ISTQB sample questions Chapter 1

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dillonmcdowell
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250178
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ISTQB sample questions Chapter 1
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2013-12-03 14:18:22
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ISTQB software testing
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Some more questions pertaining to chapter 1
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  1. Test granularity refers to:
    A. Any way of determining the expected result for a test case.
    B. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus.
    C. The impact of a bug on the system under test.
    D. A quality improvement idea common in software development.
    B. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The prime benefit of testing is that it results in improved defects 
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  3. A bug report is a:
    A. A collection of independent, reusable test cases.
    B. A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug.
    C. A deliverable that details the strategic approach to a testing effort
    D. A & B
    B.  A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. A software error can be described as:
    A. A mismatch between the program and its specification.
    B. The process in which developers determine the root cause of a bug and identify possible fixes. 
    C. A description of the relationship between two or more variables or set members in which the value of one does not influence the values of others.
    D. Any ill-advised, substandard, or temporary fix applied to an urgent problem in the (often misguided) belief that doing so will keep a project moving forward. 
    A. A mismatch between the program and its specification.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that complete testing is impossible: 
    A. The domain of possible inputs is too large to test .
    B. Limited financial resources. 
    C. There are too many possible paths through the program to test.
    D. The user interface issues (and thus the design issues) are too complex to completely test.
    B. Limited financial resources.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Testing looks for situations in which a product fails to meet the developer’s expectations in specific areas.
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  7. Select a reason that does not support the idea of using separate test plans for test subprojects that are distinct in one or more ways: 
    A. Different methodologies 
    B. Different time periods 
    C. Different audiences
    D. Different objectives 
    E. Different resources 
    E. Different resources
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The testing effort begins with 
    A. A & B
    B. Test execution
    C. B & C
    D. Test planning
    E. Test case design
    A. A & B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Testing during the design stage involves:
    A. Examining the design documents
    B. Reading drafts of the planning documents
    C. Acceptance or qualification testing
    d. None of the above
    A. Examining the design documents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A well-designed test system promotes:
    A. Accountability
    B. Actions
    C. Principles
    D. Resources
    A. Accountability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. When testing operating systems or applications, the first step of testing a new build should consist of : 
    A. Updating requirements
    B. Notifying test lead
    C. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures
    D. A & B
    C. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The general rule of test execution is that you must always create a test procedure that will force the program to use the data you’ve entered and to prove that it is using your data correctly.
    a. True
    b. False
    a. True
  13. Which is not a goal of writing effective Problem/Bug reports? 
    A. Illustrate how to fix the problem
    B. Analyze the error so you can describe it in a minimum number of steps
    C. Write a report that is complete, easy to understand, and non-antagonistic
    D. Explain how to reproduce the problem
    A. Illustrate how to fix the problem
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Which of the following displays an exit criterion for the test team? 
    A. The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test.
    B. The Development teams have unit-tested all features and bug fixes scheduled for release.
    C. All software released to the test team is accompanied by release notes
    D. Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure times.
    A. The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the application under test.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. The daily closure period refers to: 
    A. The average number of days between the opening of a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day.
    B. The amount of bugs opened over a 24 hour period
    C. The average for all closed bugs, including the current day and all previous days
    d. None of the Above
    A. The average number of days between the opening of a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same day.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Integrity testing involves: 
    A. The testing of pseudo code 
    B. Alpha testing 
    C. Performance testing 
    D. The final phase of testing prior to deployment
    D. The final phase of testing prior to deployment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Testing literature reflects and promotes a strongly held belief that product reliability will not be better if testing is done by a fully independent test agency. 
    a. True
    b. False
    b. False
  18. Select the item(s) that are general testing principles: 
    a. Testing shows a presence of defects 
    b. Exhaustive testing is impossible 
    c. Automation tools can be a great strategy 
    d. Absence-of-errors fallacy
    • a. Testing shows a presence of defects 
    • b. Exhaustive testing is impossible 
    • d. Absence-of-errors fallacy
  19. Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution: 
    A. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly
    B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware. 
    C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. 
    D. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts. 
    C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Select the item(s) that compose test objectives: 
    a. Finding defects
    b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information 
    c. Preventing defects 
    d. Utilization of testware
    • a. Finding defects
    • b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information 
    • c. Preventing defects
  21. A bug or defect is:
    A. the result of an error or mistake;
    B. the result of a failure, which may lead to an error
    C. a mistake made by a person
    D. a run-time problem experienced by a user
    A. the result of an error or mistake;
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The effect of testing is to:
    A. enable those responsible for software failures to be identified;
    B. show there are no problems remaining?
    C.give an indication of the software quality;
    D. increase software quality;
    C. give an indication of the software quality;
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What is retesting?
    A. A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced.
    B. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.
    C. Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem.
    D. Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met.
    B. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Debugging is:
    A. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.
    B. Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly.
    C. Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix.
    D. Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected.
    A. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.

    (a. is a brief definition of testing. b. is restesting, and d. is regression testiong.)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it?
    i. Try to understand how the other person feels.
    ii. Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals.
    iii. Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa.
    iv. Emphasise the common goal of better quality.
    v. Each discussion is a battle to be won.
    A. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder.
    B. (iii), (iv) and (v) aid, (i) and (ii) hinder.
    C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) aid, (i) and (v) hinder.
    D. (i), (ii) and (iii) aid, (iv) and (v) hinder.
    A. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process?
    A. Developing the tests.
    B. Analysing lessons learnt for future releases.
    C. Writing a test summary.
    D. Comparing actual and expected results.
    D. Comparing actual and expected results.

    (a. is part of Analysis and design, c. is part of 'evaluating exit criteria and reporting', and d. is part of 'Test closure activities')
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order?
    A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.
    B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design.
    C. Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design.
    D. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
    D. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. Which pair of definitions is correct?
    A. Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; retesting runs new tests.
    B. Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software; retesting enables developers to isolate the problem.
    C. Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; retesting is testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software.
    D. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed.
    D. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which statement is most true?
    A. All software is tested in the same way.
    B. A technique that has found no defects is not useful.
    C. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.
    D. A technique that finds defects will always find defects.
    C. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. When is testing complete?
    A. When every data combination has been exercised successfully.
    B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release.
    C. When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding.
    D. When time and budget are exhausted.
    B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. 

    (Sometimes time and money does signify the end of testing, but it is really complete when everything that was set out in advance has been achieved)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first?
    A. Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team; tests designed by someone from a different company.
    B. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company.
    C. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.
    D. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by the author.
    C. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process.
    i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.
    ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.
    iii. Designing the test environment set-up.
    iv. Developing and prioritising test cases.
    v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.
    Which statement below is TRUE?
    A. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
    B. (i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
    C. (i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
    D. (i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution.
    A. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics?
    A. Public: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the public interest. Profession: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions.
    B. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall participate in lifelong learning regarding the practice of their profession and shall promote an ethical approach to the practice of their profession.
    C. Public: Certified software testers shall act in the best interests of their client and employer (being consistent with the wider public interest). Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest.
    D. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest.
    D. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public interest.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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