
    Army air force base security battalions
  3. What did general order no. 1, 2 Jan 1948, accomplish?
    Military police units serving in the army air corps before separation were transferred to the air force and those individuals and individuals in them were designated “Air Police”
  4. What year was the name of the career field changed to “Security Police”?
  5. In 1971, Security Forces was split into the two separate functions, what were these functions?
    Law enforcement and security specialties
  6. The law enforcement specialty was responsible for providing?
    The typical police response to safeguard personnel and property
  7. What effect did SSgt Terrance Jensen’s death have?
    Within 2 months 149 additional K9 teams were shipped to Vietnam
  8. The Vietnam conflict pointed out the need for?
    Revised security thinking
  9. Operation SAFE SIDE provided security police with?
    Training in light infantry tactics and special weapons
  10. After Vietnam, what was the next large scale war security police found themselves involved in?
    Operation Desert Storm
  11. What was the key career field reaction to the Khobar Towers Bombing?
    Consolidation of the three distinct career fields
  12. Prior to March 1971, basic training graduates could be assigned to SP units without?
    Formal technical training
  13. When SF members perform law enforcement functions, they are referred to as?
    Security Police
  14. The term “SF member” is used when?
    Performing security functions
  15. The SF Shield serves as a figure of?
    Legal authority
  16. The security police shield started out as a/an?
    Military police / Air police brassard
  17. When was the first trial issue shield approved?
  18. The current security police shield was adopted in what year?
  19. What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the combat arms apprentice course?
  20. What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the military working dog handler apprentice course?
  21. Airman leadership school must be completed prior to?
    Assuming the rank of SSgt.
  22. Adhering to what form(s) of guidance ensures mission accomplishment?
    Code of Conduct and SF General Orders
  23. What are the cornerstones of our profession?
    Ethics and integrity
  24. What is used as a guide for actions during war and as prisoners of war?
    Code of conduct
  25. Which of the following is considered a General Order?
    I will take charge of my post and protect all personnel and property for which I am responsible until properly relieved
  26. You have failed to follow what general conduct guideline if you issued a ticket based on the violator’s race?
    Personal attitudes
  27. Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with?
    AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel
  28. How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?
  29. The typical SF command section includes all of the following except?
    Superintendent, Resources and Training
  30. When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated?
    Flight Commanders
  31. The term “every airman is a sensor…contributing to overall base defense” is the concept of?
    Integrated base defense
  32. During base defense the S-3 function can be compared to? (S-3 movements and communications)
    The operations officer position
  33. The primary task of the S-4 function during combat operations is?
    Supply and resupply
  34. The primary task of the S-1 function is?
    Personnel and administrative matters
  35. The primary task of the S-2 Function is?
    Ground combat intelligence
  36. The authority, capacity, power and right of the military to police their own is known as?
    Military jurisdiction
  37. Which legal document contains law that applies to all branches of the US Armed Forces?
  38. Which article of the UCMJ identifies who is subject to military jurisdiction or military law?
    Article 2
  39. Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress and are contained in the?
    US Code
  40. Laws in the US Code that directly affect the Air Force are covered in?
    Title 10
  41. US military authority in host nation territories is governed by?
    Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA)
  42. What example of international law was reached at the Hague and Geneva conventions?
    Law of Armed Conflict
  43. The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are?
    Exclusive, concurrent, partial and proprietary
  44. When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state?
    The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Cause
  45. When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as?
    A military government
  46. What type of jurisdiction is in place when the federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on the installation?
  47. What type of jurisdiction is in place when both the federal and state government have authority to enforce the law on the installation?
  48. What type of jurisdiction is in place when both the federal and state government have some legislative authority, but neither has exclusive power?
  49. What type of jurisdiction is in place when the federal government has no authority outside of that as property owner?
  50. When concurrent jurisdiction exists and there is a conflict with the state which entity has final authority?
    The federal government prevails under the Supremacy Clause
  51. When an occupying power exercises all authority over an occupied territory it is known as?
    A military government
  52. What type of martial law exists when the civilian government continues to control its functions?
  53. When is martial law (military jurisdiction over the civilian population) authorized?
    In time of emergency
  54. Which type of martial law exists when military authority totally replaces civil authority?
  55. During absolute martial law, SF members have the authority to?
    Apprehend all offenders
  56. Which UCMJ article gives you the authority to apprehend military offenders?
    Article 7b
  57. Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes you to?
    Detain civilians for on base offenses
  58. Under exclusive jurisdiction you normally relinquish detained civilians to?
    US marshals
  59. What right could you invoke when apprehending any person for breach of the peace?
    Citizen’s right of arrest
  60. Which UCMJ article makes it a crime to disobey a lawful order from a Security Forces member in the execution of his/her duties?
    Article 92
  61. You can research the provisions of the Posse Comitatus Act in?
    Title 18, Section 1385 US Code
  62. The Defense Authorization Act of 1982 authorizes us to assist civil authorities by providing?
    Information, equipment, facilities and training
  63. Which title of the US Code directly affects the Air Force and its relations with civil authorities?
    Title 10
  64. Military working dogs (MWD) are most effective when they are visible to public; we ensure this by?
    Conducting periodic public MWD demonstrations
  65. Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must?
    Bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building
  66. Before releasing a military working dog to search buildings, the handler must?
    Give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog
  67. The releasing of a military working dog to bite or allowing it to bite while on leash is considered use of deadly force?
  68. Who provides specific guidance on using MWD’s to conduct searches on base?
    Staff Judge Advocate
  69. What is the primary mission of a military working dog?
    Detect, deter, and detain
  70. When conducting building checks the military working dog is normally?
  71. The military working dog team should always approach buildings from the?
    Downwind side
  72. Who determines whether a military working dog will search a building on or off-leash?
    On-duty supervisor and handler
  73. The military working dog’s greatest advantage during security operations is?
    Detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility
  74. What is the military working dog’s role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?
    Protect members of the apprehension team
  75. What instruction covers the Rules of Engagement of US Forces?
    CJCSI 3121.01
  76. What is defined as the imminent threat of force against US forces?
    Hostile Intent
  77. What is defined as an attack or other use of force against the US and US Forces?
    Hostile Act
  78. What are the Rules of Engagement elements of self-defense?
    Proportionality and necessity
  79. A written order issued by a competent military commander ordering a search is called a?
    Search authorization
  80. Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
    Air Force installation commanders
  81. What exists when there is reason to believe that evidence sought is located in a specific place?
    Probable cause
  82. A search affidavit of “probable cause” supports your request for?
    Search authorization
  83. A person who exercises control over property given to them for safekeeping may grant consent to search that property?
  84. Under what conditions during a lawful stop can a frisk be conducted?
    If you reasonably believe the person is armed and dangerous
  85. Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of lawful apprehensions?
  86. What are common reasons for an interviewee’s reluctance to talk?
    Inconvenience, resentment and fear of involvement
  87. If a witness is reluctant to talk because of the possible reprisals they are experiencing?
    Fear of involvement
  88. Which type of interviewee is interviewed to develop facts?
  89. Which type if interviewee is interviewed because they have pertinent information on an investigation?
  90. The four step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and?
  91. What are the types of interview approaches?
    Alternating, direct, and indirect
  92. Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and?
    Time of interview
  93. When does your pre-trial preparation begin?
    As soon as you are dispatched to an incident
  94. Investigators will conduct pre-trial preparation with?
    The staff judge advocate
  95. When should you give your opinion during court proceedings?
    Only if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense
  96. The budget process is broken down into which two centers of control?
    Cost centers and responsibility center
  97. Who is normally responsible for the responsibility center?
    Squadron commander
  98. Who is the approval authority for the Air Force budget?
  99. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects what?
    Positions authorized to accomplish the mission.
  100. The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) contains what information?
    It describes what personnel is working what job within the unit
  101. What is the main reason supply discipline is mandatory?
    Conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property
  102. What does the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) identify?
    Life-cycle education and training requirements, both mandatory and desirable
  103. Who maintains the AF Form 623, Individual Training Record?
    Individuals training supervisor
  104. Who is the Security Forces Manager (SFM) responsible to?
    The commander for the Stan-Eval program
  105. Stan-Evals will be conducted within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training?
    30 duty days
  106. The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide what?
    Prompt police information through the use of technology
  107. What are the responsibilities of The Chief of Security Forces (CSF)?
    Selecting/training of personnel operating the AFLETS system
  108. Computerized Criminal Histories and the Interstate Identification Index are documented in what federal system?
    A federal system of records controlled under the Privacy act of 1974
  109. All personnel assigned against a Unit Type Code manpower position will receive firearms training based on?
    Their assigned arming group (Group A, B, or C)
  110. Individual weapons training programs are outlined in?
    AFMAN 36-226, Volume 1, Combat Arms Training Programs, Individual Weapons.
  111. Which form, signed by Combat Arms personnel, is proof of firearm qualification?
    AF Form 522
  112. How soon will live fire qualification with machine guns and crew served weapons expire, if the member does not complete mechanical training?
    6 months
  113. What form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?
    AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt
  114. Which form is used by personnel who are issued weapons on a day to day basis?
    AF Form 629
  115. What are prowords used for in radio communication?
    To shorten sending time and to simplify clear reception
  116. Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they?
    Have an unfavorable information file
  117. Corrections staff personnel should complete or be scheduled to attend what course upon assuming the position?
    Service corrections course (or civilian equivalent)
  118. All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as?
    Pretrial detainee, post-trial inmates or casual
  119. Who determines staffing requirements for Level 1 correctional facilities?
    Chief of Security Forces
  120. What custody grade will inmates, who pose a serious threat to themselves or others, are an extreme escape risk, or exhibit behavior which is seriously disruptive to the operation of a facility be placed in?
    Maximum custody
  121. What custody grade will inmates, who pose an escape risk, but do not present a significant threat to others or property be placed in?
    Medium custody
  122. What custody grade will inmates, who do not pose an apparent threat of escape or danger be placed in?
    Minimum Custody
  123. What is the correctional facility housing determination for Post Trial Male inmates with over 7 year sentences?
    Ft. Leavenworth, Kansas
  124. All inmates will have an initial confinement examination within?
    24 hours, or the next duty day
  125. What is the critical aspect of hygiene?
  126. What can be used to clean one’s mouth effectively in the absence of other means?
    Salt water
  127. Boiling, iodine tablets or calcium hypochlorite are used to purify what?
  128. What are the four major groups for transmission of communicable diseases?
    Contact, intestinal, waterborne, and insect and animal borne
  129. What is one of the ways you can prevent the introduction of diseases into your body?
    Eating and drinking from approved sources only
  130. An effective way of defeating crawling insects is?
    Tucking your pants into the tops of your socks and boots
  131. What can you use to keep your clothes dry in the field?
    Waterproof clothing bags
  132. What is considered the most deadly hazard of the security forces career field?
  133. There are many causes of stress, however, the main source of stress can be found where?
    Personal life and job
  134. What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?
    Recognizing stressors
  135. What is defined as an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or life threatening situation?
  136. How is the security forces career field ranked in the rate of suicides Air Force wide?
  137. What is defined as “saying or doing something that suggests a suicidal desire”?
    Suicidal threat
  138. Most often suicidal persons are overwhelmed with?
    Loss of a loved one, mental health, and divorce
  139. What is defined as “a conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death”? (person is still alive due to unforeseen circumstances)
    Attempted suicide
  140. What is defined as “symbolic but not serious threat to life”? (apparent but there is no serious intent to die)
    Suicidal gesture
  141. What is defined as “a self-taking of life with conscious intent”?
  142. What is the most likely age range of most suicide victims according to national statics?
  143. What is the single most important source of disease transmission in the workplace?
  144. What are personnel trained in emergency care that may be called on to provide such care as a routine part of his or her job and are most often the first trained professional to respond to emergencies called?
    First responders
  145. Microorganisms in blood that cause disease are?
    Blood borne pathogens
  146. What is a tactic used to reduce exposure to blood borne pathogens on the job?
    Employee work practices, PPE, and housekeeping / Engineering controls, personal protective equipment, and hepatitis B vaccine
  147. Range cards are a record of?
    Firing data
  148. How many range cards are prepared for each position?
  149. What does the acronym TRP stand for?
    Target reference point
  150. When would you fire into your secondary sector of fire?
    When ordered to fire there.
  151. When should range cards be prepared?
    Immediately upon arrival at position
  152. The final protective line is a thick dark line drawn on your range card. How far should the FPL extend on your range card?
    Only as far as the grazing fire distance of your weapon
  153. When should you fire outside your assigned sector of fire?
    Only when ordered to do so by higher authority
  154. How should you initially start clearing your fields of fire?
    Start near the fighting position and work forward at least 100 meters
  155. Where is the distance between your fighting position and a prominent terrain feature annotated on your range card?
    Above the barbed line drawn from the feature to your position
  156. Where is the azimuth between your fighting position and a prominent terrain feature annotated on your range card?
    Below the barbed line drawn from the feature of your position
  157. If time is critical, what is the minimum distance you must clear your field of fire?
    35 meters
  158. How many sectors of fire are included on a range card?
  159. The final protective line is the line that?
    Shoots grazing fire across your sector front
  160. What are target reference points?
    Natural or man made features used to quickly locate targets
  161. What are target reference points used for?
    Controls direct fire weapons but may be used tor indirect fire weapons
  162. The information included in the marginal data section of the range card is position #?
    Weapon, unit, call sign/date, meters each circle represents, sensor ID numbers
  163. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
    Marginal data section
  164. How is the final protective lone (FPL) sketched in on your sector?
    Thick dark line out to your weapon grazing fire distance and capping the top with an arrow
  165. How is dead space determined on the final protective line (FPL)?
    Having your buddy walk the FPL
  166. The secondary sector of fire is shown on the range card by using?
    A broken or dashed line on the boundary
  167. How many operating positions does the M4 stock have?
  168. Which component of the M4 is adaptable for winter operations?
    Trigger guard
  169. Which component of the M4 do you inspect for pits, burrs, and wear?
    Bolt and bold carrier
  170. How should the bore of the M4 be?
    Clean and free from corrosion
  171. What is the function of the forward assist?
    Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedures
  172. The acronym for SPORTS stands for?
    Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap, Squeeze
  173. The primary purpose of preventative maintenance is to keep weapons?
    Clean, dry, and lubricated
  174. What should you perform once your M4 carbine has been reassembled from cleaning?
    Function check
  175. What is the standard round used with the M4 rifle?
    M855 Ball
  176. What type of ammunition, used in the M4 Carbine, has no primer?
    M199 Dummy
  177. Which cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, has no projectile?
  178. How many meters is the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
    1,800 meters
  179. The front and rear sights for the M9 pistol are?
  180. Which part of the M9 pistol can be changed to accommodate either right or left handed operators?
    Magazine release button
  181. After disassembling the M9 pistol, what should you inspect the receiver assembly for?
  182. LAW lubricating oil is the only lubrication for the M9 pistol for a specific temperature. What must the temperature be to use LAW?
    -10 degrees F
  183. On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor and?
    Loaded chamber indicator
  184. What ball is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
  185. M882 ammunition is used against what type of target?
  186. What type of ammunition does the M203 fire?
    40mm low velocity
  187. How many meters is the maximum effective range for a point target with the M203?
  188. What is the maximum range on the M203 grenade launcher?
  189. What weapon is the M203 attached to?
    M4 carbine
  190. How many meters is the kill radius for high explosive rounds?
  191. Under what conditions would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
    When directed
  192. What type of M249 ammunition is used during dry-fire exercises?
    M199 dummy
  193. How many meters is the M249 maximum effective range for an area target?
  194. How many meters is the M249 maximum effective range for a point target?
  195. How many different types of 5.56mm standard military cartridges can be used in the M249 assault rifle?
  196. In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
  197. In meters what is the maximum effective range of the M870 shotgun using “00” buck shot round?
  198. What is the maximum range of the M870 shotgun in yards?
    700 yards
  199. When employed in a physical security role the M870 is effective because?
    It can be used around sensitive resources such as fuels, aircraft, and equipment
  200. In what role is the M870 used as a breaching tool for entering buildings?
    Emergency Service Team (EST)
  201. How are designated marksman employed?
    Individually or as a pair
  202. Some optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams are?
    Response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance
  203. The minimum and maximum grade authorized before being considered for sharpshooter is?
  204. The M24 is effective against point targets out to how many meters?
    800 meters
  205. What are the three common characteristics that hand grenades share?
    Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing
  206. How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
    5 meters
  207. Historically, what is considered the most important hand grenade?
    Fragmentation grenade
  208. What is the effective casualty radius of a fragmentation grenade?
    15 meters
  209. How many meters is the average person capable of throwing a hand grenade?
    40 meters
  210. What are the color markings on a fragmentation grenade?
    Olive drab body with a single yellow band
  211. How does one remove the safety pin from a hand grenade?
    Pull the pull ring
  212. What could happen if you don’t maintain enough pressure on the safety lever?
    The striker could rotate, striking the primer
  213. Where should the grenade safety lever be positioned in relation to gripping it in your hand?
    Between the first and second joints of your thumb
  214. How do left-handed personnel grip a grenade differently from right-handed personnel?
    The grenade is inverted and gripped like right-handed personnel
  215. What is the maximum exposure time when observing the target prior to throwing a hand grenade?
    No more than 2 seconds
  216. What throwing method should you use when you throw the grenade?
  217. When would the kneeling position normally be used to throw a grenade?
    When throwing from behind a low wall
  218. The hand grenade safety clip prevents the safety lever from?
    Springing loose if the safety pin assembly is accidentally removed
  219. How can the M72 LAW be employed and fired?
    Shoulder, standing, sitting, prone position, and kneeling
  220. When extending the LAW, what shouldn’t you dispose of until you fire the weapon?
    Sling assembly
  221. What is the last action taken to fire the LAW?
    Depress the rubber boot on the trigger
  222. What may cause the mechanical delay in firing the LAW?
    A delay in operation of the firing pin
  223. What shoulder is the M136 AT4 designed to be fired from?
    Right shoulder only
  224. How far must the M136 AT4 be extended prior to firing?
    It does not need to be extended before firing
  225. The 440-gram shape charge explosive of the M136 AT4 can penetrate how much armor?
    14 Inches
  226. What are the two safety bail positions of the M57 electrical firing device?
    Safe and Fire
  227. What instrument is used for checking the continuity of the initiating circuit of the claymore mine?
  228. How many M40 test sets are contained in a packing box of claymore mines?
  229. What is the maximum height of the steel ball projectiles from a claymore mine?
    2 feet
  230. What is the forward “danger radius” of the claymore mine?
    Approximately 250 feet
  231. For best effect, an employing squad/flight must make sure that the claymore mine can be kept under?
    Observation and covered by fire
  232. Primarily, where would the claymore mine best support security forces?
    Avenues of enemy approaches
  233. How close should the enemy be before detonating a claymore mine?
    Within 50-100 meters
  234. What can be used to support the claymore mine on show or extremely soft ground?
    The claymore mine bandoleer
  235. How should the firing wire of a claymore mine be laid?
    From the firing position to the mine emplacement
  236. Where is the aiming point for a claymore mine with slit-type peep sights?
    50 meters in front of the mine and 2 ½ meters above ground
  237. Where is the aiming point for a claymore mine with knife-edge sights?
    50 meters in front of the mine at ground level
  238. What parts of the claymore mine are tested with the M40 test set?
    Firing device, test set, and blasting cap
  239. What indication does the M40 test set give you that the blasting cap is functioning properly?
    A flashing light
  240. What device secures the blasting cap into the detonator wall?
    Shipping plug priming adapter
  241. Why should you use lightweight foliage to camouflage the claymore mine firing wire?
    To avoid secondary missile hazards
  242. What is the only difference between the M72A1 and the M72A2 LAW?
    The rocket
  243. What improvement was made to the LAW which eliminated the coupler in the M72A3 LAW?
    Rocket motor
  244. Where is the trigger housing for the LAW located?
    Upper surface of the outer tube
  245. What are the two positions of the LAW trigger arming handle?
    Safe and Arm
  246. What identifies whether or not a LAW has radioactive sights?
    Two yellow cross hairs in the front sight
  247. What must you do prior to preparing the LAW for use?
    Inspect its overall condition
  248. Which statement best describes the M72 LAW?
    Requires little from the user other than a visual inspection and some maintenance
  249. Of the trigger-arming handle fails to stay in the ARM position, check?
    To see if the launcher is fully extended
  250. If a misfire occurs, how many seconds do you wait before removing the launcher from your shoulder?
  251. The sights of the M136 AT4 resemble the sights of what other weapon?
    M-16 rifle
  252. If you decide not to fire the M136 AT4 what must you do immediately?
    Replace transport safety pin
  253. The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an?
    Defensive weapon
  254. When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role it is considered a?
    Mine or booby trap
  255. The two detonator wells located on the top of the Claymore allow for?
    Single or dual priming
  256. How is the claymore employed with used as part of the base defense obstacle plan?
    Stop, delay, and disrupt enemy attacks
  257. For effective coverage of the entire front of a position, place mines in a line no closer than 5 meters and no farther apart than?
    45 meters
  258. The final step in laying a mines is to turn legs rearward and then downward and spread each pair of legs at a?
    45 - degree angle
  259. When aiming mines with slit-type peep sight and knife-edge sight, how many inches to the rear of the sight do you position your eye?
    6 inches
  260. Where should the claymore firing position be located?
    Foxhole or covered position
  261. After prolong firing, the barrel of the MK19 will?
    Not overheat
  262. How many calendar days can the QFEBJ sustain operations before requiring resupply?
  263. What type of ammunition is the MK-19 capable of using?
    40mm high explosive and high explosive, dual purpose ammunition
  264. Using the MK-19, what type of target can be effectively fired upon at a distance of 1500 meters?
    Point Target
  265. What is the MK-19 maximum rate of fire?
    325-375 rounds per minute
  266. What provides the MK-19 with good range to disrupt troop concentrations and destroy lightly armored vehicles?
    Transverse and elevation mechanism (T&E)
  267. What makes the MK-19 capable to respond to any position and engage the enemy?
    Mounting the weapon on a vehicle
  268. What types of areas is the MK-19 employed to cover?
    Fields of fire and avenues of approach
  269. The MK19 is most effectively employed as a?
    Mobile suppressive fire platform covering a specific zone
  270. The MK19 has little effect on which type of targets?
    Main battle tanks
  271. The MK19 is capable of producing controlled and accurate fire for?
    Point and area targets
  272. The M2 .50 caliber machine gun is a very effective, versatile weapon that is?
    Belt fed, recoil operated, and air cooled
  273. What is the maximum number of meters for the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?
  274. What is the maximum effective range of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?
    1,830 m
  275. What type of ammunition would you use with the M2 to engage personnel and light material targets?
  276. The M2 .50 caliber machine gun is most effectively employed when?
    On a mobile platform / mounted on a vehicle
  277. What type of fire should the M2 gunner strive to achieve?
  278. What weapon is considered the only indirect fire weapon in the security forces arsenal?
    M252 81mm mortar
  279. Which type of round for the M252 81mm mortar is used for screening, producing casualties, creating incendiary effects and signaling?
    Red/White phosphorus
  280. What is the maximum range of the M282 81mm mortar?
    5608 meters
  281. Which crew served weapons are a squad’s primary weapons against dismounted enemy forces?
    M240B & M249
  282. This class of fire is when most of the rounds do not rise above 1 meter off the ground?
    Grazing fire
  283. The placement of which two crew served weapons is critical to base defense? (They provide direct and indirect fire in support of other positions in the defensive perimeter)
    MK-19 & M252
  284. What factors influence employment actions of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?
    Mission, terrain, target engagement, and rules of engagement
  285. Grazing fire occurs when the projectile does not rise more than how many meters above the ground?
  286. Leaders should position weapons where they?
    Protect, avoid detection, and surprise enemy with lethal fire
  287. When the primary threat is from dismounted infantry, the squad leader should position weapons?
    Most likely mounted avenue of approach last
  288. Areas that cannot be covered by fire from a given position because of obstacle are called?
    Dead space
  289. Leaders select fixed positions that provide the MK19 team the opportunity to?
    Mount and utilize the accuracy of the T&E mechanism
  290. What is used to assist security forces and other armed personnel in identifying and interpreting the right level of force to use in the performance of duty?
    Use of Force Model (UFM)
  291. In Graham v. Connor, 490 U.S. 386 (1989), the U.S. Supreme Court established the fourth amendment standard of “_____________” as the standard for assessing the use of force in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person?
    Objective reasonableness
  292. The criteria supporting “objective reasonableness” is provided from three essential areas within the confrontational environment and initiated in order to gain compliance and control. What are the 3 essential areas?
    Subject action, risk perception, and officer response
  293. Under what article of the UCMJ, could you be subject to administrative or judicial action if you use excessive force to carry out your assigned duties?
    Article 92
  294. How is the use of force model structured?
    Three-sided, five-tiered
  295. Which color of the use of force model includes the day to day non-threatening type activities in force protection?
  296. Which color of the use of force model signals a need of increased alertness due to a recognized threat of danger because of active subject awareness?
  297. What color of the use of force model indicates imminent serious bodily harm to the reasonable officer or someone else that’s been assessed?
  298. What color of the use of force model covers subject behavior that categorizes the person as a passive resister who may require a slight increase of verbal or physical response from the reasonable officer?
  299. What color of the use of force model denoted an assessment of imminent bodily harm to the reasonable officer or someone else?
  300. You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he/she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What risk perception is this?
    Professional perception
  301. You challenge an individual in the restricted area and you notice the person reaching into a pocket instead of complying with your commands. What risk perception level is this?
    Threshold perception
  302. You challenge an individual in a restricted area and the person reaches into his pocket and pulls out a handgun and says, “I’m gonna kill everyone.” What is the risk perception level?
    Lethal Threat perception
  303. Near the flight line area someone is taking pictures of aircraft. You inform them that they can’t take pictures. The person says, “I pay taxes, ill take pictures of what I paid for,” then pushes away from your attempts to apprehend and threatens further physical resistance. What is the subject action level?
    Assaultive (Bodily Harm)
  304. The progressive application of force encompasses three main elements of action and assessment. What are these three elements?
    Tools, tactics, timing
  305. What element within the progressive application of force includes the two broad forms of subject control; mental manipulation, and physical manipulation?
  306. What element within the progressive application of force encompass the actual application into actual strategies deemed necessary in the confrontation setting?
  307. What must you base your use of force option on?
    Actions of the individual (s) with whom you are in contact
  308. Deadly force is authorized for protection of military resources. Which of the following cover this statement?
    Vital to national security
  309. Deadly force is would be authorized in which of the following instances?
    To prevent someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm
  310. The situations that are perceived by the “reasonable officer” within a confrontational environment which present a risk or potential risk to officer safety describes what component of the use of force model?
    Risk perception
  311. The “balanced” response the reasonable officer could and/or would select, in order to maintain or re-gain subject compliance and control describes what component of the use of force model?
    Officer response
  312. The action(s) perceived by the “reasonable officer” that place the subject in one or more of the model’s compliant/non-compliant categories describe what component of the use of force mode?
    Subject actions
  313. What element within the progressive application of force is measured in terms of immediacy and necessity?
  314. You should respond to an actual incident where you reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M4 carbine at port arms, with the safety selector on?
    Safe and your finger not in the trigger guard
  315. What is your first action once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area?
    Notify SFCC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post
  316. In Graham v. Connor (1969), what did the US Supreme Court dictate the reasonable officer’s decision to handcuff be based on?
    Sound professional judgment and facts of a specific incident
  317. Handcuffing is considered which of the following?
    Never automatic
  318. In applying handcuffs during an apprehension, what must you consider to achieve and maintain control of the detainee?
    Reasonable level of force
  319. Which of these is the correct procedure for a weak side standing search of the suspect’s upper body?
    Precautionary check, handcuff, search hair and head, weak side of suspect’s back, up side to armpit, and then down chest to waistline.
  320. What must be done if you move evidence prematurely at a crime scene?
    Record its original position in your notes or via photographs
  321. Which of these is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search?
    Switch hands on linking chain, place strong hand on suspect’s shoulder, have suspect turn head, and then switch your feet position.
  322. What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk or drugged that they cannot stand under their own power?
    Standing search
  323. Which search is ideal for multiple apprehensions?
    Prone search
  324. Which is the correct procedure to begin a prone search of a suspect’s upper body?
    Switch hands on linking chain, search weak side of the back and ribs to the shoulder, collar and head, down outside of arm, up the inside of arm to armpit
  325. When you arrive at security forces control center (SFCC), after transporting someone of the opposite gender, what information must you provide to the controller?
    Time arrived and ending mileage reading
  326. In which portion of the use of force model, can you generally expect to use physical apprehension and restraint techniques (part)?
    Resistive (active)
  327. Which of the following are you to base your decision on to apprehend a suspect?
    Probable cause
  328. What are the three principle target areas for the baton?
    Arms, legs, and knee
  329. The baton is primarily used as what type of weapon?
  330. What should the security forces member do once they have struck a suspect with the baton?
    Act to calm the individual through verbal directions
  331. What is described as a highly concentrated form of pepper or similar synthetic and naturally occurring inflammatory agent affecting the mucous membranes of humans and animals?
    Pepper spray
  332. At what level in the use of force model can pepper spray first be utilized on a subject?
    Third level
  333. Direct one second bursts of pepper spray canister at the subject’s what?
    Eyes, nose, and mouth
  334. What type of force is pepper spray considered?
  335. If the pepper spray is effective, the officer should notice disorientation, closing of the eyes, difficulty breathing, loss of motor control, and complaints of intense burning within how much time?
    2 to 3 seconds
  336. Pepper spray effects are temporary but may last up to how long if untreated?
    45 minutes
  337. Which rifle fighting technique is used to disarm an opponent?
  338. What rifle fighting technique is used to stop the forward movement of a suspect or move an aggressive suspect backwards?
  339. What would a class A mishap involving extensive property be considered?
    A major accident
  340. What is an accident involving nuclear weapons?
    Broken arrow
  341. What is the accidental or unauthorized launching of a nuclear weapon that could create the risk of war?
  342. What is an incident involving nuclear weapons?
    Bent spear
  343. What major accident phase includes actions like response, suppressing, or containing and controlling the accident?
  344. What major accident phase is a warning used when forces working at an accident are in imminent danger of being injured or killed by an explosion, the release of toxic materials, or the collapse of a structure?
  345. Regardless of its size, who establishes and controls an on-base cordon?
    Security Forces
  346. What is the cordon size of an accident involving chemical agents?
    1 mile upwind, and crosswind, and 2 mile down wind
  347. In what direction is the entry control point initially located on a cordon perimeter?
    Upwind from the accident
  348. What is the only base office that may release information to the media about a major accident?
    Public affairs
  349. What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?
    Contact civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film
  350. What federal agency is designated for coordinating US Government actions to resolve terrorist and high-risk criminal incidents that occur on-base?
    Department of Justice – DOJ
  351. Who provides the responsibility for initial and immediate response to an incident?
    Installation commander
  352. What is defined as physical injury or emotional disturbance, inflicted by means other than accidental?
  353. What is defined as failure to provide with the basic necessities of life?
  354. What type of spousal abuse includes harassment, threats, and deprivation of food and sleep (also accompanied by a history of at least one other type of spousal abuse)?
    Psychological battering
  355. Where should the responding patrol park their vehicle at the scene of a crisis situation?
    At least one house away
  356. What should be done if a patrol becomes aware that a crime was committed at a crisis situation scene?
    Apprehend the violator
  357. What form is used by security forces to record an incident?
    AF Form 3545 and AF form 53
  358. What is DD form 2701?
    Awareness of rights for victims and witnesses of crime
  359. Who determines the degree of control required over personnel entering or and leaving the base?
    Installation commander
  360. What is an installation entry point check classified as?
    An examination
  361. What do you do if you find illegal contraband during an entry point check?
    Stop the check and obtain a consent, or search authorization
  362. If you have probable cause to search a vehicle for a stolen 27-inch TV, can you search in the glove box and under the seat?
  363. How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point checks?
  364. Who is normally tasked with conducting a complete vehicle search?
  365. When you need to obtain authority to conduct a search, which form do you need to acquire?
    AF Form 1176
  366. When you need to obtain consent to conduct a search, which form do you need documented?
    AF Form 1364
  367. What area search is being used when you go to the first apparent piece of evidence, visually observe evidence and then move to the next piece of evidence?
    Item-to-item search
  368. What area search is conducted in small outdoor areas when patrol believes evidence has been dropped or placed a distance from the crime scene?
    Concentric circle search
  369. What type of area search is being used when you divide the area into strips approximately 4 feet wide, and start at one end them move back and forth across the area from one side to the other side?
    Strip and Grid search
  370. What type of area search is being used when you divide the area into sections, where individuals are assigned to search each section near the crime scene and work outward?
    Zone or sector search
  371. In what supply item classification would items listed on a custodian authorization/custody receipt listing be found?
    Equipment authorization inventory
  372. In what supply item classification would items issued to you for use in a performance of your duties be found?
    Individual clothing and equipment
  373. When conducting a foot challenge and it is not feasible to remove the suspect from the restricted or controlled area, what must be done before completing the challenge?
    Face away from resource
  374. How do you make positive identification of a (foot) challenged suspect?
    Have suspect place identification on the ground and take steps forward
  375. During a vehicle challenge, after you have the suspect(s) disembark the vehicle, where would you have them place their identification?
    On the hood of the vehicle
  376. Why is it important to keep witnesses of a crime separated?
    So they don’t distort each other’s impression
  377. What does full body coverage include when you are in a contaminated area?
    Hood, surgical mask and eye protection
  378. How many photographs are taken of each piece of evidence at a crime scene?
  379. A rough sketch of a crime scene must be drawn to scale?
  380. What type of evidence tends to prove or disprove a fact?
  381. What type of evidence tends to involve a person in an offense?
  382. What must evidence be in order for it to be admissible in court?
    Competent and relevant to the case
  383. What federal law requires law enforcement personnel to save all field notes, rough drafts, and statements made by SF, witnesses, victims, and suspects?
    Jencks Act
  384. When is evidence collected at a crime scene?
    After photographs and sketches
  385. What should you do if you touch an item of evidence and your fingerprints are transferred to the evidence?
    Record it in your notes
  386. How do you “mark” items of evidence?
    Place your initials, date and time of discovery in a place that does not alter the appearance of the item
  387. Who can authorize the destruction of evidence in law enforcement storage?
    Staff judge advocate
  388. What is the goal behind employing blast and fragmentation mitigation?
    Reducing the number of casualties associated with terrorist bombings
  389. What type of barriers is typically employed for counter mobility or blast/fragmentation around entry control points and approach avenues?
    Concrete barriers
  390. What protection level is assigned to a resource that would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States if it were destroyed?
    Protection level 1
  391. Which is an example of a protection level 1 resource?
    Designated critical space and launch resources
  392. What would a close-in security area contain?
    Nuclear weapons
  393. What is an area that doesn’t fall under the jurisdiction of the DOD and is being secured to a off-base Air Force aircraft crash?
    National defense area
  394. Response force elements consist of how many personnel?
  395. Which team is used exclusively for helping hand/covered wagon situations?
    3 person security response teams (SRT’s)
  396. Which team provides additional heavy weapon support?
    Mobile fire team
  397. Where does the two-person concept apply?
    No-lone zone
  398. What other areas are synonymous with “No-Lone Zones”?
    Close-in security and exclusion areas
  399. What is your function as the close-in-sentry for a “no-lone-zone”?
    Make sure that at least two authorized persons enter
  400. What purpose does security fencing serve at an area boundary?
    Legal and physical demarcation
  401. How big are the openings in chain-link type “A” fencing used at restricted areas?
    2 inches
  402. How high above the ground surface must type “A” fencing be at restricted areas?
    7 feet
  403. How close to the ground surface must type “A” fencing be at restricted areas?
    2 inches
  404. What is the minimum distance from the base perimeter a fence line for a restricted area can be located?
    250 feet
  405. What type of padlock is required on manually operated gates that do not have an electric lock?
    Type III
  406. What type of effect does restricted area lighting have on a possible intruder?
  407. What type of security lighting illuminates restricted area outer clear zones, fence lines, and sector zones?
    Boundary lighting
  408. What type of security lighting is used to illuminate the interior of the restricted area and aid in the detection and tracking of intruders after they have breached the restricted area?
    Area lighting
  409. How large is the clear zone between the inner and outer fence line around permanent restricted areas?
    30 feet
  410. Restricted area signs should be spaced at how many intervals along the restricted area boundary?
    100 feet
  411. Where are line sensors predominately used?
    Outdoors around perimeter of a restricted area
  412. What type of sensors uses magnetic switches and contacts installed on doors and windows?
    Mechanical sensors
  413. What type of sensors uses electromagnetic, microwave, ultrasonic, or infrared to detect movements?
    Volumetric sensor
  414. What is the meaning of immediate visual assessment?
    Visually assessing the cause of the alarm
  415. What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
    The community setting local police priorities
  416. What air force program was established by AFOSI that enlists the eyes and ears of the base populous and surrounding community in the war on terror?
    Eagle eyes
  417. Which community policing program encourages residents to permanently mark their property with an identifying number?
    Operation identification
  418. What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement?
    Reduce traffic violations
  419. What is the correct positioning of your vehicle in relation to the violators vehicle during a traffic stop?
    Two vehicle lengths behind and three feet to the left
  420. During a traffic stop, how often should you relay your status until you are physically clear of the stop?
    Every 5 minutes
  421. Where do you position yourself at the violator’s door during a traffic stop?
    At rear edge of the drivers door
  422. How many hours after an accident occurs must it be reported?
    72 hours
  423. What form is used to document all major vehicle accidents?
    AF Form 1315
  424. What should you be alert for when you approach a traffic accident?
    Vehicles fleeing the scene
  425. How should you position your vehicle at the scene of a traffic accident?
    To safeguard the scene
  426. What is the most important factor in directing vehicular traffic?
    Knowing where to stand
  427. Which of the following is a field sobriety test used by the Air Force?
    Walk and turn
  428. What is the minimum amount of clues a suspect must exhibit on the walk and turn field sobriety test to implicate at least a .10 BAC?
    2 clues
  429. What is the “distinct jerkiness at the maximum deviation” in the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus field sobriety test?
    Suspect’s eye jerks as the stimulus is held for a few seconds at a point where the eye has gone as far as it can
  430. What is the “onset of jerkiness to 45 degrees” in the in the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus field sobriety test?
    A point where the eye starts jerking, which indicated the sooner the jerking the higher the BAC
  431. What form is used to record the results of performance tests and other data conducted on people who are suspected to be under the influence of alcohol?
    DD Form 1920
  432. How many clues are possible on the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus field sobriety test?
    6 clues
  433. How far from the suspect’s eye should you hold the stimulus of the horizontal-gaze Nystagmus?
    12 to 15 inches
  434. What does the angle of onset nystagmus refer to?
    The point at which the eye is first seen jerking
  435. Anyone who operates a motor vehicle on a military base is deemed to have given consent to a chemical test of blood, breath, or urine to determine alcohol and/or drug content. What is this called?
    Implied consent policy
  436. Which breath instrument uses chemicals to test blood alcohol content?
  437. What is the most accurate test to determine blood alcohol content?
  438. What two factors would produce high breath test results?
    Residual mouth alcohol and breath contaminant
  439. What is the first step in writing a report?
    Gather the facts
  440. What is the next step to report writing after you write the report?
    Evaluate the report
  441. Which report is an official/permanent record of events?
    AF Form 3545, incident report
  442. If you write a report that is no opinionated, fair, and impartial, you’re fulfilling which characteristic of a well written report?
  443. Which sentence is an example of an active voice?
    SSgt Smith searched Amn Jones
  444. What would indicate whether you use one form per item or record several items of evidence in the AF Form 52, evidence tag?
    Circumstances of the acquisition
  445. When used to record receipt of evidence or acquitted property, where do you affix the first copy of the AF Form 52?
    Attached to the item
  446. Where does the second copy of the AF Form 52 go?
    The person relinquishing the property
  447. How long after the last entry are AF Form 1109, visitor registration logs maintained?
    90 days
  448. What happens to the pink copy of the DD Form 1408, armed forces traffic ticket?
    It’s given to the violator with written reporting instructions on the back of the copy
  449. What form is used when releasing a detained individual to another competent authority?
    DD Form 2708
  450. What is a TA 312?
  451. What types of service functions are available on the TA 312 selector switch?
    Common battery, local battery, and common battery signaling
  452. How many BA 30 batteries are needed to power the TA 312?
  453. Which selector switch position on the TA 312 provides battery power for voice?
    Common Battery Signaling
  454. What must the user ensure when operation the TA 312 in the common battery or common battery signal mode with the H-60 handset?
    INT-EXT switch is on INT
  455. The first step in connecting the line to the TA-312 is?
    strip away 1 inch of insulation from he ends of the two wires
  456. To operate the TA-312/PT in LB mode you must?
    place the INT?EXT switch to INT position
  457. When operating the SB-22 the operator uses the generator hand wheel to?
    signal the called party when calls are extended
  458. After you locate a grounding site and dig your hole, drive the grounding rod in until the?
    top of the grounding rod is about 3 inches above the bottom of the hole
  459. When should hard wire lines be inspected?
    Before installation and daily when installed
  460. When confronted with a culvert obstacle while running field wire, the wire?
    should be passed through a culvert, if possible
  461. What is a hot loop?
    continuous line connected to every phone and switchboard
  462. Why should you recover field wire after an operation?
    So the next deployment squad doesn't use it
  463. After the conductors have been cut, how many inches should they be staggered when splicing field wire?
    6 inches
  464. Which channel on the analog/portable radio communications (AN/PRC) 139 is reserved for priority use?
    Channel 1
  465. To remove the antenna from the receiver of an (AN/PRC) 139 you must?
    turn the antenna clockwise
  466. During initial power up, how many seconds will the frequency fill device execute a display segment?
    1 second
  467. What is the RX IF bandwidth programmable for?
    136-174 MHz receiver
  468. Which statement is a step in base-station installation?
    Installing the power supply
  469. When installing the power supply, select a flat surface?
    6 feet from the base station
  470. Where is the guard receiver-transmitter installed in the base station
    Left Side
  471. When is the programming cable used with the base station?
    For external programming of the portable radio communication (PRC 139)
  472. What is one of the causes for failure of the PTT button on the (PRC 139)
  473. What has the tendency to cause rusting and malfunctions in radios?
    submersion in 6 inches of water
  474. what is the first step in erecting the antenna mast?
    Selecting an unobstructed site
  475. How many personnel are required to erect the assembled antenna mast?
  476. One of the elements of signal operating instructions is?
    complete supplemental instructions
  477. Signal operating instructions (SOI) will allow base defense forces to ensure that communications are?
    speedy and simplistic
  478. Which of the concepts listed is necessary for effective communications?
    brevity codes
  479. One of the three rules to remember when using the Authentication Sheet is to?
    remember the last letter you receive must be an even and set
  480. What action or initiative provides the means for joint forces to dictate battlespace operations?
  481. One of the ways responsiveness is achieved is through?
    early detection of the threat
  482. how many basic fundamentals of defense are there?
  483. For defense to be effective, it must have?
  484. Who provides the foundation of the integrated base defense concept?
    Security Forces
  485. Under which phase of integrated base defense do we tailor defense plans to proactively counter enemy threats?
    Understand First
  486. Which principle of MOOTW applies appropriate military capability prudently?
  487. How many types of military operations other than war do not involve combat?
  488. Which military operations other than war uses physical presence to demonstrate US resolve?
    Show of force
  489. What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
    Department of State
  490. What is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur inside of the US?
    Department of Justice
  491. Aircraft are the preferred hijacking target of terrorist, however, they have also hijacked?
  492. Terrorist in the future may be more likely to use chemical and biological weapons because?
    the cost is cheap and they are easily available
  493. What are terrorists most important gain even when the actual mission fails?
  494. Which terrorist group operates independently?
    State supported
  495. Which terrorist group operates Autonomously?
    Non-State Supported
  496. Which terrorist group operates as an agent of the government?
    state directed
  497. How many force protection conditions are there?
  498. Which force protection condition is a terrorist action against installations and personnel imminent?
  499. What threat assessment factor exists when there are confirmed intentions of a terrorist group?
  500. Existence or capability must be present, and history may or may not be present in threat level?
  501. Which of the following security disciplines is closely coordinated with Operations Security?
    Information Security
  502. Denying exploitation of open source information is the primary focus of OPSEC?
  503. OPSEC enables friendly force information superiority by?
    neutralizing adversary information activities
  504. What is the last step in the OPSEC process?
    Application of appropriate measures
  505. Specific items of information are usually only critical for a prescribed?
    Period of time
  506. The centerpiece of OPSEC is?
    risk management
  507. Masking and controlling friendly actions to prevent the collection of critical information is?
    the primary goal of OPSEC
  508. Which aircraft is a low density/high demand asset?
  509. What does a surge trigger point show?
    requirements begin to exceed the capabilities of the two AEF's and available LD/HD forces
  510. Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full scale air base operation?
    Limited base
  511. An effective tool to control air base defense operations is?
    base sectorization
  512. What should a flight sector sketch show?
    flight and squadron identification
  513. When did the US ratify the Geneva Conventions for the Protection of War Victims?
    12 august 1949
  514. The Geneva Conventions became effective in?
  515. What is the fifth step in Captives, Detainees, and Prisoners (CDP's) processing?
  516. Which part of the Captives, Detainees, and Prisoners (CDP's) capture tag is retained by the capturing unit?
    Part B
  517. To avoid receiving and electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the Electronic Security System (ESS)?
    remove the positive lead first
  518. How can we enhance assessment of intrusions using Electronic Security System (ESS)?
    Wide area surveillance thermal imager (WSTI)
  519. The area of Electronic Security System (ESS)? that includes thermal imigers to assist in identifying the source of an alarm is called?
  520. Which Electronic Security System (ESS) function provides transmission of data between the sensors and annunciators?
  521. How do you reset the mini portable monitor after an alarm is received?
    Shake it or turn the unit upside down
  522. Where does the security forces member begin the 50 meter overlapping strip method of search?
    The terrain nearest to his or her position
  523. The majority of targets detected on the battlefield are due to?
    improper camouflage
  524. When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?
    Aiming point
  525. If a soldier adapts to the dark before donning goggles, the individual gains full dark adaptation within?
    2 minutes after removing the goggles
  526. When burying the mini magnetic sensor, how deep must you bury the magnetic sensor head?
    6-8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach
  527. The components that make up the Mini Active Infrared Detection sensor are?
    an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
  528. What type of protection does the 385 monostatic microwave sensor provide?
    Three dimensional protection in outdoor environments
  529. Microwave sensors are relatively insensitive to?
    rain, snow, vibration, and small wind blown objects
  530. Which sensor system alarms only if an object breaks more than 98.5% of at least one beam?
    ECSI Active Infared Sensor
  531. When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripos is fully extended, it is 20ft high and the legs are approximately?
    20 ft apart at the base
  532. The surface that supports the (WSTI) display control unit must be able to handle?
    200 Lbs
  533. What component do we use to adjust the elevation on the AN/PVS-4 night vision sight?
    Reticle Adjustments
  534. How do we clean the AN/PVS-4 night vision sight metal surfaces?
    Lint Free Cloth
  535. What is the most common method of employing the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle?
    Facemask centered on forehead
  536. Why do we use demist shields on the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle?
    Prevent foggy lenses
  537. What part of the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?
    Glass objective lens
  538. One ancillary function of the Hand Held Thermal Imager is?
    any monitor can be used in conjunction with the system
  539. What is the disadvantage of direct observation?
    Physical condition of the observer may affect the power of observation
  540. What do we call arranging material around an object so that it appears to be part of the background?
  541. Approximately how long does it take for your eyes to get accustomed to the lack of light?
    30 min
  542. When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose, and chin, use?
    Light colors
  543. One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is?
    Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth
  544. For camouflage of your equipment to be successful it mus?
    blend with its surroundings
  545. What could you use as a hasty firing position in built up areas?
  546. While on the offensive, the squad uses obstacles to?
    isolate objectives
  547. What principle of employment reduces the enemy's ability to remove or breach obstacles?
    Covered by observation and fire
  548. When setting up a concertina roadblock, place the concertina rolls or coils about?
    10 meters in depth
  549. Surface trip flares outwardly resemble?
    antipersonnel mines
  550. How much candlepower illumination does the M49A1 give off?
  551. What is the purpose of the safety clip on the M49A1?
    Secures the spoon
  552. When moving tactically, your survival depends largely on your ability to?
    execute basic movements
  553. An example of artificial cover is a?
  554. What type of cover are ravines, reverse slopes and hollows?
  555. Bushes, grass and shadows are examples of?
    Natural cover
  556. Which movement technique is preferred when you are under enemy observation or fire?
  557. Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner we call?
  558. What position should you assume to observe around corners of buildings?
  559. Which method do you use to clear a corner when speed is required?
  560. Likelihood of enemy contact are divided into what three categories?
    not likely, possible and expected
  561. What areas do you avoid because they outline you against the lighter sky?
  562. Squads use movement techniques to?
    Traverse terrain
  563. Factors we use to determine movement techniques are control, dispersion, speed and?
  564. Which movement technique doe we use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely?
  565. In the traveling formation the team leader is best located?
    With the fire team
  566. In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located?
    50 meters behind the lead fire team
  567. When moving as a fire team in an urban area, the fire team crosses open areas?
    in a group
  568. In a near ambush, when do airman in the kill zone assault through the ambush, using fire and movement?
  569. What are the two basic formations for an ambush?
    Linear and L-shaped
  570. When does the security element rejoin the flight after a hasty ambush?
    Before the force leader clears the kill zone
  571. What is a retrograde operation?
    Organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy
  572. Which rally point is tentative until the objecftive is pinpointed?
  573. How does the leader prevent vehicles from sky-lining?
    Make us of natural cover and concealment
  574. Which method of movement is used when enemy contact is possible and speed is desirable?
    Traveling overwatch
  575. If vehicles are not already painted to blend with the terrain, what can you use to break the outline?
  576. One advantage to pulling vehicles to the shoulder of the road in a herringbone pattern is?
    volume and density of organic weapons is higher
  577. An effective way to decrease damage by mines in convoy operations is?
    wear protective equipment
  578. How are map editions numbered if you have more than one edition?
    Numbered consecutively
  579. In the marginal information, where is the elevation guide normally found?
    Lower right margin
  580. What is the framework of the map?
    Projection System
  581. Where can you find the note indicating a maps security classification?
    Upper and lower margins
  582. Two minor terrain features are the?
    Draw and Spur
  583. What terrain feature is an area of low ground surrounded by higher ground in all directions?
  584. What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?
    Relief and elevation on a standard map
  585. What does the term SOSES Stand for?
    Shape, orientations, sizes, elevations, and slopes
  586. The primary purpose of a profile is to determine if?
    A line of sight is available
  587. A rough (4-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately?
    1,000 meters of the point you want to identify
  588. A refined (6-digit) grid coordinate puts you within approximately?
    100 meters of the point you want to identify
  589. What is the most common unit of measure used in expressing direction?
  590. What part of a map is located in the lower margin of large scale maps and indicates the angular relationships of true north, grid north, magnetic north?
    Declination diagram
  591. What color on a map represents special features?
  592. What color on a map is used for the symbol of a creek or spring?
  593. What color on a map represents orchards and vineyards?
  594. What color on a map illustrates contour lines?
  595. What color on a map is used on the symbol of a railroad?
  596. Where on a topographical map would you find information to help you convert map distances to group distances?
    Bar Scale
  597. On a topographical map, what is indicated by short arcs of vertical green lines?
    High grass areas
  598. On a topographical map, what is indicated by blue dots with a short, wavy line coming out if it?
  599. Two roughly parallel streams cutting draws down the side of a ridge usually form what?
  600. What are contour lines used to determine?
  601. What type of contour line represents every fifth line starting from zero elevation or sea level?
  602. How would you read a topographical map to determine a grid coordinate?
    Left to right, Bottom to top
  603. How close will a rough 4-digit grid coordinate get you to a specific point?
  604. What are the tic marks on the outermost edge of a protractor measured in?
  605. How are true north lines indicated in the declination diagram of a topographical map?
    They are capped with a star
  606. How is magnetic north symbolized on a topographical map?
    With a half arrow
  607. How is Grid North depicted on a topographical map?
    With a Y
  608. What is the safe clearing distance from a truck, tank, or field gun in reference to interference with a compass' operation?
    18 meters
  609. What is the most stable way to hold a compass to check or set an azimuth?
    Centerhold method
  610. If your presetting your azimuth by the click method, how do you determine the number of clicks to rotate the bezel ring?
    Divide your azimuth by 3
  611. What method are you using when you calculate your own location on a map by determining the grid azimuth to at least two well defined or easily recognized locations that you can pinpoint on the map?
  612. What is the first step for a navigator when using terrain to navigate?
    Orient the map
  613. The meter scale used in air base defense operations and is usually for distances that run out to?
    5,000 meters
  614. The bezel ring is a ratchet device that when rotated fully?
    contains 120 clicks; each click is equal to 3 degrees
  615. To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is?
    10 meters
  616. One of the most important parts to inspect on the compass is the?
    Floating Dial
  617. How often must you check your compass on a known line of direction?
  618. During limited visibility, to preset your azimuth by the click method, find the desired azimuth then?
    divide by 3
  619. Why would you use the deliberate offset method to set an azimuth to one side fo your target?
    to compensate for possible compass or map errors
  620. Which method lets you locate a position using two well defined locations pinpointed on a map?
  621. What method of navigation would you use when the area you are moving through is devoid of features or when visibility is low?
    Dead reckoning
  622. What are linear features like roads and highways, railroads, power transmission lines, ridge lines or streams that run roughly parallel to your direction of travel?
  623. What does the term OCOKA stand for?
    Observation/fields of fire, cover and concealment, obstacles, key terrain, avenues of approach
  624. What is the purpose of observation?
    see the enemy but not be seen by the enemy
  625. What is the first step in navigating using terrain association?
    orient your map to the terrain you see
  626. What mnemonic is being used when leaders consider tactical factors other than military aspects of terrain in conjunction with terrain during movement planning and execution?
  627. What is the function of the obstacle?
    disrupt, turn, fix, or block
  628. What are the two types of obstacles?
    Existing and reinforcing
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