Supervision of Police Personnel 8th Edition

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Supervision of Police Personnel 8th Edition
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2013-12-02 18:51:36
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  1. People are responsible for _____________, the supervisor is responsible for__________.
    production / people
  2. In the long run, the interests of management and the worker are
    Identical
  3. The __________ Commission emphasized the importance of understanding informal organizations in "The Report of the National Commission on Public Service."
    Volcker
  4. In the day-to-day relationships with people, the supervisor is expected to function in which of the following ways?

    (A) Planner
    (B) Personnel Officer
    (C) Trainer
    (D) Controller
    (E) Coach and 
    (F) Counselor
    (G) all of the above
    all of the above:

    • (A) Planner
    • (B) Personnel Officer
    • (C) Trainer
    • (D) Controller
    • (E) Coach and
    • (F) Counselor
  5. Which of the supervisor's basic responsibilities would describe inspecting work systems and analyzing data?
    (A) Planner
    (B) Personnel Officer
    (C) Trainer
    (D) Controller
    (E) Coach and 
    (F) Counselor
    Planner
  6. Which of the supervisor's basic responsibilities would describe assigning subordinates as scientifically as possible to the position for which they are best suited?

    (A) Planner
    (B) Personnel Officer
    (C) Trainer
    (D) Controller
    (E) Coach and 
    (F) Counselor
    Personnel officer
  7. Which of the supervisor's basic responsibilities would describe determining that rules and regulations have been followed and orders properly executed?
    (A) Planner
    (B) Personnel Officer
    (C) Trainer
    (D) Controller
    (E) Coach and 
    (F) Counselor
    Controller
  8. True or False: A bad decision is better than none at all.
    True
  9. The seven activities that make up Gulick's POSDCORB are listed below. Which activity is described as "working out in broad outlines the things that need to be done" ?

    (A) Planning
    (B) Organizing
    (C) Staffing
    (D) Directing
    (E) Coordinating
    (F) Reporting
    (G) Budgeting
    Planning
  10. The seven activities that make up Gulick's POSDCORB are listed below. Which activity is further broken down to "procedural, tactical, operational,auxiliary, fiscal and policies" ?

    (A) Planning
    (B) Organizing
    (C) Staffing
    (D) Directing
    (E) Coordinating
    (F) Reporting
    (G) Budgeting
    Planning
  11. The seven activities that make up Gulick's POSDCORB are listed below. Which activity is further broken down to "recruitment, training and placement" ?

    (A) Planning
    (B) Organizing
    (C) Staffing
    (D) Directing
    (E) Coordinating
    (F) Reporting
    (G) Budgeting
    Staffing
  12. The seven activities that make up Gulick's POSDCORB are listed below. Which activity is described as "putting a prepared plan into operation andfollowing up with observation and inspection" ?

    (A) Planning
    (B) Organizing
    (C) Staffing
    (D) Directing
    (E) Coordinating
    (F) Reporting
    (G) Budgeting
    Directing
  13. The seven activities that make up Gulick's POSDCORB are listed below. Which activity is described as "ensuring unity of action between individuals and between organizational units" ?

    (A) Planning
    (B) Organizing
    (C) Staffing
    (D) Directing
    (E) Coordinating
    (F) Reporting
    (G) Budgeting
    Coordinating
  14. Which of the below organizational structures is seldom encountered in itstrue form in any but the smallest organization?

    (A) Line Organization
    (B) Functional Organization
    (C) Line and Staff Organization
    Line organization
  15. Which of the below organizational structures has as a disadvantage supervisory personnel being too-often required to perform the duties of aspecialist?

    (A) Line Organization
    (B) Functional Organization
    (C) Line and Staff Organization
    (D) none of the above
    Line organization
  16. Which of the below organizational structures is rarely found in its pureform in present-day organizations except at or near the top level?
    (A) Line Organization
    (B) Functional Organization
    (C) Line and Staff Organization
    Functional organization
  17. Which of the below organizational structures is found in almost all but the very smallest police agencies today?

    (A) Line Organization
    (B) Functional Organization
    (C) Line and Staff Organization
    Line and staff organization
  18. The process of dividing work involves

    (A) analysis
    (B) synthesis
    (C) planning
    (D) training
    (E) all of the above
    (F) A and B only
    Analysis and synthesis
  19. True or False: The principle of unity of command applies to those who are commanded, not to those who command.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  20. True or False: The principle of unity of command applies to those who command, not to those who are commanded.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  21. The number of subordinates who can be supervised effectively by onesupervisor at the top level of the organization is

    (A) one to two
    (B) three to five
    (C) six to ten
    (D) eleven to fifteen
    Three to five
  22. The tendency in modern police organizations is to ________ the bounds ofeffective control.

    (A) test
    (B) limit
    (C) exceed
    (D) respect
    Exceed
  23. The supervisor can effectively reduce his span of control by

    (A) limiting subordinate access
    (B) delegating work
    (C) delegating responsibility
    (D) insisting on accountability
    Delegating work
  24. Delegation is ____________ when the supervisor allows his subordinates todelegate upward more quickly that he learns to delegate downward.

    (A) awkward
    (B) done well
    (C) haphazardly
    (D) done poorly
    Done poorly
  25. Delegation may be accomplished by _____________ directive given orally or in writing.

    (A) a specific
    (B) a general
    (C) an implied
    (D) a simplified
    Specific or general
  26. The development of subordinates is essentially a problem of _________wherein the subordinate's skill and efficiency are increased.

    (A) planning
    (B) delegation
    (C) training
    (D) leadership
    Training
  27. The exception principle is inseparable from the principle of

    (A) planning
    (B) delegation
    (C) training
    (D) leadership
    Delegation
  28. When men obey another because of fear, they are

    (A) yielding
    (B) following
    (C) mimicking
    (D) enslaved
    Yielding
  29. When men obey another because they want to do what a leader wishes, they are

    (A) yielding
    (B) following
    (C) mimicking
    (D) enslaved
    Following
  30. True or False: Considerable resistance to leadership training still exists.
    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  31. True or False: The granting of formal authority ipso facto makes a person a leader.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  32. Which type of organizational leader always goes by the book?

    (A) Autocratic Leader
    (B) Democratic or Participatory Leader
    (C) Free Rein or Laissez-Faire Leader
    Autocratic leader
  33. Which type of organizational leader is keenly aware of the human factor inmanaging others?

    (A) Autocratic Leader
    (B) Democratic or Participatory Leader
    (C) Free Rein or Laissez-Faire Leader
    Democratic or participatory
  34. Which type of organizational leader seldom gives employees the attention or help they need?

    (A) Autocratic Leader
    (B) Democratic or Participatory Leader
    (C) Free Rein or Laissez-Faire Leader
    Free reign or laissez-faire
  35. Which type of organizational leader will invariably produce a climate of
    permissiveness?

    (A) Autocratic Leader
    (B) Democratic or Participatory Leader
    (C) Free Rein or Laissez-Faire Leader
    Free reign or laissez-faire
  36. According to Hersey and Blanchard, when workers are both unable to do the job and unwilling to try, the leader uses

    (A) Leadership Style 1 (telling)
    (B) Leadership Style 2 (selling)
    (C) Leadership Style 3 (participating)
    (D) Leadership Style 4 (delegating)
    Telling
  37. According to Hersey and Blanchard, when workers are unable to do the job but are willing or confident, the leader uses

    (A) Leadership Style 1 (telling)
    (B) Leadership Style 2 (selling)
    (C) Leadership Style 3 (participating)
    (D) Leadership Style 4 (delegating)
    Selling
  38. According to Hersey and Blanchard, when workers are very capable but are unwilling or insecure, the leader uses

    (A) Leadership Style 1 (telling)
    (B) Leadership Style 2 (selling)
    (C) Leadership Style 3 (participating)
    (D) Leadership Style 4 (delegating)
    Participating
  39. According to Hersey and Blanchard, when workers are very capable and are very willing, the leader uses

    (A) Leadership Style 1 (telling)
    (B) Leadership Style 2 (selling)
    (C) Leadership Style 3 (participating)
    (D) Leadership Style 4 (delegating)
    Delegating
  40. Of the elements of leadership listed below, which one, in its broadest sensein an organization, is perhaps the best mark of good leadership?

    (A) Discipline
    (B) Ethics
    (C) Common Sense
    (D) Psychology
    Discipline
  41. Of the elements of leadership listed below, which one, if it is present,ordinarily brings a high level of esprit de corps and morale along with increased efficiency?

    (A) Discipline
    (B) Ethics
    (C) Common Sense
    (D) Psychology
    Discipline
  42. Of the elements of leadership listed below, which one is described as the"hallmark of true leadership" ?

    (A) Discipline
    (B) Ethics
    (C) Common Sense
    (D) Psychology
    Common sense
  43. Of the elements of leadership listed below, which one is described as theone that "represents the action that gets the best results, with the least cost or side effects" ?

    (A) Discipline
    (B) Ethics
    (C) Common Sense
    (D) Psychology
    Common sense
  44. Money and other material incentives are _______________ as positive motivational influences on employees.

    (A) vastly overrated
    (B) vastly underrated
    (C) completely ineffective
    (D) highly effective
    Vastly overrated
  45. Because human beings can shield themselves by developing a tolerance of stress, fear

    (A) replaces stress as a motivating force
    (B) soon loses its value as a motivating force
    (C) decreases the tolerance and the stress again increases
    (D) increases the tolerance and the stress never returns
    Soon loses its value as a motivating force
  46. The supervisor should constantly evaluate his leadership qualities in_______________ so that he might gain some insight into his strengths and weaknesses.

    (A) an objective manner
    (B) a subjective manner
    (C) a team setting
    (D) a staff setting
    (E) all of the above
    An objective manner
  47. True or False: Being a leader requires much physical stamina.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  48. True or False: A real leader has moral as well as physical courage.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  49. It has been shown that successful leaders

    (A) almost invariably have more intelligence than those they lead
    (B) have a sense of imagination and humor
    (C) practice politeness and civility
    (D) are modest and practice humility
    (E) all of the above
    All of the above
  50. Most orders should be framed as
    (A) commands
    (B) suggestions
    (C) enticements
    (D) requests
    Requests
  51. When orders are given in the form of _____________, they should be simple and direct.

    (A) commands
    (B) suggestions
    (C) enticements
    (D) requests
    Commands
  52. If orders are indirectly given, they will tend to ___________ ideas already present.

    (A) weaken
    (B) strengthen
    (C) complement
    (D) conflict with
    Strengthen
  53. Perhaps the most common failing of an inexperienced supervisor is

    (A) under-supervision
    (B) over-supervision
    (C) lack of confidence
    (D) over-confidence
    Over-supervision
  54. There is ____________ room for forthright friendships between supervisors and their subordinates.

    (A) never
    (B) always
    (C) sometimes
    (D) only slight
    Always
  55. Gender ___________ has been cited by Haar and Morash as one of the primary sources of stress for female officers.

    (A) bias
    (B) harassment
    (C) isolation
    (D) stereotyping
    Stereotyping
  56. Most men have grown up in a culture of male dominance, so many expect____________ performance from female than from male supervisors performing similar duties.

    (A) better
    (B) worse
    (C) less objectionable
    (D) more objectionable
    Better
  57. Sexual harassment in the workplace may be litigated as a ___________________under Title 42, Section 93.

    (A) criminal violation
    (B) civil rights violation
    (C) federal tort violation
    (D) felony
    Civil rights violation
  58. Leadership fails more often because

    (A) its techniques are flawed
    (B) leaders are not trained for leadership
    (C) it is not provided when it is most needed
    (D) it is not requested when it is most needed
    It is not provided when most needed
  59. The first challenge for the supervisor of a Community Policing (CP) program is to adapt to

    (A) the high level of necessary commitment and community involvement
    (B) the resistance put forth by non-CP officers in the agency
    (C) the completely different mission and values of the new assignment
    (D) a completely new set of goals
    the high level of necessary commitment and community involvement
  60. True or False: When the war on terror began, traditional and community policing as we knew it changed.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  61. What type of policing provides the best philosophy for police departments to address both the threat of terrorist events and the fear these events cangenerate?

    (A) Community policing
    (B) Traditional policing
    (C) Homeland policing
    (D) Problem-oriented policing
    (E) POP/COPP
    Community policing
  62. The type of police organization which allows for a faster and more efficient response to crisis is

    (A) Autocratic
    (B) Democratic
    (C) Centralized
    (D) Decentralized
    Decentralized
  63. Ensuring that community policing and problem solving are connected to homeland security is a ______________ issue.

    (A) federal
    (B) training
    (C) budget
    (D) leadership
    Leadership
  64. In the landmark case of City of Canton, Ohio v. Harris (1989) the city was found liable for
    (A) failure to issue policies on the use of force
    (B) failure to apply strict standards for hiring police officers
    (C) failure to train its officers in a critical skill commonly needed inthat agency
    (D) negligent supervision leading to the death of an innocent citizen
    failure to train its officers in a critical skill commonly needed inthat agency
  65. The benefits to be derived from an effective training program are

    (A) immediate and easily measured
    (B) not immediate and not easily measured
    (C) immediate but not easily measured
    (D) easily measured but not immediate
    not immediate and not easily measured
  66. In the principles of learning and teaching shown below, which principle suggests that frequent reviews and summarization coupled with repetitiontend to fix in the mind the matters taught?

    (A) Principle of Intensity
    (B) Principle of Primacy
    (C) Principle of Recency
    (D) Principle of Repetition
    (E) Principle of Effect
    (F) Principle of Readiness
    Principle of recency
  67. In the principles of learning and teaching shown below, which principle suggests that things learned first create a strong impression in the mind that is difficult to erase?

    (A) Principle of Intensity
    (B) Principle of Primacy
    (C) Principle of Recency
    (D) Principle of Repetition
    (E) Principle of Effect
    (F) Principle of Readiness
    Principle of primacy
  68. In the principles of learning and teaching shown below, which principle suggests that vivid examples of real situations associated with principles taught provide a most effective learning experience?

    (A) Principle of Intensity
    (B) Principle of Primacy
    (C) Principle of Recency
    (D) Principle of Repetition
    (E) Principle of Effect
    (F) Principle of Readiness
    Principle of intensity
  69. In the principles of learning and teaching shown below, which principle is also referred to as the "law of use and disuse" ?

    (A) Principle of Intensity
    (B) Principle of Primacy
    (C) Principle of Recency
    (D) Principle of Repetition
    (E) Principle of Effect
    (F) Principle of Readiness
    Principle of repetition
  70. In the principles of learning and teaching shown below, which principle isused when the instructor appeals to the student's self-interest by showing him why he needs the things to be learned and how he can use them to improve?

    (A) Principle of Intensity
    (B) Principle of Primacy
    (C) Principle of Recency
    (D) Principle of Repetition
    (E) Principle of Effect
    (F) Principle of Readiness
    Principle of readiness
  71. True or False: There seems to be a definite pattern in the learning process.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  72. True or False: The degree of motivation by the teacher has a direct bearing on the student's learning rate and performance.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  73. True or False: In the training role of a police supervisor, it is important to remember that adults learn in the same manner as children learn.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  74. Ordinarily, from a learning standpoint, it has been found more desirable to teach an operation

    (A) from the most basic steps to the most complex steps
    (B) as a whole in the same sequence that it will be followed in practice
    (C) in bits and pieces based on the skill and knowledge level of the students
    as a whole in the same sequence that it will be followed in practice
  75. Within the instructional process, the term "specific objectives" means those specific _______ that are to be achieved in the various segments of the lesson or lessons.

    (A) results
    (B) goals
    (C) skills
    (D) tasks
    Goals
  76. Within the instructional process, the __________________ is /are the basis for the presentation step of the lesson plan.

    (A) results desired
    (B) goals set by the students
    (C) skills and abilities
    (D) job analysis
    Job analysis
  77. Within the instructional process, the __________________ should be geared to the plan of teaching and should follow a definite format to meet particular needs.

    (A) results desired
    (B) goals set by the students
    (C) instructor's skills and abilities
    (D) lesson plan
    Lesson plan
  78. Learning by _____________ means that things to be learned should be presented so they can be associated with other familiar things.

    (A) Presentation
    (B) Association
    (C) Familiarity
    (D) Memorization
    Association
  79. Within the Five Steps of Teaching, in which step must the ACID test be applied?

    (A) Introduction
    (B) Presentation
    (C) Review
    (D) Application
    (E) Test
    Inteoduction
  80. Within the Five Steps of Teaching, in which step is the objective to either refresh the student's memory or to impart new knowledge and skills?

    (A) Introduction
    (B) Presentation
    (C) Review
    (D) Application
    (E) Test
    Presentation
  81. Within the Five Steps of Teaching, which step should take place after each step of the presentation and also at the end of the total presentation?

    (A) Introduction
    (B) Test
    (C) Review
    (D) Application
    Review
  82. Within the Five Steps of Teaching, in which step does the student have an opportunity to try out or use, under the instructor's supervision, the information he has learned?

    (A) Introduction
    (B) Presentation
    (C) Review
    (D) Application
    (E) Test
    Application
  83. Within the Five Steps of Teaching, which step is an evaluation of the learner's progress?

    (A) Introduction
    (B) Presentation
    (C) Review
    (D) Application
    (E) Test
    Test
  84. Within the Five Steps of Teaching, which step employs a diagnostic instrument to show gaps in learning?

    (A) Introduction
    (B) Presentation
    (C) Review
    (D) Application
    (E) Test
    Test
  85. Within the instructional process, one of the most common faults inpresenting instructional material arises from

    (A) Lack of an introduction
    (B) Overly long presentation
    (C) Inadequate review
    (D) Aimlessness
    (E) Oversimplification
    Oversimplification
  86. True or False: You should use email, even if face-to-face conversation is feasible.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  87. Within the instructional process, the pure lecture method of instruction is

    (A) greatly overworked
    (B) greatly under-utilized
    (C) not prepared for adequately
    (D) proven to be the most effective
    Greatly overworked
  88. Within the instructional process, the pure lecture method of instruction isquite often ___________ since it assumes that all members of the classprogress at _____________.

    (A) the most effective / different rates
    (B) the least effective / the same rate
    (C) the most effective / the same rate
    (D) the least effective / different rates
    The least effective / the same rate
  89. True or False: Within the instructional process, the absence of questionscan be relied on as a reliable indicator that understanding has taken place.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  90. True or False: Conferences as training mediums have produced inadequate results in many cases, especially at the operational level of police work.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  91. In planning a staff meeting, if the meeting is to produce maximum results, aportion of it should be devoted to

    (A) suggestions
    (B) informal communications
    (C) training
    (D) visual presentations
    Training
  92. True or False: Instructional aids help the teacher to avoid too much tellingand too much reliance on words to carry ideas.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  93. True or False: Field trips, even when planned to accomplish a specific objective, are not normally useful in the instructional process because oftheir tendency to become purely recreational.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  94. The most important single skill of the supervisor is to

    (A) provide leadership and supervision to subordinates
    (B) listen intently to subordinates' concerns
    (C) communicate clearly and concisely
    (D) evaluate subordinates fairly
    (E) train subordinates thoroughly
    Communicate clearly and concisely
  95. A principle obstacle to good communications is the failure to

    (A) listen to what others are saying
    (B) provide feedback to what others are saying
    (C) think before you speak
    (D) filter your message for the audience
    (E) ask for feedback after speaking
    listen to what others are saying
  96. True or False: Communications are easier if they travel upward from the subordinate than if they go downward from the superior.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    False
  97. True or False: Communications are easier if they travel downward from the superior than if they go upward from the subordinate.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  98. Within the barriers to effective communications, the barrier which includes manifestations of superiority or impatience exhibited by supervisors isknown as

    (A) Noise
    (B) Language Barriers
    (C) Psychological Size
    (D) Fear of Criticism
    (E) Jumping to Conclusions
    (F) Filtering
    Psychological size
  99. Within the barriers to effective communications, the barrier which is concerned with "semantic blocks" is known as

    (A) Noise
    (B) Language Barriers
    (C) Psychological Size
    (D) Fear of Criticism
    (E) Jumping to Conclusions
    (F) Filtering
    language barriers
  100. Within the barriers to effective communications, the barrier which oftencauses members to couch their expressions in vagueness or abstraction isknown as

    (A) Noise
    (B) Language Barriers
    (C) Psychological Size
    (D) Fear of Criticism
    (E) Jumping to Conclusions
    (F) Filtering
    Fear of criticism
  101. Within the barriers to effective communications, the barrier which is described as "failure to allow a subordinate to have his day in court" isknown as

    (A) Noise
    (B) Language Barriers
    (C) Psychological Size
    (D) Fear of Criticism
    (E) Jumping to Conclusions
    (F) Filtering
    Jumping to conclusions
  102. Within the barriers to effective communications, the barrier which isdescribed as a supervisor "avoiding the truth when it is disagreeable" isknown as

    (A) Noise
    (B) Language Barriers
    (C) Psychological Size
    (D) Fear of Criticism
    (E) Jumping to Conclusions
    (F) Filtering
    Filtering
  103. Within interpersonal communications, intentional suppression of information that should pass from the superior to his subordinates will eventually cause a breach in ___________ channels.

    (A) formal
    (B) informal
    (C) upward
    (D) downward
    upward
  104. Within interpersonal communications, ____________ results from lack of discrimination in separating relevant and irrelevant information.

    (A) rumor
    (B) distrust
    (C) overloading
    (D) overstructuring
    Overloading
  105. The principle which is the key to effective interpersonal communication is

    (A) to almost always use formal channels
    (B) to strongly favor and promote informal channels
    (C) to do away with strict message filtering
    (D) seek first to understand, then to be understood
    seek first to understand, then to be understood
  106. True or False: Workers are not always entitled to explanations from management as a matter of inherent right.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  107. True or False: Within interpersonal communications, the skilled supervisor often is able to use the grapevine to good advantage.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    True
  108. Within interpersonal communications, the "oil that lubricates the process of listening" is known as

    (A) feedback
    (B) talking
    (C) filtering
    (D) questioning
    talking
  109. Communications may be categorized into three broad groups, all listed below.The type of communications that have the advantage of speed and are welladapted to emergency conditions are known as _______________ Communications.

    (A) Free Rein
    (B) Democratic
    (C) Autocratic
    Autocratic
  110. Communications may be categorized into three broad groups, all listed below.The type of communications that readily passes information in both directions are known as _______________ Communications.

    (A) Free Rein
    (B) Democratic
    (C) Autocratic
    Democratic
  111. The type of communications in which misunderstandings and mistakes flourish are known as _______________ Communications.

    (A) Free Rein
    (B) Democratic
    (C) Autocratic
    free-reign
  112. Communications may be categorized into three broad groups, all listed below.The type of communications in which leadership and guidance are often absentare known as _______________ Communications.

    (A) Free Rein
    (B) Democratic
    (C) Autocratic
    free-reign
  113. True or False: Excessive use of abbreviations should be avoided.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    true
  114. True or False: The so-called newspaper style of writing ordinarily simplifies expression and facilitates understanding.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    true
  115. The Commission on Accreditation for Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA) says that "a comprehensive, well thought out ____________________ is one of themost successful methods for reaching administrative and operational goals,while also providing direction to personnel."

    (A) community action plan
    (B) set of departmental objectives
    (C) department vision statement
    (D) department mission statement
    (E) uniform set of written directives
    uniform set of written directives
  116. The most persuasive communications are brought about by

    (A) words, not deeds
    (B) deeds, not words
    (C) subordinates, not supervisors
    (D) supervisors, not subordinates
    deeds, not words
  117. Written communications require ________________  do oral communications.

    (A) less attention than
    (B) more attention than
    (C) less clarification than
    (D) about the same amount of clarification as
    more attention than
  118. An interview is described as

    (A) a question and answer session between two or more persons
    (B) an exploratory discussion between two or more persons
    (C) an accusatory interrogation between an investigator and suspect
    (D) an interchange of views and ideas between two or more persons
    an interchange of views and ideas between two or more persons
  119. An interrogation is described as

    (A) a question and answer session between two or more persons
    (B) an exploratory discussion between two or more persons
    (C) a process of questioning with the investigator usually assuming adominant role
    (D) an interchange of views and ideas between two or more persons with oneperson usually assuming a dominant role
    a process of questioning with the investigator usually assuming adominant role
  120. In studies of interviewing it was found that questions framed in negative terms had a tendency to elicit

    (A) inaccurate responses more frequently than did positive questions
    (B) accurate responses more frequently than did positive questions
    (C) admissions to crimes more frequently than did positive questions
    (D) admissions to crimes much less frequently than did positive questions
    inaccurate responses more frequently than did positive questions
  121. In an interview, the successful interviewer will adopt an attitude of______________ which will encourage the interviewee to express himselffreely.

    (A) positive listening
    (B) active questioning
    (C) active listening
    (D) negative questioning
    active listening
  122. Understanding is a by-product of ___________, through which one gains some insight into the speaker's desires, ideas, concepts and attitudes.

    (A) questioning
    (B) empathy
    (C) listening
    (D) sympathy
    listening
  123. If after ____ thorough counseling sessions about personal problems an employee is still not making progress, the supervisor should consider referring him to a professional therapist.

    (A) two
    (B) three
    (C) four
    (D) five
    two
  124. Which of the seven types of employee interviews shown below is used by managers who employ MBWA - managing (leading) by walking around?

    (A) Informal Interview
    (B) Employment Interview
    (C) Progress Interview
    (D) Grievance Interview
    (E) Problem-Solving Interview
    (F) Disciplinary Action Interview
    (G) Separation Interview
    informal interview
  125. Which of the seven types of employee interviews shown below is frequently avoided by the supervisor because of a reluctance to discuss low ratings with the employee?

    (A) Informal Interview
    (B) Employment Interview
    (C) Progress Interview
    (D) Grievance Interview
    (E) Problem-Solving Interview
    (F) Disciplinary Action Interview
    (G) Separation Interview
    progress interview
  126. Which of the seven types of employee interviews shown below is often called a consultation interview or the chaplain interview?

    (A) Informal Interview
    (B) Employment Interview
    (C) Progress Interview
    (D) Grievance Interview
    (E) Problem-Solving Interview
    (F) Disciplinary Action Interview
    (G) Separation Interview
    problem-solving interview
  127. Which of the seven types of employee interviews shown below will, if not performed by someone in authority from the employing agency, have along-term adverse affect on the organization's image?

    (A) Informal Interview
    (B) Employment Interview
    (C) Progress Interview
    (D) Grievance Interview
    (E) Problem-Solving Interview
    (F) Disciplinary Action Interview
    (G) Separation Interview
    separation interview
  128. Which of the seven types of employee interviews shown below is the only one in which the supervisor may not need to plan ahead for what he wishes to accomplish and how he will approach it?

    (A) Informal Interview
    (B) Employment Interview
    (C) Progress Interview
    (D) Grievance Interview
    (E) Problem-Solving Interview
    (F) Disciplinary Action Interview
    (G) Separation Interview
    informal interview
  129. Which of the below basic human drives is based on fear, apprehensiveness and avoidance?

    (A) the wish for security
    (B) the drive for response
    (C) the wish for recognition
    (D) the drive for new experiences
    the wish for security
  130. Which of the below basic human drives is derived from love, friendship and affection?

    (A) the wish for security
    (B) the drive for response
    (C) the wish for recognition
    (D) the drive for new experiences
    the drive for response
  131. Which of the below basic human drives is gained from status, prestige and social approval?

    (A) the wish for security
    (B) the drive for response
    (C) the wish for recognition
    (D) the drive for new experiences
    the wish for recognition
  132. Which of the below basic human drives is gained through curiosity, adventure and the craving for excitement?

    (A) the wish for security
    (B) the drive for response
    (C) the wish for recognition
    (D) the drive for new experiences
    the drive for new experiences
  133. Adair lists the basic psychological need(s) as

    (A) a feeling of security
    (B) a sense of adequacy
    (C) a sense of self-esteem
    (D) a sense of social approval
    (E) all of the above
    all of the above
  134. Sigmund Freud engaged in ____________ as a method to cure patients' psychological ailments.

    (A) shock therapy
    (B) sexual symbolism
    (C) group behavioral analysis (GBA)
    (D) catharsis
    catharsis
  135. The supervisor is constantly dealing with people who, in one respect or another, have  __________ caused by frustrations.

    (A) regressions
    (B) fixations
    (C) overdrives
    (D) all of the above
    all of the above
  136. Susceptibility to frustration varies with individuals. The threshold level at which frustrations have different effects on behavior is called the

    (A) frustration threshold
    (B) frustration tolerance
    (C) frustration limit
    (D) frustration boundary
    frustration tolerance
  137. Since human beings cannot remain static for long, they tend to meet frustration with

    (A) avoidance
    (B) aggression
    (C) depression
    (D) innovation
    agression
  138. This psychological reaction has two main functions; the wresting of satisfaction from the outside world in the drive toward a goal that is blocked; and a desire to hurt or destroy the source of the pain, those things or persons who are symbols of the barrier.

    (A) indulgence
    (B) aggression
    (C) overt violence
    (D) antipathy
    agression
  139. This psychological reaction when practiced by a supervisor is particularly damaging to the organization when he uses it to relieve himself of the necessity of seriously tackling problems that are likely to be frustrating.

    (A) escape
    (B) rationalization
    (C) regression
    (D) fixation
    rationalization
  140. This psychological reaction should not be confused with laziness or lack of motivation in the employee, it is rather a lack of fortitude.

    (A) escapism
    (B) rationalization
    (C) regression
    (D) fixation
    escapism
  141. This psychological reaction is seen when an individual reverts to earlier,less mature methods of performing his work.

    (A) escapism
    (B) rationalization
    (C) regression
    (D) fixation
    regression
  142. This psychological reaction is seen when an individual keeps repeating a response even if it is not effective.

    (A) escapism
    (B) rationalization
    (C) regression
    (D) fixation
    fixation
  143. Without question the most serious drug problem in the country is

    (A) marijuana abuse
    (B) cocaine use
    (C) crack cocaine addiction
    (D) painkiller addiction
    (E) alcohol dependence
    alcohol dependence
  144. Tests involving speed and precision have revealed that the performance ofthe problem drinker is ____________________ in the early stages ofalcoholism.

    (A) only slightly reduced
    (B) moderately reduced
    (C) considerably reduced
    (D) unaffected
    considerably reduced
  145. Many believe that the best clue to what is developing in the early symptoms of the problem drinker is

    (A) the recurring memory blackout
    (B) increased absenteeism
    (C) considerably reduced productivity
    (D) a family member noticing the problem and asking for intervention
    the recurring memory blackout
  146. The deviant drinker manages to drink more than others by_______________________ so that he can conceal the quantity of his owndrinking.

    (A) sneaking drinks now and then
    (B) drinking faster than others
    (C) supplying others with drinks
    (D) all of the above
    all of the above
  147. Like any disease, problem drinking is more easily corrected

    (A) before it starts
    (B) in its early stages
    (C) when the person asks for help
    (D) when the problem becomes acute
    in its early stages
  148. True or False: A problem drinker must "hit bottom" before he realizes thathe needs help.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    false
  149. True or False: Disciplining a subordinate for derelictions resulting from a drinking problem is incompatible with efforts to treat the condition.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    false
  150. rue or False: The A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a widerange of performance problems, may be used when counseling the problem drinker.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    true
  151. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a widerange of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor review all relevant information and documentation, verify problem areas and review options?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    analysis
  152. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor meet with the employee to gain input?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    develop a plan
  153. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor set goals and timelines with the employee?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    develop a plan
  154. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor initiate the action plan?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    implement
  155. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor initiate the action plan?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    implement
  156. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor hold follow-up meetings with the employee?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    monitor
  157. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor make course corrections as needed?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    monitor
  158. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor assess performance improvement?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    evaluate
  159. The components of the A-DIME problem-solving method, appropriate for a wide range of performance problems, are listed below. During which step would you as a supervisor institute positive progressive discipline for failure asagreed?

    (A) Analysis
    (B) Develop a plan
    (C) Implement
    (D) Monitor
    (E) Evaluate
    evaluate
  160. The important objective of counseling is not only to get the problem drinker to give up drinking, but to lead him to the realization that he

    (A) has been the cause of his own problems all along
    (B) must pay and make amends to all those people he has injured
    (C) can never be a moderate drinker
    (D) can never use alcohol again
    (E) C & D only
    C & D only
  161. When a subordinate with an emotional problem approaches a supervisor for help, the supervisor's first objective should be to

    (A) determine the exact nature and depth of the emotional problem
    (B) relieve the employee from duty until the problem has been resolved
    (C) determine if the employee has a problem that should remain private
    (D) determine if the employee has come to the right person
    determine if the employee has come to the right person
  162. What is called excessive job stress, or the stress resulting from frustration and inadequate coping skills?

    (A) distress
    (B) eustress
    (C) neurosis
    (D) burnout
    burnout
  163. Crank and Caldero found that _______________ top the list of sources of stress, regardless of the officer's rank, assignment, or area of service.

    (A) family problems
    (B) relationship problems
    (C) problems with the court system
    (D) organizational stressors
    organizational stressors
  164. True or False: Everyone suffers depression of a transitory nature from time to time.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    true
  165. True or False: An employee mourning the loss of a loved one should be encouraged to take a vacation and "get away from it all."

    (A) True
    (B) False
    false
  166. True or False: A supervisor cannot be expected to act as a marriage counselor.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    true
  167. Post-shooting stress syndrome is often reflected by

    (A) feelings of isolation
    (B) flashbacks
    (C) sleeplessness
    (D) anxiety
    (E) loss of work interest
    (F) deterioration in performance
    (G) all of the above
    all of the above
  168. Crank and Caldero have identified _________________ as the primary source of stress for police officers. 

    (A) pay and economic issues
    (B) fellow officer misconduct
    (C) family problems
    (D) organizational practices
    organizational practices
  169. What accounts for a large share of dissatisfaction and negative feelings of employees toward their department?

    (A) pay and economic issues
    (B) fellow employee misconduct
    (C) poor supervisory practices
    (D) political interference
    poor supervisory practices
  170. Observations indicate that managers in law enforcement agencies tend to communicate organizational policies and procedures

    (A) rather poorly
    (B) rather well
    (C) infrequently
    (D) only when there is a violation
    rather well
  171. What is considered sacrosanct and non-negotiable by virtually all rank-and-file police officers?

    (A) promised raises
    (B) all job benefits
    (C) vacation time
    (D) procedural due process
    procedural due process
  172. The U.S. Supreme Court held in Loudermill that a tenured public employee is entitled, under due process, to

    (A) oral or written notice of the charges against him
    (B) an opportunity to tell his side of the story before he is terminated
    (C) refuse to take a polygraph exam even if ordered to do so
    (D) have an attorney present during all question and answer sessions
    (E) all of the above
    (F) A and B only
    A & B only
  173. True or False: Most grievances that do not involve a contractual matter can be resolved by the first line supervisor without referral to a higher authority.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    true
  174. When employees complain because they believe the management in an organization has breached an agreement of their contract, _________________procedure is usually required.

    (A) a judicial
    (B) a grievance
    (C) a formalized
    (D) an external
    a formalized
  175. Instead of "punishment," the term "discipline" means more nearly

    (A) instructing
    (B) teaching
    (C) training
    (D) all of the above
    all of the above
  176. One of the primary measures of the level of discipline within the police force is the

    (A) number of citizen complaints per year divided by the number of officers
    (B) orderliness with which it operates
    (C) productivity level as judged by the community
    (D) amount of fear of crime felt by the community
    orderliness with which it operates
  177. The principal responsibility for maintaining an appropriate level of discipline in a unit should rest on  

    (A) all the members of the unit
    (B) the immediate line supervisor
    (C) the unit commander
    (D) the head of the agency
    the immediate line supervisor
  178. Discipline that takes the form of punishment or chastisement is known as

    (A) progressive discipline
    (B) negative discipline
    (C) punitive discipline
    (D) retaliatory discipline
    negative discipline
  179. The threat of punishment and the fear it creates may be ___________________in changing behavior than are the more positive methods of motivating people.

    (A) more effective
    (B) as effective
    (C) less effective
    (D) much quicker
    less effective
  180. The New Jersey Attorney General's Office recommends police agencies use certain data to help identify the problem performer. Which of the below is NOT one of those recommended? Check all that apply.

    (A) Vehicular pursuits and accidents
    (B) Use-of-force incidents
    (C) Cases dismissed by the court
    (D) Supervisory reprimands
    (E) Citizen complaints
    (F) Motor vehicle stop data
    (G) Claims of duty-related injury
    (H) Amount of sick time and non-duty related injuries
    (H) Amount of sick time and non-duty related injuries

    and

    (H) Supervisory reprimands
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. The New Jersey Attorney General's Office recommends police agencies usecertain data to help identify the problem performer. Which of the below is NOT one of those recommended? Check all that apply.

    (A) Use-of-force incidents
    (B) Complaints made against other officers
    (C) Citizen complaints
    (D) Rate of minorities stopped vs. rate of non-minorities stopped
    (E) Vehicular pursuits and accidents(H) Incidents of arrested persons injured
    (F) Arrests for resisting arrest
    (G) Cases dismissed by the court
    (D) Rate of minorities stopped vs. rate of non-minorities stopped

    and

    (D) Complaints made against other officers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. Of all the requisites for fair and consistent punishment listed below, which one is perhaps the greatest deterrent to further misbehavior?

    (A) Certainty
    (B) Swiftness
    (C) Fairness and Impartiality
    (D) Consistency
    (E) Deterrence for Others
    certainty
  183. Of all the requisites for fair and consistent punishment listed below, which one is validated by "McGregor's hot stove concept" ?

    (A) Certainty
    (B) Swiftness
    (C) Fairness and Impartiality
    (D) Consistency
    (E) Deterrence for Others
    swiftness
  184. Of all the requisites for fair and consistent punishment listed below, which one is violated by a supervisor who uses arbitrary or capricious punishment?

    (A) Certainty
    (B) Swiftness
    (C) Fairness and Impartiality
    (D) Consistency
    (E) Deterrence for Others
    fairness and impartiality
  185. Of all the requisites for fair and consistent punishment listed below, which one is described by "A guiding rule that has been found useful is that just that amount of punishment should be applied that will prevent further derelictions of the same nature" ?

    (A) Certainty
    (B) Swiftness
    (C) Fairness and Impartiality
    (D) Consistency
    (E) Deterrence for Others
    consistency
  186. Of all the requisites for fair and consistent punishment listed below, which one is described by "Overly severe or excessively lenient penalties may cause a reaction from employees just the opposite to that intended by the supervisor." ?

    (A) Certainty
    (B) Swiftness
    (C) Fairness and Impartiality
    (D) Consistency
    (E) Deterrence for Others
    consistency
  187. Of all the requisites for fair and consistent punishment listed below, which one is described as being a form of training in the types of acts the organization cannot and will not tolerate?

    (A) Certainty
    (B) Swiftness
    (C) Fairness and Impartiality
    (D) Consistency
    (E) Deterrence for Others
    deterrence for others
  188. Of all the requisites for fair and consistent punishment listed below, which one is furthered by the department policy of making disciplinary recordseasily available to members of the organization?

    (A) Certainty
    (B) Swiftness
    (C) Fairness and Impartiality
    (D) Consistency
    (E) Deterrence for Others
    deterrence for others
  189. What is most accurately described as a state of mind reflecting the degree to which an individual has confidence in the members of his group and in the organization, believes in its objectives, and desires to accomplish them?

    (A) morale
    (B) esprit de corps
    (C) discipline
    morale
  190. What is most accurately described as a fluctuating condition existing within individuals and in groups?

    (A) morale
    (B) esprit de corps
    (C) discipline
    morale
  191. What is most accurately described as a devotion to the group enterprise,cooperation among its members, and pride in its accomplishments?

    (A) morale
    (B) esprit de corps
    (C) discipline
    esprit de corps
  192. Under the doctrine of _______________ a public entity is now liable for the wrongful acts or omissions of its employees who are acting within the scope of their employment.

    (A) negligent retention
    (B) negligent training
    (C) negligent hiring
    (D) respondeat superior
    respondent superior
  193. Under the doctrine of respondeat superior a public entity is now liable forthe wrongful acts or omissions of its employees who are acting

    (A) within the scope of their employment.
    (B) outside the scope of their employment
    (C) off-duty and outside their jurisdiction
    (D) to purposely injure a person due to excessive force
    within the scope of their employment
  194. Of the three sources of complaints against officers, which one can be classified as either a primary or secondary complaint?

    (A) Internal
    (B) External
    (C) Anonymous
    external
  195. Of the three sources of complaints against officers, which one would include those made by report auditors?

    (A) Internal
    (B) External
    (C) Anonymous
    internal
  196. The National Advisory Commission on Criminal Justice Standards and Goals recommends all complaints be

    (A) open to the public record
    (B) permanently recorded
    (C) permanently recorded, except unfounded anonymous complaints
    permanently recorded
  197. The U.S. Supreme Court held in City of North Muskegon v. Briggs that the government would have to prove the agency's reputation was actually damaged by an officer's _________________ in order to sustain discipline.

    (A) purposeful neglect
    (B) off-duty conduct
    (C) poor judgment
    (D) release of confidential information
    off-duty conduct
  198. A supervisor should make a record of the circumstances of every complaint incident against an officer and the action taken, except in

    (A) complaints initiated by the supervisor
    (B) complaints initiated by anonymous sources
    (C) very minor cases
    (D) there are no exceptions, a record should be made in all cases
    very minor cases
  199. Persons who are intoxicated making a complaint against an officer should always be

    (A) given the benefit of the doubt that their intoxication did not affect their judgment
    (B) assessed and tested to see what their level of intoxication is
    (C) interviewed in the presence of a third-party witness, or on video
    (D) reinterviewed when they are sober
    reinterviewed when they are sober
  200. If an officer commits a misdemeanor, they should

    (A) always be handled with an on-the spot arrest
    (B) rarely be handled with an on-the-spot arrest
    (C) always be handled administratively within the department
    (D) rarely be handled administratively within the department
    rarely be handled with an on-the-spot arrest
  201. Coercing an officer to resign instead of be fired as discipline

    (A) might result in reversal by the courts and a reinstatement of the employee
    (B) is largely a matter of organizational policy
    (C) is desirable at times because it is generally more final than forcedseparations from service
    (D) all of the above
    all of the above
  202. If during a personnel complaint investigation counsel is permitted by the supervisor even though it is not required, a later claim may be made that

    (A) such procedure is a general practice and denial in other cases would bearbitrary and unfair
    (B) such procedure is voluntary and up to the officer and not departmentpolicy, and denial in other cases would be arbitrary and unfair
    (C) no later claim can be made since it is a decision left to eachindividual supervisor
    such procedure is a general practice and denial in other cases would bearbitrary and unfair
  203. During personnel complaint investigations, supervisors are prone to

    (A) require the accused to make an employee's report too frequently
    (B) not require the accused to make an employee's report
    (C) require the accused to make an employee's report only in cases thatcould result in termination
    require the accused to make an employee's report too frequently
  204. In written statements used as an investigative tool in personnel complaints,guilty persons

    (A) subconsciously reflect the truth in written statements
    (B) will resist telling their story in writing
    (C) believe that cooperating in a written statement will be seen as proof oftheir innocence
    subconsciously reflect the truth in written statements
  205. If an apology is demanded by the complainant for an act allegedly involving misconduct of an officer, the supervisor should

    (A) not allow the apology to settle the matter
    (B) allow the apology to settle the matter
    (C) not allow the apology to settle the matter unless the officer is willingto put the apology in writing
    not allow the apology to settle the matter
  206. An employee _____________ be ordered to participate in a lineup to beidentified by a complainant.

    (A) may
    (B) may in some serious instances
    (C) may only if a felony is involved
    (D) may only if allowed to have counsel present
    may
  207. In those states where the use of a polygraph is legal under all or limited circumstances, courts have given __________________ its use in personnelinvestigations.

    (A) general approval for
    (B) only qualified approval of
    (C) no direction for
    only qualified approval of
  208. In O'Connor v. Ortega, the U.S. Supreme Court held that a government could test workers for drug or alcohol use based on

    (A) mere suspicion
    (B) reasonable suspicion
    (C) probable cause
    (D) random exams
    reasonable suspicion
  209. Ordinarily, the courts _________ a broad department charge of unbecoming conduct against an employee.

    (A) will uphold
    (B) will not uphold
    (C) will require a felony be involved in
    will not uphold
  210. In a personnel complaint investigation, in the conclusion section the investigator should report the conclusions he has drawn, but

    (A) only if required by department rules
    (B) only if required to do so by a superior
    (C) only if the conclusions are clear and convincing
    (D) only if the employee under investigation has more or less admitted tothe charges
    (E) all of the above
    (F) A and B only
    A & B only

    (A) only if required by department rules

    and 

    (B) only if required to do so by a superior
  211. Basic to all police reports but of special importance to complaint investigation reports are the requisites of

    (A) accuracy and sufficient documentary evidence attached to the report
    (B) completeness and readability
    (C) accuracy and a second opinion from the investigator's supervisor
    (D) accuracy and completeness
    accuracy and completeness
  212. Personnel rating systems are inherently ____________ because the instrumentsare ________.

    (A) accurate / validated
    (B) inaccurate / subjective
    (C) accurate / objective
    (D) inaccurate / subjective
    (E) unstable / subjective
    unstable and subjective
  213. Of the many causes of personnel evaluation system failures, the one causethat is a result of the administration failing to support the programactively is known as

    (A) Rating Shortcuts
    (B) Slipshod Procedures
    (C) Rating Abuses
    (D) Failure to Train Raters
    (E) Employee Pressures
    (F) Indifference
    indifference
  214. Of the many causes of personnel evaluation system failures, the one cause that commonly results when merit pay is withdrawn is known as

    (A) Rating Shortcuts
    (B) Slipshod Procedures
    (C) Rating Abuses
    (D) Failure to Train Raters
    (E) Employee Pressures
    (F) Indifference
    employee pressures
  215. Of the many causes of personnel evaluation system failures, the one cause that is its most usual source of weakness is known as

    (A) Rating Shortcuts
    (B) Slipshod Procedures
    (C) Rating Abuses
    (D) Failure to Train Raters
    (E) Employee Pressures
    (F) Indifference
    failure to train raters
  216. Of the many causes of personnel evaluation system failures, the one cause that is described as economizing on time at the expense of accuracy is knownas

    (A) Rating Shortcuts
    (B) Slipshod Procedures
    (C) Rating Abuses
    (D) Failure to Train Raters
    (E) Employee Pressures
    (F) Indifference
    rating shortcuts
  217. In personnel evaluation systems and rating forms, not more than _____ traits relevant to the job performed should ordinarily be used for best results.

    (A) six
    (B) twelve
    (C) nine
    (D) twenty
    (E) four
    twelve
  218. Of the five performance rating standards listed below, which one has the disadvantage of lacking common standards of measurement?

    (A) Employee Ranking
    (B) Representative Employee Standard
    (C) Ideal Employee Standard
    (D) Numerical Standard
    (E) Forced Choice Standard
    employee ranking
  219. Of the five performance rating standards listed below, in which is thesupervisor forced to make meticulous appraisals of his subordinates or risk the danger of hurting morale?

    (A) Employee Ranking
    (B) Representative Employee Standard
    (C) Ideal Employee Standard
    (D) Numerical Standard
    (E) Forced Choice Standard
    employee ranking
  220. Of the five performance rating standards listed below, which one would bedifficult to apply because of the abstract traits that are important inpolice work?

    (A) Employee Ranking
    (B) Representative Employee Standard
    (C) Ideal Employee Standard
    (D) Numerical Standard
    (E) Forced Choice Standard
    numerical standard
  221. Of the five performance rating standards listed below, in which one would the rater select only one choice for each trait evaluated, and in which only one trait should be considered at a time to avoid an unconscious bias?

    (A) Employee Ranking
    (B) Representative Employee Standard
    (C) Ideal Employee Standard
    (D) Numerical Standard
    (E) Forced Choice Standard
    forced choice standard
  222. In the use of performance rating standards, lenient supervisors who rate all their subordinates alike are

    (A) usually well respected
    (B) committing the numerical rating error
    (C) overtly part of the halo effect
    (D) covertly disrespected
    (E) violating the forced choice rule
    covertly disrespected
  223. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that is, by far, the most
    common of all errors in the rating of personnel is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    leniency
  224. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that results in a skewed curve, with an excessive number of personnel rated in the upper range is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    leniency
  225. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that results in a higher rating because the employee subscribes to the same opinions as the supervisor is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits(
    F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    personal bias
  226. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that usually results because of a policy requiring justification for extreme ratings is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    central tendency
  227. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that occurs when the rater groups all the ratings for an individual at the high or low end of the scaleis

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    halo effect
  228. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that is sometimes referred to as logical error or association error is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    related traits
  229. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that is committed when the rater gives similar ratings to traits that seem to be similar is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    related traits
  230. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that occurs when one or more outstanding occurrences near the end of the rating period are out of proportion to the average performance during the entire period is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    overweighting or recency
  231. Of the common performance rating errors, the one that occurs when the rater is unduly influenced by one or two characteristics that have special appealto him is

    (A) Leniency
    (B) Personal Bias
    (C) Central Tendency
    (D) Halo Effect
    (E) Related Traits
    (F) Overweighting or Recency
    (G) Subjectivity
    subjectivity
  232. Of the common performance rating methods, the one that results when the superior officer averages the ratings of several individual appraisals is known as

    (A) Composite Ratings
    (B) Group Ratings
    (C) Individual Trait Ratings
    composite ratings
  233. In performance ratings, some research has shown that use of multiple raters is

    (A) too complicated and time consuming to be effective
    (B) a safeguard that prevents rater bias
    (C) almost always more effective in employee development
    a safeguard that prevents rater bias
  234. In performance ratings, the person rated

    (A) cannot be forced to sign the rating report
    (B) can be forced to sign the rating report
    (C) can be forced to sign the rating report only when the scores are below average
    cannot be forced to sign the rating report
  235. In performance ratings, the written notice procedure to inform the employee of his overall rating

    (A) is effective as a method of commendation
    (B) does not afford a suitable medium for full discussion and goal setting
    (C) has serious limitations if utilized to replace the face-to-faceinterview with the employee whose work needs improvement
    (D) all of the above
    all of the above
  236. Within tactical deployment of field forces, one general framework for handling unusual occurrences of any kind is the

    (A) Intelligence, Response and Debriefing (IRD) model
    (B) Now, Scene, Future  (NSF) model
    (C) Arrive, Survey, Advise (ADA) model
    (D) Plan, Confront, Solve (PCS) model
    Now, Scene, Future  (NSF) model
  237. The command and control system for unusual occurrences that requirecoordinated multiagency or multijurisdictional response is known as the

    (A) Command, Control and Debriefing (CCD) model
    (B) Now, Scene, Future  (NSF) model
    (C) Incident Solution System (ISS)
    (D) Incident Command System (ICS)
    Incident Command System (ICS)
  238. The consistent nationwide approach for federal, state, local and tribal governments to work effectively and efficiently together to plan and respond to a crisis is known as the

    (A) National Command, Control and Debriefing (NCCD) model
    (B) National Incident Command System (NICS)(C) National Incident Solution System (NISS)
    (D) National Incident Management System (NIMS)
    National Incident Management System (NIMS)
  239. When the supervisor assumes responsibility for directing police action tocontrol an unusual occurrence, one of his first acts should be to

    (A) appoint aides to assist him
    (B) activate the National Incident Command System (NICS)
    (C) set up a command post
    (D) complete a detailed sketch of the area to be transmitted to headquarters
    appoint aides to assist him
  240. In a hostage incident, refusal to allow the suspect to take the hostage fromthe scene probably would

    (A) result in the release of the hostage
    (B) result in the death of the hostage
    (C) result in the hostage taker making an even more dangerous demand
    (D) not increase the danger to the hostage
    not increase the danger to the hostage
  241. In a hostage incident, the negotiator should proceed on the premise that every issue is negotiable except

    (A) furnishing the hostage taker with an on-camera media interview
    (B) furnishing the hostage taker with a means to escape (auto, helicopter,etc)
    (C) exchanging a civilian hostage with a police officer hostage
    (D) furnishing offensive weapons or instruments
    furnishing offensive weapons or instruments
  242. In the IACP policy of "Rapid Deployment to High Risk Incidents" the first officers to arrive on the scene of a school shooting should

    (A) set up a perimeter around the area
    (B) attempt to communicate with school personnel in person or by phone
    (C) attempt to determine the location of the shooters so that special teamscan later enter the area
    (D) enter the structure and attempt to neutralize or contain the activeshooter until a special weapons team can arrive
    enter the structure and attempt to neutralize or contain the activeshooter until a special weapons team can arrive
  243. If persons in civil disorders or unlawful assemblies have been arrested, who should photograph and fingerprint the arrestees?

    (A) the arresting officer(s)
    (B) processing personnel assigned to the command post
    (C) they should be handled as routine prisoners and processed at the local jail
    (D) the officers best able to testify against them
    the officers best able to testify against them
  244. Analysis of many civil disorders has shown that what actions determined ifthe disorder remained a relatively minor one or developed into one of major proportions?

    (A) the availability of good field intelligence
    (B) the accuracy of the evaluation of the initial incident
    (C) the effectiveness of the operational plan selected to deal with it
    (D) the speed with which personnel responded and the decisiveness of their actions
    (E) all of the above
    all of the above
  245. Analysis of many civil disorders has shown that police action in making arrests is usually most productive when

    (A) there is a lack of good field intelligence
    (B) there has been no time for evaluation of the incident
    (C) it is planned for as part of the operational plan selected to deal with it
    (D) it is directed toward the leaders of the group
    it is directed towards the leaders of the group
  246. Analysis of many civil disorders has shown that the supervisor should withdraw his forces when

    (A) the odds are overwhelmingly against the police
    (B) the danger of encirclement or flank attack by the mob makes his position untenable
    (C) police officers have sustained injuries
    (D) members of the mob are armed with dangerous weapons
    (E) all of the above
    (F) A and B only
    A & B only

    (A) the odds are overwhelmingly against the police

    and 

    (B) the danger of encirclement or flank attack by the mob makes his position untenable
  247. One of the supervisor's first acts at the scene of a labor dispute should be to

    (A) arrange a meeting with the picket captain to discuss ground rules
    (B) arrange a meeting with a representative of management to discuss ground rules
    (C) arrest any law violators
    (D) clear a path so that non-striking managers and employees have access to facilities
    (E) all of the above should happen at the same time
    (F) Both A and B should happen as a combined meeting
    Both A & B should happen as a combined meeting

    (A) arrange a meeting with the picket captain to discuss ground rules

    and 

    (B) arrange a meeting with a representative of management to discuss ground rules
  248. The presence at a scene of unexplained sick, dead or dying people or animals could be a sign of a

    (A) chemical attack
    (B) biological attack
    (C) radiological attack
    (D) all of the above
    all of the above
  249. The presence at a scene of unusual swarms of biting insects could be a sign of a

    (A) chemical attack
    (B) biological attack
    (C) radiological attack
    biological attack
  250. The report of an explosion with little or no structural damage could be a sign of a

    (A) chemical attack
    (B) biological attack
    (C) radiological attack
    chemical attack
  251. The report of unusual metal debris and heat-emitting material could be a sign of a

    (A) chemical attack
    (B) biological attack
    (C) radiological attack
    radiological attack
  252. If a bomb threat is made against a business establishment, that a hidden bomb is to be exploded, the person responsible for making the decision whether occupants should be evacuated is the

    (A) first responding officer
    (B) responding police supervisor
    (C) ranking member of the bomb squad
    (D) person in charge of the premises
    person in charge of the premises
  253. If a bomb threat is made against a business establishment, and there exists a reasonable likelihood that a bomb or other device will be detonated in astructure, the supervisor should direct that

    (A) the bomb squad be dispatched to take control of the scene
    (B) a search be made for the device
    (C) the fire department take over control of the incident
    (D) the person in charge of the premises evacuate and lock the building
    a search be made for the device
  254. Who generally has overall command at the scene of a major fire?

    (A) the first officer on the scene
    (B) the first firefighter on the scene
    (C) the police supervisor on the scene
    (D) the fire commander on the scene
    the fire commander on the scene
  255. In the case of a child reported missing from their home, when the parents say they have already performed a thorough search, the first place that must be searched thoroughly by the police is the

    (A) inside and outside of the home and grounds
    (B) home of nearby friends
    (C) area of local hazards such as lakes, ponds and canals
    (D) nearby stores, playgrounds and commercial areas
    inside and outside of the home and grounds
  256. In searching for wanted persons once an outside area has been tightly sealed off, which two strategies are available to guide the search?

    (A) aerial search or ground search
    (B) K9 search or officer search
    (C) zig-zag search or parallel search
    (D) inward search or outward search
    inward search or outward search
  257. In searching for wanted persons in a building after the building has been tightly sealed off, which two teams of officers should the supervisor designate?

    (A) front and rear entry teams
    (B) initial entry and follow-up entry teams
    (C) an entry team and a search team
    (D) a search team and a cover team
    a search team and a cover team
  258. True or False: You should not consider your emails as department records.

    (A) True
    (B) False
    false
  259. Some of the police officer suicide warning signs include

    (A) increase in use of alcoholic beverages
    (B) overly aggressive or violent behavior
    (C) stress shown after working long hours
    (D) new marital troubles at home
    (E) all of the above(F) A and B only
    A & B only

    (A) increase in use of alcoholic beverages

    and

    (B) overly aggressive or violent behavior
  260. If an officer were to state "I can't take it anymore" that would be_____________ verbal clue of an officer considering suicide.

    (A) a direct
    (B) an indirect
    (C) a formal
    (D) an informal
    an indirect
  261. If an officer were to state "I wish I were dead" that would be _____________verbal clue of an officer considering suicide.

    (A) a direct
    (B) an indirect
    (C) a formal
    (D) an informal
    a direct

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