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strent61
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249645
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FF
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2013-12-01 23:26:01
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FF flying
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15-02 Flying Fundamentals
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  1. An increase in temp would increase the takeoff roll. (T/F)
    True
  2. Which of the following factors will lengthen the landing roll?
    An increase in temp
  3. There are three different takeoff distance charts in the Flight Manual. Each chart is based on different ______.
    d. configurations
  4. According to the chart in the Flight Manual, what would be the rotation speed for a 6200 pound aircraft taking off with flaps up?
    c. 94 knots
  5. An increase in pressure altitude would ______ takeoff distance and ______ landing distance.
    a. increase; increase
  6. Which instrument will provide your first indication of an incorrect pitch setting. (B/1/1)
    VSI
  7. Which of the following instruments is a control instrument? (B/1/2)
    Electronic attitude direction indicator (EADI)
  8. During straight and level flight, your primary reference is the EADI, with airspeed, altitude, and heading cross-checks. Which performance instrument increases in importance during a turn? (B/1/3)
    b. EHSI
  9. Which performance instrument that provides your first indication of failure to maintain zero bank in straight and level flight. (B/1/4)
    EHSI
  10. Use composite references as your primary attitude reference in place of ______. (B/2/1)
    the EADI
  11. Each of the following statements associates a type of deviation from level flight with a cause. Select the INCORRECT relationship. (C/1/1)
    A heading deviation is normally caused by failure to correct for winds.
  12. Which control surface provides roll trim.
    Ailerons
  13. Which statement best describes the relationship between the ball on the turn and slip indicator and coordinated flight? (C/3/1)
    b. The ball should be centered for coordinated flight, regardless of bank angle.
  14. How many Gs does it take to perform a level 60° bank turn? (C/3/2)
    b. 2
  15. An ILS final approach is a good example of a rate descent. (C/4/1)
    a. True
  16. Select the response that most accurately reflects the relationship between pitch and bank when comparing a constant airspeed, constant power straight climb and a constant airspeed, constant power, climbing turn. (C/4/2)
    d. As the bank angle increases, the pitch attitude will lower to maintain the desired airspeed.
  17. You are currently 11,800 feet doing a climb at +1800FPM and plan to level off at 12,000 feet. To accomplish a smooth level off, how large a lead point should you use? (C/5/1)
    d. 180 feet
  18. d. Power changes normally require ____ and ____ trim adjustments.
    Elevator and rudder
  19. You need to make a radio call to the controlling agency, but it isn’t one of the standard local area radio calls. What information should you provide to the controlling agency? (C/7/1)
    d. You should state the controlling agency, your call sign, and what you want.
  20. Select the transponder code you would set if you experience a two-way radio failure. (C/7/2)
    c. 7600
  21. Visual accommodation, empty field myopia, and limited field of vision are three visual limitations that affect clearing. Select the statement concerning clearing that is FALSE. (D/1/1)
    Limited field of vision allows you to sweep your eyes across the horizon to pick up traffic conflicts.
  22. Which of the following helps you clear? (D/1/2)
    • a. NACWS
    • b. Radios
    • c. Specific ground tracks
  23. Which of the following choices lists only performance instruments?
    a. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, VSI
  24. Which performance instrument will provide the first indication of an incorrect pitch setting during level flight?
    VSI
  25. An airspeed deviation is normally caused by an _______.
    incorrect power setting
  26. You are in level flight when you notice a heading deviation. What is normally the cause of a heading deviation?
    a. Failure to maintain zero bank angle
  27. You are 20° off your desired heading. What bank angle will you use to make your correction?
    b. 20°
  28. You notice the aircraft is out of trim. In what order should you trim the control surfaces?
    d. Rudder, elevator, aileron
  29. Adjusting your heading so you fly a straight line groundtrack is called ______.
    b. crabbing
  30. You are in straight and level flight when you notice the ball on the turn and slip indicator is not centered. What does this indicate?
    d. The aircraft is out of yaw trim.
  31. Which statement best describes the relationship of pitch and power when comparing a level turn to straight and level flight?
    d. Both pitch and power increase to perform a level turn.
  32. You are descending to 4000 feet at 200 KIAS. Your VSI indicates a 1500 fpm descent. At what altitude will you begin your level off?
    b. 4150
  33. Your call sign is Texan 22, and you have been told to change to frequency 351.8. Select the correct phraseology for your response.
    Texan too too, tree fife wun point ait
  34. What information would NOT normally be transmitted through ATIS?
    Clearance to taxi
  35. What is the correct transponder code for an emergency?
    d. 7700
  36. Visual accommodation refers to the time it takes your eyes to focus. To ensure you will be able to see and recognize traffic, how long should you clear a given area to be sure your eyes have had sufficient time to focus?
    c. 2-3 seconds
  37. If a taxi route requires crossing any runway, pilots will hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross each runway. (T/F)
    b. True
  38. Normal power setting for taxiing the T-6A is ______. (B/1/4)
    a. IDLE
  39. A general rule of thumb is to taxi no faster than ______ knots when operating in a congested area,and no faster than ______ knots when outside the congested area. (B/1/5)
    b. 5-7; 15
  40. In the absence of local guidance, if you are taxiing directly behind another aircraft, a safe spacing to maintain is ______ feet. (B/1/6)
    d. 150
  41. If you observe a flashing green light signal from tower while taxiing, what action should you take? (B/1/7)
    c. Continue taxi
  42. If the nose or a main landing gear contact an arresting cable support donut, you must have the aircraft inspected by qualified maintenance personnel prior to next flight. (C/1/1)
    a. True
  43. The maximum crosswind allowed for takeoff in the T-6A with FLAPS TO or FLAPS UP is ______ knots. (C/1/2)
    d. 25
  44. What are the two types of takeoff options available to a pilot? (C/2/1)
    b. Static and rolling
  45. For a static takeoff, set power between ______ and ______ % torque prior to brake release. (C/2/2)
    a. 25; 30
  46. On takeoff in the T-6A, rotate between ______ and ______ nose high at 85 KIAS. (C/2/3)
    c. 7°; 10°
  47. In the T-6A, expect to need approximately _____right rudder initially on takeoff roll. (C/2/4)
    b. one-half
  48. Brakes should be used during takeoff to assist in maintaining directional control. (C/2/5)
    b. False
  49. Once the proper takeoff attitude is established, maintain the aircraft’s pitch ______. (C/2/6)
    and allow the aircraft to fly itself off the runway
  50. As the aircraft accelerates, maintain the desired climb airspeed of ______ KIAS. (C/2/7)
    140-160
  51. On takeoff, a crosswind can cause the aircraft to ______ into the wind and the ______. (C/3/1)
    weathervane; upwind wing to rise
  52. To control the effects of crosswinds on takeoff, hold the proper amount of aileron ______ the wind tocounter the tendency for the ______ to rise. (C/3/2)
    into; wing
  53. If issued a “hold short” clearance you are required to read it back to the controller.
    a. True
  54. If you’re not sure of the proper taxi route, you should request ______.
    “progressive” taxi instructions
  55. If you find yourself taxiing on a single yellow line with dashed double yellow lines along both sides of the pavement, you are most likely on a ______.
    taxiway
  56. In absence of local guidance, a safe distance to maintain taxiing directly behind another aircraft is 150feet. If staggered in trail, this distance can be reduced to ______ feet.
    75
  57. If you observe a flashing white light from tower while you are taxiing, what action should you take?
    Return to starting point
  58. What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff in the T-6A?
    10 knots
  59. On takeoff in the T-6A, rotate between 7° and 10° nose high at ______ KIAS.
    85
  60. When taking off, the PCL should always be advanced ______ and ______.
    smoothly; continuously
  61. In the T-6A, the tendency of the aircraft to ______ due to engine torque/P-factor will help counteract the weathervaning tendency caused by a crosswind from the right.
    yaw left
  62. Usually, a crosswind takeoff requires ______ to maintain aircraft directional control.
    downwind rudder
  63. You receive the following ATC departure instructions when you call for clearance prior to takeoff:“Navy 452 cleared as filed. Maintain 10,000. On departure fly runway heading until passing 1000,then turn left to heading 210 to intercept the Corpus Christi 184 radial. Cross LOCOE intersectionat or above 8000. Departure Control frequency will be 307.9. Squawk 5471.”Based on these instructions, when do you stop flying heading 210°? (B/1/1)
    Intercepting the Corpus Christi 184 radial
  64. “Navy 452 cleared as filed. Maintain 10,000. On departure fly runway heading until passing 1000,then turn left to heading 210 to intercept the Corpus Christi 184 radial. Cross LOCOE intersectionat or above 8000. Departure Control frequency will be 307.9; squawk 5471.”If your aircraft was not capable of climbing to 8000 feet or above by LOCOE intersection whatshould you do? (B/1/2)
    Inform the controller
  65. When you are flying a VFR departure, what is your primary reference to maintain your departureground track? (B/3/1)
    b. Ground points
  66. Study the departure depiction and instructions on thisgraphic. No matter which runway you use to takeoff,which mile arc do you fly? (B/2/1)
    d. 7
  67. You have just taken off on Runway 31L Click on the point of the chart where you will be flying the 203° course inbound. (B/2/2)
    Top right box
  68. You are flying the departure for RWY 13L/R.Click on the point of the depiction where you will beflying on the 213° radial off the TRUAX NAVAID.(B/2/3)
    Middle box
  69. You are flying the departure for any runway. Click on the point of the depiction where you will beflying on the 184° radial off of Corpus ChristiNAVAID. (B/2/4)
    Bottom box
  70. You have taken off on Runway 13R. What is the minimum altitude crossing the TRUAX 213°radial? (B/2/5)
    5000 ft
  71. A VFR departure routing may have either formal instructions or be developed by the pilot flying the aircraft. (B/3/2)
    a. True
  72. General procedures for all departures include receiving and understanding departure instructions,resolving questions and aircraft limitations, and ______. (B/4/1)
    adhering to departure instructions
  73. In the T-6A the climb airspeed used to provide a good rate of climb and improved forward visibility is ______. (B/5/1)
    160 KIAS
  74. In the T-6A what type of climb will you normally use? (B/5/2)
    Constant airspeed climb at 160 KIAS
  75. What is the correct procedure for performing a climb to altitude after takeoff? (B/5/3)
    Hold the takeoff attitude, accelerate to 160 KIAS and adjust pitch attitude slightly to maintain airspeed.
  76. If you notice the airspeed is 5 knots fast, what pitch adjustment should you make to correct back to 160 KIAS? (B/5/4)
    Raise the nose slightly
  77. During a normal climb, you notice the airspeed is 155 KIAS. What corrections should you make tocorrect back to 160 KIAS? (B/5/5)
    Lower the nose slightly
  78. Because of the loss of vertical lift in a climbing turn, what procedures should you follow if you must turn in a climb? (B/5/6)
    c. Use shallow-bank (<= 30°) turns to maintain a good rate of climb.
  79. In the T-6A the best rate of climb airspeed is ______. (B/5/7)
    140 KIAS
  80. “Texan 23 is cleared as filed. Maintain FL 240. On departure fly runway heading untilpassing 2000 feet, then turn right to heading 070° to intercept the Laughlin 023° radial directto Rocksprings. Cross Rocksprings NAVAID at or above FL 240. Departure ControlFrequency will be 264.8; Squawk 5130.”Based on these instructions when do you stop flying heading 070°?
    Intercepting the Laughlin 023° radial
  81. When you fly either runway departure you should join the 7 DME mile arc at ______ feet minimum.
    d. 3000
  82. You have taken off on Runway 31L. From which heading do you turn right to heading 355°?
    Runway heading
  83. Which one of the following is NOT a general procedure for executing a departure procedure?
    State acceptable departure instructions
  84. What is the correct procedure for initiating a climb from a cruise airspeed above 160 KIAS?
    Simultaneously increase the power to maximum and the pitch to above the normal climb pitch picture until the airspeed bleeds off to 160 KIAS then lower the pitch to maintain speed.
  85. In the T-6A what type of climb will you normally use?
    Constant airspeed climb of 160 KIAS
  86. When you are flying a VFR departure, what is your primary reference to maintain your departure ground track?
    Ground points
  87. When you roll into a turn, the loss of ______ increases as the angle of bank increases.
    vertical lift
  88. 2. Normal altitude, airspeed, and power setting for the T-6A on initial are ______. (B/1/2)
    1000 feet AGL, 200 KIAS, and 50% power
  89. You are flying up initial and are crabbing left 6°. Approximately how much crosswind is at pattern altitude? (B/1/3)
    18 knots (1o of crab for each 3kts of crosswind)
  90. You should use approximately ______ of bank for turns in the traffic pattern. (B/1/4)
    60°
  91. To ensure you have appropriate spacing to begin the break, the aircraft in front of you should be______. (B/2/2)
    abeam you on inside downwind
  92. To maintain proper displacement and ground track on downwind, ______. (B/2/4)
    use double the crab you held on initial
  93. Field elevation is 1000 feet MSL and pattern altitude is 2000 feet MSL. For a normal pattern with TO flaps, what should your altitude, airspeed, and configuration be halfway through the final turn?(B/3/1)
    1600-1700 feet, 115 KIAS or on-speed AOA, gear down, flaps TO
  94. When applying the wing-low method, you should apply aileron and rudder simultaneously to align the aircraft with the runway. (B/4/1) T/F
    False

    When applying the wing-low method, first apply rudder, then aileron followed by increasing power.
  95. You are landing Runway 31, and the winds are from 300° at 10 knots. Under these conditions, the numbers would appear ______ in the windscreen and landing would be assured _______ than in a no-wind situation. (B/4/2)
    lower; later
  96. You are applying the wing-low method to align the aircraft with the runway. If you fail to apply aileron after using the rudder to align the nose of the aircraft with the runway, the aircraft will______. (B/4/3)
    b. drift with the wind
  97. The on speed AOA indication is the amber center donut on the AOA indexer or ______ units on the AOA gauge. (B/5/2)
    c. 10-11
  98. Which of the following conditions would NOT preclude you from requesting a closed? (B/6/1)
    An aircraft calls gear down.
  99. Minimum airspeed throughout the closed pull up is ______ KIAS. (B/6/2)
    c. 140
  100. After rolling out on closed downwind, you should slow down and configure as soon as possible.(B/6/3)
    b. False 

    (configure abeam break point)
  101. What is the proper airspeed and configuration at the 2 mile point for a no-flap straight-in? (B/7/1)
    b. 110 KIAS or on-speed AOA, gear down
  102. You are on outside downwind and have requested a straight-in. The controller replied “Negative straight-in.” What action should you take? (B/7/2)
    Maintain pattern altitude and 200 KIAS. Proceed to initial.
  103. A go-around can be initiated by the pilot or directed by the runway controller. (C/1/1)
    True
  104. Which of the following is NOT a normal course of action following a go-around? (C/1/2)
    Requesting a straight-in
  105. Failing to execute a timely go-around could result in a dangerous situation. Which of the following situations could result in an overshooting final-turn stall? (C/1/3)
    Using excessive bank, bottom rudder, and pulling more Gs in an attempt to align your aircraft with the runway
  106. Which of the following is NOT normally a point of conflict in the pattern? (D/1/1)
    The turn from outside downwind to 90 to initial
  107. Which of the following is the primary method of recognizing and avoiding conflicts in the pattern?(D/1/2)
    Visually clearing
  108. You are flying a left hand normal overhead pattern. Which of the following properly describes a breakout from the perch? (D/1/3)
    Begin a climbing right turn. Once climbing, raise the gear and flaps. Accelerate to 200 KIAS and climb to breakout altitude.
  109. When should you be level at pattern altitude and 200 KIAS during a traffic pattern reentry? (D/2/1)
    1 NM prior to the reentry point
  110. What is the normal pattern altitude and airspeed for the T-6A?
    1000 feet AGL and 200 KIAS
  111. You are holding 10° of crab on outside downwind. How much crosswind at pattern altitude does this indicate?
    d. 30 knots
  112. In a no-wind situation, a good reference for proper displacement on inside downwind with flaps TO is to place the runway ______.
    d. aligned with the inside leading edge of the blue wingtip paint
  113. You held 7° of crab as you flew up initial. How much crab will you plan to hold on inside downwind?
    14°
  114. For a normal pattern, you should plan to roll out on final at _____ AGL, _____ NM from the runway.
    150 - 200; 1/2
  115. The airspeed for a normal final turn with LDG flaps is _____ KIAS or on-speed AOA.
    110
  116. You are flying wing-low down final due to crosswinds. What would be the indication that you havetoo much aileron in?
    The aircraft will start an uncoordinated turn into the wind.
  117. You are flying final approach with TO flaps to runway 17. Reported winds are 170 at 10 knots gusting to 32 knots. What airspeed should you maintain on final approach?
    c. 115

    (Increase landing threshold by 50% of the gust increment  up to max 10kts increase)
  118. The minimum airspeed for beginning a closed pull up is ______.
    c. 140
  119. After completing a go-around from the final turn, you will be at _____ feet AGL and ______ KIAS.
    b. 500; 200
  120. Once inside the 2 mile point on a straight-in, you will NOT normally perform a breakout.
    a. True
  121. You are wings-level 1 NM prior to the reentry point when you notice a conflict with an aircraft on outside downwind. You should ______.
    breakout
  122. During the roundout, elevator back pressure is adjusted to maintain proper ______. (B/1/1)
    b. pitch attitude
  123. During landing, retard the PCL with a smooth reduction to IDLE ______. (B/1/2)
    a. at or just before touchdown
  124. As groundspeed decreases below 80 KIAS and the flight controls become less effective, you can use ______ braking to assist in maintaining direction control during landing roll. (B/1/3)
    c. differential
  125. The three phases of landing are the roundout, touchdown, and _______. (B/1/4)
    b. landing roll
  126. If you suspect you may have hot brakes, you should remain clear of other aircraft or parking areas. (B/1/5)
    a. True
  127. If the roundout is executed too high, the tendency is to run out of ______ and drop it in or stall. (B/2/1)
    b. airspeed
  128. Ballooning can be brought on by ______. (B/2/2)
    b. rounding out too rapidly
  129. Within about one wing span distance above the ground, there will be ______ in induced drag while lift remains virtually unchanged. (B/2/3)
    c. a significant decrease
  130. A long narrow runway can cause an approach to appear ______. (B/2/4)
    b. too high
  131. Hills or buildings near the approach end of the runway can contribute to unpredictable wind currents on the approach path. (B/2/5)
    a. True
  132. Viscous hydroplaning is more likely on a ______ runway surface. (B/2/6)
    c. smooth
  133. When trying to stop a hydroplaning aircraft, maintain directional control with the rudder, and avoid ______. (B/2/7)
    b. sharp braking
  134. Following touchdown in a touch-and-go, directional control is maintained primarily with the ______. (B/3/1)
    b. rudder
  135. In a touch-and-go, anticipate adding ______ after power is advanced to counter the torque increase from the engine. (B/3/2)
    d. right rudder
  136. Crosswind controls should be established once you are ______. (B/4/1)
    c. on final approach
  137. Because cross controls increase drag, you will have to make power adjustments to maintain your ______. (B/4/2)
    a. approach airspeed
  138. Shifts in crosswind direction or speed (gusts) during the approach can cause ______. (B/4/3)
    c. a sudden loss of lift
  139. On a go-around/waveoff from the roundout raise the gear and flaps ______ . (B/5/1)
    c. when you are sure you will not touch down
  140. When should you contact ground control for taxi instructions? (B/6/1)
    c. After turning off the active runway
  141. What setting on the PCL will normally produce sufficient thrust for taxi? (B/6/2)
    a. IDLE
  142. What action should be taken before making sharp turns with differential braking? (B/6/3)
    b. Disconnect nose wheel steering
  143. A wide, short runway will cause a visual illusion which may cause a pilot to land ______.
    c. short of the runway
  144. Heavier aircraft weight will produce a higher lift requirement and contribute to a ______.
    b. quicker sink rate
  145. When power is advanced following touchdown in a touch-and-go landing, right rudder will be required to compensate for increased ______.
    d. torque
  146. When landing behind another aircraft, particularly a large type, ______ is one hazard which could require a go-around.
    b. wake turbulence
  147. Following a full stop landing, you should retract the flaps and complete the after landing checklist after you ______.
    c. clear the active runway
  148. In the initial portion of the rollout of a crosswind landing, directional control is maintained using rudder and ______.
    b. aileron
  149. Ground effect normally occurs within ______ of the ground.
    d. one wingspan
  150. Touchdown with flaps LDG should occur at an airspeed of approximately ______ KIAS.
    b. 80
  151. In a crosswind landing, cross controls will require power adjustments to maintain airspeed. This is primarily due to increased ______.
    d. drag
  152. What initial pitch is set to climb at 140KIAS?
    14o/ bottom of mag compass
  153. What distance from the runway will you normally begin descent on a 500' AGL straight-in?
    1 1/4 (VDP occurs between 1 1/4 and 1 2/3 for a 500' straight-in)
  154. When RCR decreases, what happens to takeoff roll?
    Negligible
  155. What are the steps for a constant rate descent?
    Set airspeed and descent rate, use pitch and power to maintain descent rate
  156. What does "carry straight through" on initial mean?
    Maintain altitude and airspeed, turn crosswind at departure end
  157. What must be accomplished on inside downwind?
    Below 150KIAS, call "gear clear", lower gear and flaps, maintain >= 120KIAS until perch
  158. What is the advantage of climbing at 160KIAS?
    Better forward visibility
  159. What information must be read back to the controller?
    Altimeter settings, headings, altitudes departing and assigned
  160. Describe the control and performance concept of flight
    Set attitude and power, trim, cross check performance, adjust
  161. During which landing phases are crosswind controls used?
    Throughout the round-out and touchdown
  162. What is the first indication of an incorrect power setting?
    Airspeed deviation
  163. Which hydroplaning results from steam caused by burning rubber?
    Rubber reversion
  164. Which hydroplaning results from tires riding on the layer of water?
    Dynamic
  165. Which hydroplaning results from tires riding on oil, rubber deposits, etc.
    Viscous
  166. When is nose wheel steering not used?
    High taxi speeds, tight turning
  167. What airspeed is used for best rate climb?
    140KIAS
  168. What may result on approach when the terrain is hilly?
    Varying crosswinds
  169. What are the 3 phases of landing?
    Round-out, touchdown and landing roll
  170. What is the taxi radio call for the sign Buzz 35 (ATIS info: Mike)
    Buzz tree-fife, taxi with Mike
  171. Define level-off lead point. If you are climbing at 2000/min, what is your lead point?
    Amount of altitude needed to transition to level flight. 

    200' prior
  172. What angle of bank is used for most turns in the pattern?
    60 degrees
  173. How may a long narrow runway effect an approach?
    Appear high, flare late
  174. When turning to a heading of 360 degrees, what instrument is the primary reference?
    EADI
  175. What is the difference between a normal rate climb and a best rate climb?
    Best rate gets to altitude in minimum time
  176. When initiating a go-around from the final turn, what altitude and airspeed should you go to?
    500' @ 200KIAS
  177. 1. What information is needed to complete the TOLD card? (B/1/1)
    Aircraft information: weight and balance 

    Departure and arrival field conditions (weather & airfield data): preflight and operations briefing

    Aircraft takeoff and landing performance: Flight Manual charts in Appendix A
  178. 2. What should you do if winds are reported as either gusty or variable? (B/1/2)
    Use the chart to calculate the strongest crosswind and weakest headwind.
  179. 3. What are the six variables used to compute takeoff distance using the takeoff distance chart? (B/1/3)
    Temperature, Pressure altitude, Gross weight, Runway slope, Wind, Obstacle height
  180. 5. What is the effect of increased temperature on takeoff distance? (B/1/5)
    As temperature increases, takeoff distance also increases.
  181. 6. In computing landing distance data, what is total landing distance? (B/1/6)
    Total ground distance from the 50-foot obstacle height to a full stop with charted configuration
  182. 7. What is RCR, and what are the specific values? (B/1/7)
    • Runway Conditions Reading (RCR)
    • a. 26 – best condition
    • b. 23 – dry
    • c. 12 – wet
    • d. 05 – icy
    • e. 02 – worst condition
  183. 9. What should you do before entering the computed headwind component into the appropriate block on the TOLD card? (B/1/9)
    Verify that the crosswind component is within acceptable limits.
  184. 10. What is an instrument cross-check? (B/2/1)
    Setting and maintaining aircraft parameters using reference only to the aircraft instruments
  185. 11. What term describes setting and maintaining aircraft parameters using outside visual reference and aircraft instruments? (B/2/2)
    Composite cross-check
  186. 12. What are the two categories of flight instruments? (B/2/3)
    Control, Performance and Navigation
  187. 13. Which performance instruments will give you the first indications of incorrect pitch and bank angle setting? (B/2/4)
    • a. Incorrect pitch: VSI, then altimeter
    • b. Incorrect bank angle: EHSI and turn and bank indicator
  188. 14. What is coordinated flight? (B/2/5)
    Flight in aerodynamic balance without skid or slip
  189. 15. What is crabbing? (B/2/6)
    Adjusting your heading in order to fly a straight ground track
  190. 16. What is the standard pitch correction for altitude deviations less than 300 feet? (B/2/7)
  191. 17. What is the purpose of trimming the aircraft? (B/2/8)
    Trim balances aerodynamic forces on the aircraft to relieve the pilot from having to forcefully hold aircraft controls in the desired position.
  192. 18. Turns involve the coordination of which aircraft control surfaces? (B/2/9)
    Aileron, rudder, and elevator
  193. 19. As you roll into a turn, what other control inputs must you make besides rudder? (B/2/10)
    You must increase back pressure on the stick to maintain level flight.
  194. 20. In a constant airspeed and power climb, how will your attitude in a climbing turn compare to a wings-level climb? (B/2/11)
    It will be lower because the turn results in a loss of lift and a resultant decrease in climb rate.
  195. 21. What is the technique to smoothly lead a level-off from a climb or descent? (B/2/12)
    Lead level-off altitude by 10% of the vertical velocity.
  196. 22. When accelerating, how will the aircraft tend to react? (B/2/13)
    It will seek the trimmed airspeed by climbing. If power is added, right rudder and trim will also be needed to compensate for propeller effects. The Trim Aid Device will also provide some assistance.
  197. 24. Which airborne radio calls should be read back? (B/2/15)
    Radio frequency changes, Heading changes, Altitude changes, Altimeter changes
  198. 26. Does clearance to taxi to a runway authorize you to cross other runways along the route? (B/3/1)
    No. If a taxi route requires crossing any runway, pilots will hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross each runway.
  199. 27. Which taxi clearances are you required to read back? (B/3/2)
    Any clearance that includes “hold short” instructions
  200. 29. As the takeoff roll progresses, why will smaller rudder inputs be needed? (B/3/4)
    As speed increases, the controls will become more effective.
  201. 30. During takeoff, when are the wheel brakes used? (B/3/5)
    Only for stopping (abort), not steering
  202. 31. What control inputs should be made during a no-wind takeoff? (B/3/6)
    Right rudder
  203. 34. During a normal climb, you observe the airspeed to be 155 knots. What correction is necessary? (B/4/3)
    Lower the nose slightly
  204. 35. What is the purpose of the best rate of climb? (B/4/4)
    Achieves cruise altitude as quickly as possible and is also the most fuel efficient
  205. 1. As temperature decreases, what happens to takeoff distance?
    It decreases.
  206. 2. What is RCR?
    Runway Conditions Reading, which is a report of runway braking characteristics
  207. 3. What is a composite cross-check?
    Maintaining aircraft parameters by using both outside references and instruments
  208. 4. Which instrument is used to maintain pitch and bank?
    EADI
  209. 5. Which is the primary instrument used in the hub and spoke method?
    EADI
  210. 6. What is a skid in a turn?
    The aircraft is turned with excessive rudder. The ball will be deflected to the outside of the turn.
  211. 7. In a turn, how do you compensate for loss of lift?
    Apply back pressure on the control stick.
  212. 8. To achieve cruise altitude as quickly as possible, you should use what climb speed?
    Best rate of climb
  213. 9. What information should be included in a standard request for taxi clearance?
    Aircraft ID, current position on the airfield, type of operation, and intended first destination
  214. 11. When can the wheel brakes be used during takeoff?
    Only for stopping, not steering
  215. 13. When initiating a climb from cruise with the airspeed above 160 KIAS, what is the first action taken?
    Simultaneously increase power to maximum and the pitch to above the normal climb pitch picture
  216. 1. What is normal traffic pattern airspeed and altitude? (B/1/1)
    1000 feet AGL and 200 KIAS
  217. 2. When must you normally proceed straight through initial and NOT execute a break? (B/1/2)
    • a. Reach end of the break zone and have:
    • 1) Insufficient spacing with aircraft on inside downwind
    • 2) Aircraft on straight-in between 5 and 2 miles
    • 3) Aircraft on ELP between high key and low key

    b. If you must proceed straight through initial, turn crosswind at departure end or as directed locally
  218. 3. Your goal at final turn roll out is to be on the extended runway centerline, approximately ______ mile from the runway approximately ______ feet above the ground. (B/1/3)
    1/2 NM from the runway; 150 - 200
  219. 4. What factors would preclude you from requesting a closed pattern? (B/1/4)
    • a. Straight-in between 5 and 2 miles
    • b. Aircraft on initial
    • c. Spacing with aircraft on closed downwind
    • d. ELP between “request high key” (depending on local procedures) and “low key”
  220. 5. During a straight-in, when do you make your gear down radio call? (B/1/5)
    At the 2 NM point
  221. 6. True or false? A go-around can be initiated by the pilot or directed by the runway controller. (B/1/6)
    True
  222. 7. Normally, what is the breakout altitude? (B/1/7)
    500 to 1000 feet above normal traffic pattern altitude
  223. 8. Where is the entry point for the 360° overhead pattern? (B/2/1)
    Initial
  224. 9. When do you perform the Before Landing Check? (B/2/2)
    On downwind. Also, maintain level flight and 120 KIAS.
  225. 11. During the high-speed portion of the touchdown and rollout, how should directional control be maintained? (B/3/1)
    With the rudder (ailerons in a crosswind)
  226. 12. When can the wheel brakes be used for directional control? (B/3/2)
    Once the nose wheel is on the runway (below 80 KIAS)
  227. 13. What visual illusions might affect your landing/flare? (B/3/3)
    Runway width, Runway length, Runway slope, Terrain features
  228. 14. What is the purpose of the touch-and-go landing? (B/3/4)
    Allows landing practice without having to taxi back
  229. 15. How should the aircraft be positioned at touchdown in a crosswind landing? (B/3/5)
    Fuselage aligned with runway, Touchdown on upwind gear, Ailerons added as necessary to counter drift
  230. 1. For Air Force overhead traffic patterns, when do you lower the landing gear, and below what airspeed?
    On inside downwind; 150 KIAS
  231. 2. How do you perform a breakout from an Air Force overhead pattern?
    Execute a climbing turn away from traffic. Maintain 200 KIAS and proceed to the reentry point.
  232. 5. While landing, what effect will a wide runway have?
    It can make you flare too high or short of the runway.

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