Medical Science-multiple choice

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Medical Science-multiple choice
2014-03-18 02:34:18
Medical science

Medical science-multiple choice
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  1. The etiology of aplastic anemia is
    A.acute blood Loss
    B. Bone marrow failure
    C. Chronic blood loss
    D. Inadequate iron intake
    B. Bone marrow failure
  2. The most common etiology of dementia in the United States is 
    A. Autism
    B. Alzheimer's disease
    C. Alcohol abuse
    D. Anxiety Disorder
    B. Alzheimer's Disease
  3. Dr. Zambrano ordered a CEA test for Mr. Logan, a 67-year-old  African-American male patient. Dr. Zambrano may be concerning a diagnosis of 
    A. Cancer
    B. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
    C. Cardiomyopathy
    D. Congestive heart failure
    A. Cancer
  4. The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the formation of
    A. helper B cells
    B. Immunosurveillance.
    C. mast cells
    D. memory cells
    D. Memory cells
  5. Genital warts are caused by
    A. HAV
    B. HIV
    C. HPV
    D. VZV
    C. HPV
  6. A patient's history includes the following documentation:
    * Small ulcers (chancres) appeared on the genitalia and resolved after four to six weeks
    * Elevated temperture, skin, and enlarged lymph nodes

    Which procedure will be used to initially diagnose the patient?
    A. bone marrow test
    B. chest x-ray
    C. serology test
    D. thyroid scan
    C. serology test
  7. Which of the following cells produce histamine in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?
    A. lymphocytes
    B. macrophages
    C. mast cells
    D. neutrophils
    C. mast cells
  8. Which one of the following cells produces antibodies?
    A. A cells
    B. cytotoxic T cells
    C. helper T cells
    D. plasma cells
    D. plasma cells
  9. Which of the following conditions is NOT a predisposing risk associated with essential hypertension?
    A. age
    B. cigarette smoking
    C. low dietary sodium intake
    D. obesity
    C. low dietary sodium intake
  10. A patient, who is HIV positive, has raised lesions, red or purple in color appearing on the skin, in the mouth, or anywhere on the body. What is the stage of his disease process in today's medical terminology?
    A. ARC
    B. AIDS
    C. AZT
    D. HIV positive
    B. AIDS
  11. Each of the following conditions fall under the category of COPD EXCEPT
    A. chronic bronchitis
    B. emphysema
    C. pneumonia.
    D. smoking.
    C. pneumonia
  12. Which of the following is a lethal arrhythmia?
    A. atrial fibrillation.
    B. atrial tachycardia
    C. bradycardia
    D. ventricular fibrillation
    D. ventricular fibrillation 
  13. The drug commonly used to treat bipolar mood swings is
    A. Lanoxin.
    B. Lasix.
    C. Lithium Carbonate.
    D. Lorazepam. 
    C. Lithium Carbonate.
  14. The leading cause of blindness in the United States is a vision-related pathology caused by diabetes. It is called
    A. retinal detachment.
    B. retinoblastoma.
    C. retinopathy.
    D. rhabdomysarcoma.
    C. retinopathy.
  15. Penicillin is effective in the treatment of all the following EXCEPT
    A. influenza.
    B. Lyme disease.
    C. strep throat
    D. syphilis
    A. influenza.
  16. Impetigo can be
    A. spread through autoinoculation
    B. caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
    C. caused by Staphylococcus aureus
    D. either A or B.
    D. either A or B.
  17. Diagnostic testing for meningitis usually involves
    A. blood cultures
    B. cerebrospinal fluid analysis
    C. stool C & S
    D. testing urine
    B. cerebrospinal fluid analysis
  18. Which disease is a malignancy of the lymphatic system?
    A. cystic fibrosis
    B. Hodgkin's disease
    C. neutropenia
    D. Von Willebrand's disease
    B. Hodgkin's Disease
  19. Which of the following is a hereditary disease of the cerebral cortex that includes progressive muscle spasticity and mental impairment leading to dementia?
    A. Huntington chorea
    B. Lou Gehrig's disease
    C. Bell's Palsy
    D. Guillain-Barre' syndrome
  20. Which of the following autoimmune diseases affects tissues of the nervous system?
    A. Goodpasture's syndrome
    B. Hashimoto's disease
    C. myasthenia gravis
    D. rheumatoid arthitis
    C. myasthenia gravis
  21. Pain is a symptom of which of the following conditions?
    A. first-degree burn (superficial)
    B. second-degree burn (partial thickness)
    C. third-degree burn (full thickness)
    D. both A and B
    D. both A and B
  22. A 75-year-old patient has a sore tongue with tingling and numbness of the hands and feet. She has headaches and is fatigued. Following diagnostic workup, the doctor orders monthly injections of vitamin B12. The patient most likely has which of the following conditions?
    A. aplastic anemia
    B. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    C. pernicious anemia
    D. sickle cell anemia
    C. pernicious anemia
  23. Which of the following is NOT a pathophysiological factor in anemia?
    A. excessive RBC breakdown
    B. lack of RBC maturation
    C. loss of bone marrow function
    D. loss of spleen function
    D. loss of spleen function
  24. Many bacterial diseases are transmitted directly from person to person. Which of the diseases listed below is a bacterial disease that is transmitted by way of a tick vector?
    A. Legionnaires' disease
    B. Lyme disease
    C. tetanus
    D. tuberculosis
    B. Lyme disease
  25. Necrosis extending down to the underlying fascia is characteristic of a decubitus ulcer in stage
    A. one
    B. two
    C. three
    D. four
    C. three
  26. Scabies, a highly contagious condition that produces intense pruritus and rash, is caused by
    A. pediculous capitis
    B. itch mites
    C. candidiasis
    D. ringworm
    B. itch mites
  27. A physician prescribes a diuretic for his patient. He could be treating any of the following  disorders EXCEPT
    A. congestive heart failure
    B. mitral stenosis
    C. pneumonia
    D. pulmonary edema
    C. pneumonia
  28. All of the following are examples of direct transmission of a disease EXCEPT
    A. contaminated foods
    B. coughing or sneezing
    C. droplet spread
    D. physical contact.
    A. contaminated foods
  29. ________ is the most common type of skin cancer and _______ is the most deadly type of skin cancer.
    A. Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinoma
    B. Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
    C. Oat cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma
    D. Squamous cell carcinoma, oat cell carcinoma
    B. Basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
  30. John Palmer was in a car accident and sustained severe chest trauma resulting in a tension pneumothorax. Manifestations of this disorder include all of the following EXCEPT
    A. severe chest pain
    B. dyspnea
    C. shock
    D. clubbing
    D. clubbing
  31. Cancer derived from epithelial tissue is classified as a (n)
    A. adenoma
    B. carcinoma
    C. lipoma
    D. sarcoma
    B. carcinoma
  32. Sex-linked genetic diseases
    A. are transmitted during sexual activity
    B. involve a defect on a chromosome
    C. occur equally between males and females
    D. occur only in males
    B. involve a defect on a chromosome
  33. A stapedectomy is a common treatment for
    A. atherosclerosis
    B. multiple sclerosis
    C. otosclerosis
    D. scoliosis
    C. otosclerosis
  34. In systemic circulation, which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood?
    A. right vena cava
    B. renal arteries
    C. pulmonary arteries
    D. left ventricle
    D. left ventricle
  35. Which of the following sequences correctly depicts the flow of blood through the heart to the lungs in order for gas exchange to occur?
    A. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs,pulmonary artery
    B. right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs
    C. right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary artery
    D. right ventricle, right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs
    B. right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs
  36. Diastole occurs when
    A. cardiac insufficiency is present
    B. the atria contracts
    C. the ventricles contract
    D. the ventricles fill.
    D. the ventricles fill.
  37. The most fatal type of lung cancer is
    A. adenocarcinoma
    B. large cell cancer
    C. small cell cancer
    D. squamous cell cancer
    C. small cell cancer.
  38. Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at the
    A. alveoli
    B. bronchi
    C. bronchioles
    D. trachea
    A. alveoli.
  39. Ois carried in the blood
    A. bound to hemoglobin.
    B. in the form of carbonic acid.
    C. plasma.
    D. serum.
    A. bound to hemoglobin.
  40. Which of the following anatomical parts is involved in both the respiratory and digestive systems?
    A. larynx
    B. nasal cavity 
    C. pharynx
    D. trachea
    C. pharynx.
  41. A disease of the inner ear with fluid disruption in the semicircular canal that causes vertigo is
    A. labyrinthitis
    B. mastoiditis
    C. Meniere's disease
    D. both A and C.
    D. both A and C.
  42. Softening of the bone in children is termed_____.
    A. Raynaud's disease
    B. Reye's syndrome
    C. Rickets
    D. Rubella
    C. Rickets
  43. A pathological diagnosis of transitional cell carcinoma is made. The examined tissue was removed from the
    A. bladder
    B. esophagus
    C. oral cavity
    D. pleura 
    A. bladder
  44. Most carbon dioxide is carried in the
    A. blood as COgas.
    B. blood bound to hemoglobin
    C. blood plasma in the form of carbonic acid
    D. red blood cells
    D. red blood cells.
  45. The key diagnostic finding for typical pneumonia is
    A. abnormal chemical electrolytes
    B. elevated WBC.
    C. lung consolidation on CXR
    D. positive sputum culture.
    C. lung consolidation on CXR.
  46. The presence of fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is characteristic of 
    A. COPD
    B. Crohn's disease
    C. pneumonia
    D. tuberculosis
    C. pneumonia.
  47. Full-blown AIDS sets in as
    A. CD4 receptors increase.
    B. helper T-cell concentration decreases
    C. HIV virus concentration decreases
    D. immunity to HIV increases.
    B. helper T-cell concentration decreases.
  48. Which of the following BEST describes tuberculosis?
    A. a chronic, systemic disease whose initial infection is in the lungs
    B. an acute bacterial infection of the lung
    C. an ordinary lung infection
    D. a viral infection of the lungs
    A. a chronic, systemic disease whose initial infection is in the lungs.
  49. A treatment for sensorineural hearing loss is
    A. cochlear implants
    B. myringotomy
    C. removal of impacted cerumen.
    D. stapedectomy. 
    A. cochlear implants.
  50. Mary Mulholland has diabetes. Her physician has told her about some factors that put her more at risk for infections. Which of the following factors would probably NOT be applicable?
    A. hypoxia
    B. increased glucose in body fluids
    C. increased blood supply
    D. both A and C
    C. increased blood supply
  51. Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the 
    A. ascending colon.
    B. esophagus
    C. small intestine
    D. stomach
    C. small intestine.
  52. The Phalen's wrist flexor test is a noninvasive method for diagnosing
    A. carpal tunnel syndrome
    B. Down's syndrome
    C. severe acute respiratory syndrome
    D. Tourette's syndrome
    A. carpal tunnel syndrome
  53. A chronic inflammatory bowel disease where affected segments of the bowel may be separated by normal bowel tissue is characteristic of
    A. appendicitis
    B. Crohn's disease
    C. diverticulitis
    D. Graves' disease
    B. Crohn's disease
  54. The patient's pathology report revealed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. This is indicative of 
    A. Hodgkin's disease
    B. leukemia
    C. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
    D. sarcoma
    A. Hodgkin's disease
  55. The most common rickettsial disease in the United States is
    A. hantavirus
    B. Lyme disease
    C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
    D. syphilis
    C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  56. Early detection programs apply screening guidelines to detect cancers at an early stage, which provides the likelihood of increased survival and decreased morbidity. Which of the following would NOT be a diagnostic or screening test for colorectal cancer?
    A. double contrast barium enema
    B. sigmoidoscopy
    C. fecal occult blood test
    D. upper GI x-ray
    D. upper GI x-ray
  57. Prevention programs identify risk factors and use strategies to modify attitudes and behaviors to reduce the chance of developing cancers. Which of the following would NOT be an identified risk factor for colorectal cancer?
    A. alcohol use
    B. physical inactivity
    C. high-fiber diet
    D. obesity 
    C. high-fiber diet
  58. In general, excessive RBC breakdown could result in
    A. Crohn's disease
    B. elevated BUN
    C. high bilirubin levels
    D. peptic ulcers
    C. high bilirubin levels. 
  59. The most common bloodborne infection in the United States is
    A. Helicobacter pylori
    B. hepatitis A
    C. hepatitis C
    D. hemophilia
    C. hepatitis C.
  60. The first stage of alcohol liver disease is
    A. alcohol hepatitis
    B. cirrhosis
    C. fatty liver
    D. jaundice
    C. fatty liver
  61. Portal hypertension can contribute to all of the following EXCEPT
    A. ascites.
    B. dilation of blood vessels lining the intestinal tract.
    C. esophageal varices.
    D. kidney failure. 
    D. kidney failure. 
  62. Which of the following is a liver function test?
    A. AST (SGOT)
    B. BUN
    C. ECG
    D. TSH
    A. AST (SGOT)
  63. Which of the following is a risk factor involved in the etiology of gallstones?
    A. being overweight
    B. being an adolescent
    C. low-fat diets
    D. presence of peptic ulcers
    A. being overweight
  64. A serum potassium level of 2.8 would indicate
    A. Addison disease
    B. anemia
    C. diabetic ketoacidosis
    D. hypokalemia
    C. diabetic ketoacidosis 
  65. A procedure performed with an instrument that freezes and destroys abnormal tissues (including seborrheic keratoses, basal cell carcinomas, and squamous cell carcinomas).
    A. cryosurgery
    B. electrodesiccation
    C. phacoemulsification
    D. photocautery
    A. cryosurgery
  66. Which of the organs listed below has endocrine and exocrine functions?
    A. kidney
    B. liver
    C. lung
    D. pancreas
    D. pancreas
  67. Which of the following is an effect of insulin?
    A. decreases glycogen concentration in liver
    B. increases blood glucose
    C. increases the breakdown of fats
    D. increases glucose metabolism
    D. increases glucose metabolism
  68. The causative organism for severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a 
    A. bacterium
    B. coronavirus
    C. fungus
    D. retrovirus
    B. coronavirus 
  69. Before leaving the hospital, all newborns are screened for an autosomal recessive genetic disorder of defective enzymatic conversion in protein metabolism. With early detection and a protein-restricted diet, brain damage is prevented. This disease is
    A. cystic fibrosis
    B. hereditary hemochromatosis
    C. phenylketonuria
    D. Tay--Sachs disease
    C. phenylketonuria 
  70. Diabetic microvascular disease occurs
    A. as a direct result of elevated serum glucose.
    B. as a results of elevated fat in blood.
    C. due to damage to nerve cells.
    D. only in patients with type 1 diabetes.
    A.  as a direct result of elevated serum glucose. 
  71. Older age, obesity, and family history of diabetes are all characteristics of
    A. type 1 diabetes.
    B. type 2 diabetes.
    C. juvenile diabetes.
    D. IDDM.
    B. type 2 diabetes.
  72. An elevated serum amylase would be characteristic of
    A. acute pancreatitis
    B. gallbladder disease
    C. postrenal failure
    D. prerenal failure
    A. acute pancreatitis 
  73. Clinical manifestations of this disease include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperglycemia. Which of the following tests would be ordered to confirm the disease?
    A. fasting blood sugar
    B. glucagon
    C. glucose tolerance test
    D. postprandial blood sugar
    C. glucose tolerance test 
  74. Common kidney stone treatments that allow small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system include all of the following EXCEPT
    A. extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
    B. fluid hydration
    C. ureteroscopy and stone basketing
    D. using medication to dissolve the stone (s)
    C. ureteroscopy and stone basketing. 
  75. When a decubitus ulcer has progressed to a stage in which osteomyelitis is present, the ulcer has extended to the 
    A. bone.
    B. fascia.
    C. muscle.
    D. subcutaneous tissue.
    A. bone.
  76. The 68-year-old female patient has no visible bleeding, but remains anemic. Her physician is concerned about possible gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following tests might be ordered?
    A. DEXA scan
    B. guaiac smear test
    C. Pap smear test
    D. prostatic-specific antigen test
    • B. guaiac smear test
  77. When a physician orders a liver panel, which of the following tests are NOT included?
    A. albumin
    B. alkaline phosphatase
    C. bilirubin
    D. creatinine
    D. creatinine
  78. Maria Giovanni is in the hospital recovering from colon resection surgery. Based on her symptoms, her doctors are concerned about the possibility that she has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following procedures will provide the definitive diagnosis?
    A. chest x-ray
    B. lung scan
    C. pulmonary angiography
    D. none of the above  
    C. pulmonary angiography 
  79. A condition that involves the fifth cranial nerve, also known as "tic douloureux", causes intense pain in the eye and forehead; lower lip, the section of the cheek closest to the ear and the outer segment of the tongue; or the upper lip, nose, and cheek.
    A. Bell's palsy
    B. thrush
    C. trigeminal neuralgia
    D. Tourette's disorder
    C. trigeminal neuralgia
  80. Which of the following is a congenital condition that is the most severe neural tube defect?
    A. meningocele
    B. myelmeningocele
    C. severe combined immunodeficiency
    D. spina bifida occulta
    B. myelomeningocele 
  81. Which of the following tubes conveys sperm from the seminal vesicle to the urethra?
    A. ejaculatory duct
    B. epididymis
    C. oviduct
    D. vas deferens
    A. ejaculatory duct
  82. The most common type of vaginitis is
    A. yeast.
    B. protozoan.
    C. viral.
    D. both A and B.
    D. both A and B.
  83. The childhood viral disease that unvaccinated pregnant women should be prevented from because it may be passed to the fetus, causing congenital anomalies such as mental retardation, blindness, and deafness, is
    A. rickets.
    B. rubeola.
    C. rubella.
    D. tetanus.
    C. rubella
  84. In ______ anemia, the red blood cells become shaped like elongated crescents in the presence of low oxygen concentration.
    A. aplastic
    B. folic acid
    C. sickle cell
    D. vitamin B12
    C. sickle cell
  85. __________ is usually the first symptom of benign prostate hyperplasia.
    A. Abdominal pain
    B. Burning pain during urination
    C. Difficulty in urinating
    D. Pelvic pain
    C. Difficulty in urinating.
  86. The hypothalamus, thalamus, and pituitary gland are all parts of the
    A. brainstem.
    B. cerebellum.
    C. exocrine system.
    D. limbic system. 
    D. limbic system.
  87. Which of the following BEST summarizes the current treatment of cervical cancer?
    A. A new three-shot vaccination series protects against the types of HPV that cause most cervical cancer cases.
    B. All stages have extremely high cure rates.
    C. Early detection and treatment of cervical cancer does not improve patient survival rates.
    D. Over 99% of cases are linked to long-term HPV infections.
    A. A new three-shot vaccination series protects against the types of HPV that cause most cervical cancer cases. 
  88. Children at higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) include those
    A. with sleep apnea.
    B. with respiratory problems.
    C. who are premature infants.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  89. Increasing peristalis of intestines, increasing salvation,and slowing heart rate are examples of 
    A. automatic nervous system responses.
    B. higher brain function. 
    C. parasympathetic nervous system response.
    D. sympathetic nervous system responses.
    C. parasympathetic nervous system responses.
  90. Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is characteristic of
    A. malnutrition.
    B. higher brain function.
    C. migraines.
    D. myasthenia gravis.
    C. migraines
  91. Which of the following is characteristic of Graves' disease?
    A. is an autoimmune disease
    B. most commonly affects males.
    C. usually cannot be treated
    D. usually affects the elderly.
    A. is an autoimmune disease.
  92. A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand is a characteristic syndrome of 
    A. epilepsy.
    B. Guillain-Barre' syndrome
    C. myasthenia gravis.
    D. Parkinson disease.
    D. Parkinson disease
  93. Rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the
    A. intervertebral disks
    B. hips and shoulders
    C. knees and small joints of the hands and feet
    D. large, weight-bearing joints.
    C. knees and small joints of the hands and feet.
  94. Henry experienced sudden sharp chest pain that he described as heavy and crushing. His pain and past medical history caused Dr. James to suspect that Henry was having an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which of the following tests is a more specific marker for an AMI?
    A. AST
    B. CK-MB
    C. LDH1
    D. Troponin I
    D. Troponin I
  95. A radiological test for bone mineral density (BMD) is a useful diagnostic tool for diagnosing
    A. osteoarthritis
    B. osteomyelitis
    C. osteoporosis
    D. rheumatoid arthritis
    C. osteoporosis
  96. A 72-year-old white male patient is on Coumadin therapy. Which of the following tests is commonly ordered to monitor the patient's Coumadin levels?
    A. bleeding time
    B. blood smear
    C. partial thromboplastin time
    D. prothrombin time
    D. prothrombin time
  97. A toxic goiter has what distinguishing characteristic?
    A. iodine deficiency
    B. parathyroid involvement
    C. presence of muscle spasm
    D. thyroid hyperfunction
    D. thyroid hyperfunction
  98. How can Grave's disease be treated?
    A. antithyroid drugs
    B. radioactive iodine therapy
    C. surgery
    D. all of the above
    D. all of the above
  99. Fractures occur in patients with osteoporosis due to 
    A. falling from loss of balance
    B. fibrous joint adhensions tearing apart small bones.
    C. loss of bone mass.
    D. tendency to fall from lack of joint mobility.
    C. loss of bone mass.
  100. United States health providers are concerned about a possible pandemic of avian flu because
    A. there is no vaccine available.
    B. it is caused by a group of viruses that      mutate very easily.
    C. the causative virus is being spread around the world by migratory birds.
    D. of all of the above.
    D. of all of the above.
  101. A sweat test is done on a patient with the following symptoms frequent respiratory infections, chronic cough, and foul-smelling bloody stools. Which of the following diseases is probably suspected?
    A. cystic breast disease
    B. cystic fibrosis
    C. cystic lung disease
    D. cystic pancreas
    B. cystic fibrosis
  102. Margaret Vargas needs to have her mitral valve replaced. Her surgeon will discuss which of the following issues with her before the surgery?
    A. A mechanical valve will require that she take a "blood thinner" for the rest of her life.
    B. Abiological valve (usually porcine) will last 10 to 15 years.
    C. A mechanical valve increases the risk of blood clots that can cause stroke.
    D. All of the above.
    D. All of the above.
  103. Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent
    A. breathing restrictions.
    B. miscarriage.
    C. torsion.
    D. torticollis.
    B. miscarriage.
  104. Sam Spade has been severely injured in a MVA because he was not wearing a seat belt. The organ in his body, situated at the upper left of his abdominal cavity, under the ribs, that is part of his lymphatic system has been ruptured and he is bleeding internally. Sam needs a surgical procedure known as
    A. sequestrectomy.
    B. sialoadenectomy.
    C. sigmoidoscopy.
    D. splenectomy.
    D. splenectomy.
  105. Henrietta Dawson presents with a chief complaint of pain and weakness in her arms and neck. After an H&P and review of diagnostic tests that incllude a myelogram, her doctor diagnoses a herniated nucleus pulposus at the ___ level of her spine.
    A. cervical
    B. lumbar
    C. sacral
    D. thoracic
    A. cervical
  106. Ingrid Anderson presents with a skin infection that began as a raised, itchy bump, resembling an insect bite. within 1 to 2 days, it developed into a vesicle. Now it is a painless ulcer, about 2 cm in diameter, with a black necrotic area in the center. During the history, her doctor learns that she has recently returned from an overseas vacation and becomes concerned that she may have become infected with anthrax. He will prescribe an
    A. antibiotic.
    B. antineoplastic.
    C. antiparasitic.
    D. antiviral.
    A. antibiotic.
  107. Etiologies of dementia include
    A. brain tumors.
    B. ischemia.
    C. trauma.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  108. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of the 
    A. medial nerve.
    B. radial nerve.
    C. tibial nerve.
    D. ulnar nerve.
    A. medial nerve.
  109. The organism transmitted by a mosquito bite that causes malaria is a 
    A. bacteria.
    B. prion.
    C. protozoa.
    D. virus.
    C. protozoa.
  110. Contributing factors of mental disorders include
    A. heredity.
    B. stress.
    C. trauma.
    D. all of the above.
    D. all of the above.
  111. A 13-year-old patient is brought to her pediatrician with a 2  week history of fatigue, an occasional low-grade fever, and malaise. The pediatrician indicates it is a possible infection but needs to know what type of infection. She orders a hematology laboratory test to determine the relative number and percentage of each type of leukocytes. This test is referred to as a(N)
    A. hematocrit.
    B. CBC.
    C. WBC diff.
    D. hemoglobin determination.
    C. WBC diff.
  112. A 62-year-old female presents to her family doctor complaining of fatigue; constantly feeling cold, especially in her hands and feet; weakness; and pallor. Omust be transported to the cells and exchanged with CO2,which is then transported back to the lungs to be expelled. A hematology laboratory test that evaluates the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is referred to as a a(N)
    A. hematocrit
    B. CBC.
    C. WBC diff.
    D. hemoglobin determination.
    D. hemoglobin determination.
  113. An African-American couple are undergoing genetic counseling to determine the likelihood of producing children with a recessively genetic blood condition. The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs, and deforms their shape when Ois low. This condition causes painful cries and multiple infarcts and is termed
    A. hemophilia.
    B. thalassemia.
    C. sickle cell anemia.
    D. iron-deficiency anemia.
    C. Sickle cell anemia.
  114. A 37-year-old female goes to her family physician complaining of dysuria, urgency, fever, and malaise. A UA is performed and upon gross examination is found to be turbid and has an unusual odor. Microscopic examination reveals a rod-shaped microorganism. A 24-hour culture produces a colony count greater than 100,000/mL of Escherichia coli. This would indicate a diagnosis of
    A. UTI.
    B. FUO.
    C. PID.
    D. KUB.
    A. UTI.
  115. A 57-year-old male patient is having his annual physical. Due to a family history of coronary artery disease and his sedentary lifestyle, his doctor orders a total blood cholesterol panel. What is the optimal level of total cholesterol in the blood for adults?
    A. <200 mg/dL
    B. 200-239 mg/dL
    C. 300-339 mg/dL
    D. >500 mg/dL
    A. <200 mg/dL
  116. A pharyngeal culture is taken from a 13-year-old male patient presenting to the ER with fever, painful cervical lymph nodes, purulent tonsillar exudate, and difficulty swallowing. Blood agar culture plate shows complete hemolysis around Streptococcus pyogenes bacterial colonies. The patient is given a prescription for erthromycin. The diagnosis in this case is 
    A. group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection.
    B. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus skin infection.
    C. tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum.
    D. meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.
    A. group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection. 
  117. An 81-year-old male with arteriosclerosis and a long-standing history of taking Coumadin presents to his physician's office for his bi-weekly prothrombin time (PT) test. The PT test is one of the most common hemostasis tests used as a presurgery screening and monitoring Coumadin (warfarin) therapy. This test evaluates
    A. oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs.
    B. coagulation of the blood.
    C. type and cross-match of blood.
    D. iron-binding capacity of RBCs.
    B. coagulation of the blood.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. A 28-year-old female presents to her general practitioner with morning nausea and vomiting, weight gain, and two missed menstrual cycles. The physician orders a pregnancy test. What chemical in the urine does this lab test detect?
    A. alpha-fetoprotein
    B. creatine phophpkinase
    C. carcinoembryonic antigen
    D. human chorionic gonadotropin.
    D. human chorionic gonadotropin.
  119. A 19-year-old college student, who lives on campus in a dormitory, is brought to the ER by his roommates complaining of a severe headache, nuchal rigidity, fever, and photophobia. The ER physician performs an LP and orders a CSF analysis with a bacterial culture and sensitivity. The young man is admitted to the ICU with a provisional diagnosis of
    A. group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal throat infection.
    B. methicillin-resistant Staphyloccus aureus skin infection.
    C. tuberculosis with drug-resistant Mycobacterium tuberculosis-positive sputum.
    D. meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid.
    D. meningitis due to Neisseria meningitidis-positive cerebrospinal fluid. 
  120. Microbiological lab culture and sensitivity tests were performed on the skin scrapings of a groin lesion on a 27-year-old male patient who presented to a local health department clinic. The results confirm infection with Treponema pallidum. He was given a prescription and told to return for a return for a follow-up visit in within 2 weeks. His diagnosis is
    A. syphilis.
    B. HIV.
    C. herpes.
    D. HPV.
    A. syphilis.
  121. The HPV vaccine, Gardasil, is recommended for all children/young adults between the ages of 9 and 26 years. It is a quadrivalent vaccine. What is the definition of quadrivalent? 
    A. It must administered every 4 years.
    B. It is administered in a series of four shots over a 6-month period.
    C. It prevents infection from the four most prevalent types of HPV that cause cervical cancer.
    D. It  reduces the risk of infection by four times.
    C. It prevents infection from the four most prevalent types of HPV that causes cervical cancer.
  122. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism that causes tuberculosis (TB), typically a respiratory disorder. It is currently experiencing a resurgence in the United States and many other countries. What is the average time frame all patients with new, previously untreated TB must have daily antibiotic therapy?
    A. 4-7 days
    B. 6-9 months
    C. 6-9 weeks
    D. 4-7 years
    B. 6-9 months
  123. A 63-year-old patient with terminal pancreatic cancer has started palliative chemotherapy. Palliative means
    A. alleviating or eliminating distressing symptoms of the disease.
    B. increasing the immune response to fight infections.
    C. quick destruction of cancerous cells.
    D. the combining of several medications to cure the cancer.
    A. alleviating or eliminating distressing symptoms of the disease.
  124. Why are there "black box warnings" on antidepressant medications regarding children and adolescents?
    A. Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in some children and adolescents.
    B. Dosage requirements must be significantly higher in children and adolescents compared to adults.
    C. There is no established medical need for treatment of depression children and adolescents.
    D. Antidepressants interfere with physiological growth patterns in children and adolescents.
    A. Antidepressants increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in some children and adolescents.
  125. The positive belief in a drug and its ability to cure a patient;s illness, even if this drug is an inactive or inert substance, typically positively influences a patient's perception of their outcome. This effect is termed
    A. synergistic effects.
    B. potentiation effects.
    C. placebo effect.
    D. antagonistic effects.
    C. placebo effect.
  126. A common cardiac glycoside medication that increases the force of the cardiac contractions without increasing the oxygen consumption, thereby increasing the cardiac output is typically given to patients with heart failure. However, a very narrow therapeutic window between effectiveness and toxicity and the patient must be monitored closely. This common medication is
    A. COX-2 inhibitor.
    B. nitroglycerin.
    C. digoxin.
    D. acetylsalicylic acid.
    C. digoxin.
  127. The interaction of the two drugs working together where each simultaneously helps the other achieve an effect that neither could produce alone is termed
    A. placebo effect.
    B. synergistic effect.
    C. potentiation effect.
    D. antagonistic effect.
    B. synergistic effect.
  128. The opposing interaction of two drugs in which one decreases or cancels out the effects of the other is 
    A. placebo effect.
    B. potentiation effect.
    C. synergistic effect.
    D. antagonistic effect.
    D. antagonistic effect.
  129. One of the most common causes of peptic ulcer disease is the consumption of aspirin and NSAIDS. Another common cause is the infection of Helicobacter pyloric, and the usual treatment for this condition is with the use of
    A. antivirals.
    B. antibiotics.
    C. antifungals.
    D. antiemetics.
    B. antibiotics. 
  130. A common contraceptive that is implanted in the uterus induces slight endometrial inflammation, which attracts neutrophils to the uterus. These neutrophils are toxic to sperm and prevent the fertilization of the ovum. This contraception is termed
    A. oral contraceptives.
    B. progestin injections.
    C. spermicides.
    D. IUD.
    D. IUD.
  131. There has been a significant increase in the number of cases and deaths from pertussis. Health care professionals attribute this disease trend to which of the following?
    A. A decrease in the number of people immunized with TDaP
    B. An increase in the virulence of the bacteria.
    C. Drug-resistant strains of the bacteria.
    D. All of the above.
    A. A decrease in the number of people immunized with TDaP
  132. Which of the following is a severe, chronic, two-phased, bacterial respiratory infection that has become increasingly difficult to treat because many antibiotics are no longer effective against it?
    A. SARS
    B. MDR-TB
    C. MRSA
    D. H1N1
    B. MDR-TB
  133. A new strain of influenza, H1N1, is a highly virulent strain that spread all over the world. This type of epidemiological disease pattern is referred to as a(n)
    A. cluster.
    B. outbreak
    C. epidemic.
    D. pandemic.
    D. pandemic.
  134. Mary Smith, a 48 year-old patient, is receiving an IV mixture of four different medications to treat stage 2 invasive ductal breast carcinoma. Each of the medications acts upon a different aspect of the cancer cells. This mixture is typically termed a(n)
    A. amalgamation.
    B. cocktail.
    C. blend.
    D. mash-up.
    B. cocktail.
  135. Some immunizations, such as tetanus, required a second application, to strengthen or "remind" the immune system in response to antigens. The subsequent injections are termed
    A. alerting shots.
    B. warning shots.
    C. booster shots
    D. unnecessary shots.
    C. booster shots.
  136. What common vitamin should be taken by pregnant women to substantially reduce the occurrence of neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, in a developing fetus?
    A. Folic acid.
    B. Calcium
    B. Calcium
  137. Why must influenza immunizations be developed and administered on an annual basis?
    A. The virus mutates significantly each year.
    B. People develop resistance to the vaccine.
    C. The immunization is only strong enough for one year.
    D. The pharmaceutical companies produce the lowest dosage possible.
    A. The virus mutates significantly each year.