micro health

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Author:
Rmay27
ID:
251002
Filename:
micro health
Updated:
2013-12-09 18:14:38
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Micro
Folders:
Micro
Description:
End of chapter question
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  1. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism 
    A. alga 
    B. protozoan 
    C. mushroom
    D. bacterium 
    C. Mushroom
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. which process involves the deliberate alteration of an organism's 
    A. bioremediation
    B. biotechnology
    C. decomposition 
    D. recombinant DNA technology
    D. Recombinant DNA technology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. abiogenesis refers to the 
    A. germ theory of disease.
    B. development of aseptic technique. 
    C. spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter
    D. development of life forms from preexisting life forms. 
    C. Spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. when a hypothesis has been throughly supported by long-term study and data, it s considered
    A. a law
    B. a speculation 
    C. a theory 
    D. proved
    C. theory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which is the correct order of the taxonomic categories, going from most specific to most general

    A.species,genus,family,order,class,phylum,kingdom,domain.
    B. domain, kingdom,phylum,class,order,family,genus,species
    C. division,domain,kingdom,class,family,genus,species
    D. species,family,class,order,phylum,kingdom.
    A. species,genus,family,order,class,phylum,kingdom,domain.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Which of the following are prokaryotic

    A. archaea
    B. both a and b
    C. bacteria
    D. protists
    B. both a and b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. How would you classify a virus

    A. neither a or b
    B. prokaryotic
    C. eukaryotic
    A. neither a or b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. DNA is a hereditary molecule that is composed of 

    A. deoxyribose,phosphate,and nitrogen bases.
    B. deoxyribose, a pentose, and nucleic acids.
    C. sugar, proteins, and thymine. 
    D. adenine, phosphate, and ribose.
    A. deoxyribose,phosphate,and nitrogen bases.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. a mixed culture is 

    A. the same as a contaminated culture.
    B. one that has been adequately stirred. 
    C. a pond sample containing algae and protozoa.
    D. one that contains two or more known species. 
    D. one that contains two or more known species.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. resolution is ______ with a longer wavelenght of light 

    A. not changed 
    B. improved
    C. worsened
    D. not possible
    C. worsened
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. a real image is produced by the 

    A. ocular 
    B. objective. 
    C. eye
    D. condenser
    B. object
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. a microscope that has a tatol magnification of 1,500X when using the oil immersion objective has an ocular of what power?

    A. 30X
    B. 15X
    C. 150X
    D.1.5X
    B. 15X
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. the specimen for an electron microscope is always 

    A. viewed directly
    B. killed.
    C. sliced into thin sections
    D. stained with dyes.
    B. killed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. motility is best observed with a 

    A. hanging drop preparation
    B. streak plate
    C. flagellar stain
    D. negative stain
    A. hanging drop preparation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. bacteria tend to stain more readily with cationic(positively change) dyes because bacteria.

    A. are neutral 
    B. contain large amounts of acidic substance 
    C. contain large amounts of alkaline substance.
    D. have thick cell walls
    B.contain large amounts of acidic substance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. a fastidious organism must be grown on what type of medium

    A. enriched medium
    B. general-purpose medium 
    C. differential medium
    D. defined medium 
    A. enriched medium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following is not found in all bacterial cells 

    A. a nucleoid
    B. cell membrane
    C. flagellum
    D. ribosomes 
    C. flagellum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. a bacterial arrangement in packets of eight cells is described as a 

    A. micrococcus
    B. tetrad
    C. diplococcus
    D. sarcina
    D. sarcina
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. Pili are tubular shafts in _____ bacteria that serve as a means of ______

    A. gram-negative, protection
    B. gram-positive, genetic exchange 
    C. gram-negative, genetic exchange.
    D. gram-positive, attachment 
    C. gram-negative, genetic exchange
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which of the following is present in both gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls?

    A. peptidoglycan
    B. lipopolysaccharides
    C. teichoic acid 
    D. on outer membrane 
    A. peptidoglycan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. bacterial endospores usually function in 

    A. protein synthesis 
    B. storage
    C. reproduction
    D. survival
    D. survival
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. a bacterial species is determined by 

    a. its ability to mate within its group 
    b. its genetic similarities 
    c. its phenotypic similarities
    d. two of the above
    d. two of the above 

    • genetic similarities 
    • phenotypic similarities
  23. Which stain is most frequently used to distinguish differences between the cell walls of medically important bacteria?

    A. acridine orange stain 
    B. simple stain
    C. negative stain
    D. gram stain
    D. gram stain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Archaea are most closely related to 

    A. bacteria
    B. eukaryotes
    C. not related to either.
    D. equally related to both 
    B. eukaryotes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Both flagella and cilia are found primarily in 

    A. protozoa 
    B. both a and c
    C. helminths
    D. fungi 
    A. protozoa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. features of the membrane envelope include

    A. ribosomes
    B. a double membrane structure 
    C. pores that allow communication with the cytoplasm 
    D. both b and c 
    E. all of these
    D. both b and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Yeast are _______ fungi, and molds are _____ fungi 

    A. unicellular, filamentous
    B. water, terrestrial
    C. macroscopic, microscopic 
    D. motile, nonmotile
    A. unicellular, filamentous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. almost all protozoa have a 

    A. pellicle
    B. cyst stage
    C. trophozoite stage
    D. locomotor organelle 
    C.trophozoite stage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. all mature sporozoa are 

    A. nonmotile 
    B. both a and b
    C. carried by vectors
    D. parasitic 
    B. both a and b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. parasitic helminths reproduce with 

    A. spores
    B. eggs and sperm 
    C. cysts
    D. mitosis 
    E. all of these
    B. eggs and sperm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. mitochondria likely originated from 

    A. invaginations of the cell membrane 
    B. bacteria 
    C. chloroplasts
    D. archaea 
    B. bacteria
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. most helminth infections 

    A. are deadly 
    B. develop within the liver
    C. require more than one host 
    D. are localized to one site in the body 
    D. Are localized to one site in the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. a virus is a tiny infectious 

    A. living thing
    B. nucleic acid
    C. cell
    D. particle
    D. particle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Viruses are known to infect

    A. all organisms
    B. bacteria 
    C. plants
    D. fungi 
    A. all organisms
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. the nucleic acid of a virus is 

    A. both DNA and RNA 
    B. DNA only 
    C. RNA only 
    D. either DNA or RNA
    D. either DNA or RNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. the general steps in a viral multiplication cycle are

    A. adsorption, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release
    B. endocytosis, uncoating, replication,, assembly, and budding
    C. endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation, and excoytosis
    D. adsorption, uncoating, duplication, assembly, and lysis
    A. adsorption, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. a prophage is an early stage in the development of a/an 

    A. lytic virus
    B. poxvirus
    C. enveloped virus
    D. bacterial virus
    D. bacterial virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. in general, RNA viruses multiply in the cell ____, and DNA viruses multiply in the cell 

    A. vesicles, ribosomes
    B. endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus
    C. cytoplasm, nucleus
    D. nucleus, cytoplasm 
    C. cytoplasm, nucleus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. viruses cannot be cultivated in 

    A. live mammals 
    B. tissue culture
    C. blood agar
    D. bird embryos 
    A. live mammals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. clear patches in cell cultures that indicate sites of virus infection are called 

    A. plaques 
    B. colonies
    C. pocks
    D. prions
    A. plaques
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. an organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from CO2 using energy from the sun is a 

    A. photoheterotroph 
    B. chemoautotroph
    C. photoautotroph 
    D. chemoheterotroph
    C. photoautotroph
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. chemoautotrophs can survive on _____ alone.

    A. minerals and CO2 
    B. CO2
    C. minerals 
    D. methane
    A. minerals and CO2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. which of the following statement is true for all organisms

    A. they require organic nutrients 
    B. they require oxygen
    C. they require growth factors 
    D. they require inorganic nutrients 
    D. they require inorganic nutrients
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. a pathogen would most accurately be described as a 

    A. saprobe 
    B. commensal 
    C. symbiont
    D. parasite 
    D. parasite
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. which of the following is true of passive transport

    A. it only moves water
    B. it uses the cell wall 
    C. it requires a gradient 
    D. it includes endocytosis 
    C. it requires a gradient
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. a cell exposed to hypertonic environment will _____ by osmosis

    A. gain water
    B. neither gain or lose water
    C. lose water
    D. burst
    C. lose water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. psychrophiles would be expected to grow.

    A. at low pH
    B. on the human body 
    C. at refrigeration temperatures
    D. in hot springs.
    C. at refrigeration temperatures
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. in a viable plate count, each _____ represents a ______from the sample population 

    A. cell,colony 
    B. cell, generation
    C. hour, generation 
    D. colony, cell 
    D. colony, cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. catabolism is a form of metabolism in which ______molecules are converted into ________ molecules 
    A. large, small 
    B. small, large 
    C. food, storage
    D. amino acid, protein 
    A. large, small
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. an enzyme 

    A. is consumed by the reaction 
    B. becomes part of the final products
    C. is nonspecific for substance 
    D. is heat and pH labile
    D. is heat and pH labile
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. many coenzymes are formed from 

    A. vitamins
    B. proteins
    C. substrates
    D. metals 
    A. vitamins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. energy is carried from catabolic to anabolic reaction in the form of

    a. ADP
    b. high-energy ATP bonds
    b. high-energy ATP bonds
  53. a product or products of clycolysis is/are 

    A. ATP
    B. both a and b
    C. CO2
    D. H2O
    B. both a and b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. fermentation of a glucose molecule had the potential to produce a net number of ______ ATP 

    A. 0
    B. 40
    C. 4
    D. 2
    D. 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. complete oxidation of glucose in aerobic respiration can yield a maximum net output of ____ ATP

    A. 2
    B. 6
    C. 38
    D. 40
    C. 38
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. ATP synthase complexes can generate _____ ATP's for each NADH that enters electron transport

    A. 4
    B. 1
    C. 3
    D. 2
    C. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. what is the smallest unit of heredity

    a. chromosome 
    b. gene
    c. codon 
    d. nucleotide
    b gene
  58. the nitrogen bases in DNA are bounded to the 

    A. ribose 
    B. hydrogen
    C. deoxyribose
    D. phosphate 
    C. deoxyribose
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. DNA replication is semiconservative because the _____ strand will become half of the ______ molecule 

    A. template, finished 
    B. codon, anticodon
    C. sense, mRNA 
    D. RNA, DNA 
    A. template, finished
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. In DNA, adenine is the complementary base for _____ and cytosine is the complement for ____

    A. thymine, guanine 
    B. uracil, guanine 
    C. guanine, thymine 
    D. thymine, uracil
    A. thymine, guanine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. as a general rule, the template strand on DNA will always begin with 

    A. ATG
    B. AUG
    C. UAC
    D. TAC
    D. TAC
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. the LAC operon is usually in the ____ position and is activated by a/an _______ molecules 

    A. off, repressor
    B. on, repressor
    C. on, inducer
    D. off, inducer
    D. off, inducer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. which of the following is not a mechanism of horizontal gene transfer

    A. transformation 
    B. spontaneous mutation 
    C. transduction 
    D. conjugation
    B. spontaneous mutation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. when genes are turned on differently under different environmental conditions, this represents a change in 

    A. growth rate
    B. species
    C. genotype 
    D. phenotype
    D. phenotype
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. microbial control method that kill ____ are able to sterilize

    A. viruses
    B. cysts
    C. endospores
    D. the tubercle bacillus 
    C. endospores
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. sanitization is a process by which 

    A. the microbial load on object is reduced
    B. skin is debrided
    C. object are made sterile with chemicals
    D. utensils are scrubbed
    A. the microbial load on object is reduced
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. an example of an agent that lowers the surface tension of cells is

    A. chlorine
    B. alcohol 
    C. phenol
    D. formalin
    B. alcohol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. high temperatures _____ and low temperatures _____

    A. kills cells, cell growth 
    B. denature proteins, burst cells
    C. speed up metabolism, slow down metabolism
    D. sterilize, disinfect 
    A. kills cells,cell growth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. microbe(s) that is/are the target(s) of pasteurizations include

    A. salmonella species
    B. clostridium botulinum 
    C. mycobacterium species
    D. both b and c
    D. both b and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. the primary mode of action of nonionzing radiation is to 

    A. produce superoxide ions
    B. make pyrimidine dimers
    C. break disulfide bonds
    D. denature proteins
    B. make pyrimidine dimers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. the most versatile method of sterilizing heat-sensitive liquids is 

    A. filtration
    B. uv radiation 
    C. exposure to ozone 
    D. beta propiolactone 
    A. filtration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. detergents are 

    A. used in disinfecting surgical instruments
    B. excellent antiseptics 
    C. high-level germicides
    D. low-level germicides
    D. low-level germicides
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. a compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an 

    A. competitive inhibitor
    B. antibiotic 
    C. antimicrobial drug 
    D. synthetic drug 
    B. antibiotic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. which statement to not an aim in the use of drugs in antimicrobial chemotherapy? the drug should 

    A. be active even in high dilution 
    B. be microbicidal
    C. have selective toxicity 
    D. be broken down and excreted rapidly 
    D. be broken down and excreted rapidly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. drugs that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall are 

    A. quinolones
    B. beta-lactams
    C. tetracyclines
    D. aminoglycosides
    B. beta-lactams
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through 

    A. transformation 
    B. all of these
    C. transduction 
    D. conjugation 
    B. all of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. phage therapy is a technique that uses

    A. chemicals to foster the growth of beneficial phages in the body 
    B. chemicals to destroy phages infecting human cells 
    C. phages to foster the growth of normal biota 
    D. phages to target pathogenic bacteria in the body
    D. phages to target pathogenic bacteria in the body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. most antihelminthic drugs function by 

    A. blocking the absorption of nutrients 
    B. weakening the worms so they can be flushed out by the intestine
    C. inhibiting egg production
    D. inhibiting worm metabolism 
    D. inhibiting worm metabolism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. the MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbes 

    A. standard dose
    B. smallest concentration 
    C. lowest dilution
    D. largest concentration 
    B. smallest concentration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. an antimicrobial drug with a _____ therapeutic index is a better choice than one with a _____ therapeutic index 

    a. low, high
    b. high, low
    b. high, low
  81. the best descriptive term for the resident biota is 

    A. pathogens
    B. parasites
    C. commensals
    D. mutualists
    C. commensals
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. resident biota is absent from the 

    A. heart
    B. pharynx 
    C. intestine 
    D. hair follicles
    A. heart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. virulence factors include

    A. enzymes
    B. capsules
    C. toxins
    D. all of these
    D. all of these
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. the ____ is the time that lapses between an encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms 

    A. period of incubation
    B. period of convalescence
    C. period of invasion
    D. prodrome
    A. period of incubation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. a short period early in a disease that may manifest with general malaise and achiness is the 

    a. period of incubation 
    b. prodrome 
    c. sequela 
    d. period of invasion
  86. b. prodrome
  87. a/an ______ is a passive animal transport of pathogen 

    A. asymptomatic carrier
    B. mechanical vector 
    C. zoonosis
    D. biological vector
    B. mechanical vector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. a positive antibody test for HIV would be a _____ of infection 

    A. sequela
    B. symptom 
    C. sign 
    D. syndrome 
    C. sign
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. an outbreak caused by a batch of bad potato salad at a picnic is a _______ outbreak 

    A. propagated
    B. common-source
    C. all of these
    D. point-source
    D. point-source
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. an example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is 

    A. lysozyme in saliva 
    B. all of these
    C. unbroken skin
    D. cilia in respiratory 
    A. lysozyme
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. which of the following blood cells function primarily as phagocytes

    A. neutrophils
    B. basophils
    C. lymphocytes
    D. endoinophils
    A. neutrophils
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. what is included in GALT

    A. peyer's patches
    B. breast lymph nodes
    C. tonsils
    D. thymus
    A. peyer's patches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. monocytes are _____ leukocytes that develop into ___

    A. agranular, macrophages
    B. agranular, mast cells
    C. granular, t-cells
    D. granular, phagocytes
    A. agranular, macrophages
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. an example of an exogenous pyrogen is 

    A. complement
    B. interferon
    C. endotoxin
    D. interleukin-1
    C. endotoxin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. which of the following is an antimicrobial protein that also has a role in the third line of defense in addition to its role in the second line of defense?

    A. interferon
    B. comlpement 
    C. antibody 
    D. lysosome 
    C. antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. which of the following substances is/are not produced by phagocytes to destroy engulfed microorgainsms 

    A. bradykinin
    B. hydroxyl radicals 
    C. hydrogen peroxide
    D. superoxide anion 
    A. bradykinin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. which of the following is the end product of the complement system 

    A. complement factor C9
    B. cascade reaction 
    C. properdin 
    D. membrane attack complex
    D. membrane attack complex
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. the primary b-cell receptor is 

    A. IgG
    B. IgA
    C. IgE
    D. IgD
    D. IgD
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. in human B cells mature in the _____ and T cells mature in the _____

    A. GALT, liver 
    B. bone marrow , thymus 
    C. lymph nodes, spleen
    D. Bursa, thymus
    B. bone marrow, thymus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. the cross-linking of antigens by antibodies is known as 

    A. opsonization 
    B. agglutination 
    C. a cross-reaction 
    D. complement fixation
    B. agglutination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. t_____ cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells 

    A. natural killer
    B. helper 
    C. cytotoxic 
    D. sensitized
    B. helper
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. TC cells are important in controlling 

    A. all of these
    B. virus infection 
    C. allergy
    D. autoimmunity 
    B. virus infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. which of the following can serve as antigen-presenting cells 

    A. B cells 
    B. dendritic cells
    C. macrophages
    D. b, c, and ,d
    E. T cells 
    D. b, c, and d
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. a vaccine that contains parts of viruses is called 

    A. recombinant 
    B. attenuated
    C. acellular
    D. a subunit 
    D. a subunit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. conjugates vaccines combine antigens and 

    A. epitopes
    B. antibodies
    C. foreign protein
    D. adjuvants
    C. foreign protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. the isolation of two colonies of E. coli on a plate streaked from a urine sample most likely indicates 

    A. contamination
    B. probable infection
    C. normal biota 
    C. normal biota
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. which of the following statements is incorrect 

    A. when performing a throat swab, the swab should not touch saliva
    B. antisepsis of the puncture site is important during a spinal tap
    C. in some cases, clean-catch urine can be used as a specimen 
    D. nonsterile patient samples can always be stored at room temperature 
    D. nonsterile patient samples can always be stored at room temperature
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. because they are sufficiently unique in their appearances, viruses can sometimes be identified at a family or genus level by which phenotypic method

    A. electron microscopy 
    B. cell culture 
    C. PCR
    D. ELISA
    A. electron microscopy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. which of the following methods can identify different stains of a microbe

    A. microscopic examination 
    B. radioimmunoassay 
    C. agglutination test
    D. serotyping 
    D. serotyping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. in agglutination reactions, the antigen is a _____,  in precipitation reaction it is a ____

    A. whole cell, soluble molecule
    B. soluble molecule, whole cell
    C. protein, carbohygrate
    D. bacterium, virus
    A. whole cell, soluble molecule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. which type of method are based on a microbe's utilization of nutrients ?

    A. genotypic
    B. biochemical
    C. immunologic
    B. biochemical
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. which of the following is an in vivo immunologic method 

    A. determination of blood type 
    B. determination of antibody titer 
    C. tuberculin test 
    D. indirect ELISA
    C. tuberculin test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. which of the following is the correct pairing of an immunologic test and the subject to be identified 

    A. indirect ELISA test/ an unknown microbial antigen 
    B. western blot/ an unknown microbial antigen or antibody 
    C. agglutination test/ an unknown soluble microbial toxin
    D. direct fluorescence antibody test/ an unknown antibody 
    B. western blot/ an unknown microbial antigen or antibody
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. an effective treatment for a cutaneous mycosis like tinea pedis would be

    A. griseofulvin
    B. penicillin
    C. miconazole
    D. doxycycline
    C. miconazole
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. what is the antimicrobial enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that can specifically break down peptidoglycan 

    A. coagulase
    B. lysozyme 
    C. catalase
    D. beta-lactamase
    B. lysozyme
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. which of the following is probably the most important defense factor for skin 

    A. sebum
    B. phagocytes
    C. antimicrobial peptides
    D. dryness
    C. antimicrobial peptides
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. name the organism(s) most commonly associated with cellulitis

    A. streptococcus pyogenes 
    B. both a and b
    C. propionibacterium acnes
    D. staphylococcus aureus 
    E. both a and c
    E. both a and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. herpesviruses can cause all of the following diseases, except 

    A. shingles
    B. roseola
    C. smallpox
    D. chickenpox
    B. roseola
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. which disease is incorrectly matched with the causative agent 

    A. smallpox/ variola virus
    B. shingles/ adenovirus
    C. warts/ staphylococcus sureus
    D. viral conjunctivitis/ adenovirus 
    C. warts/ staphylococcus sureus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. dermatophytes are fungi that infect the epidermal tissue by invading and attacking

    A. keratin 
    B. fibroblast 
    C. sebaceous glands
    D. collagen 
    A. keratin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. poor contact lens hygiene is likely to get you a case of 

    a. herpetic keratitis 
    b. wolbachia infection 
    c. acanthamoeba keratitis 
    d. ophthalmic gonorrhea
  122. c. acanthamoeba keratitis
  123. which of the following organisms does not cause meningitis 

    A. neisseria menigitidis 
    B. clostridium tetani
    C. streptococcus pneumoniae
    D. haemophilus influenzae 
    B. clostridium tetani
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. the first choice antibiotic for bacterial meningitis is the broad-spectrum 

    A. vancomycin
    B. cephalosporin 
    C. ampicillin 
    D. penicillin 
    B. cephalosporin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. meningococcal meningitis is caused by 

    A. streptococcus pneumoniae 
    B. listeria monocytogenes
    C. neisseria meningitidis 
    D. haemophilus influenzae 
    C. neisseria meninhitidis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. which of the following neurological diseases is not caused by a prion

    A. St.Louis encephalitis
    B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease 
    C. mad caw disease
    D. scrapie
    A. St. Louis encephalitis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. cryptococcus neoformans is primarily transmitted by 

    A. sexual activity
    B. fomites
    C. bird droppings
    D. direct contact
    C. bird droppings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. CJD is caused by a/an 

    A. bacterium
    B. prion 
    C. protozoan 
    D. arbovirus 
    B. prion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. what food should you avoid feeding children under 1 year old because of potential botulism 

    A. honey 
    B. applesauce
    C. apple juice 
    D. milk 
    A. honey
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. which of the following is not caused by an arbovirus 

    A. Eastern equine encephalitis 
    B. West Nile encephalitis 
    C. ST. Louis encephalitis 
    D. mad cow disease
    D. mad cow disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream, this is referred to as 

    A. septicemia 
    B. viremia
    C. bacteremia 
    D. fungemia
    A. septicemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. the plague bacterium, Yersinia pestis is transmitted mainly by

    A. dogs 
    B. mosquitore
    C. birds
    D. fleas
    D. fleas
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. rabbit fever is caused by 

    A. chlamydia bunnyensis
    B. borrelia burgdorferi 
    C. francisella tularensis 
    D. yersinia pestis 
    C. francisella tularensis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. cat-scratch disease is effectively treated with 

    A. rifampin
    B. acyclovir
    C. penicillin 
    D. amocicillin
    A. rifampin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. normal biota found in the oral cavity are most likely to cause 

    A. subacute endocarditis 
    B. malaria 
    C. tularemia
    D. acute endocarditis 
    A. subacute endocarditis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. a distinctibve bull's-eye rash results from a tick bite transmitting 

    A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
    B. lyme disease 
    C. tularemia
    D. Q fever 
    B. Lyme disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. wool-sorter's disease is caused by 

    A. rabies virus
    B. brucella abortus
    C. bacillus anthracis 
    D. coxiella burnetti 
    C. bacillus anthracis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. which of the following is not a hemorrhagic fever 

    A. tublaremia
    B. ebola fever 
    C. lassa fever
    D. marburg fever
    A. tublaremia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. the two most common groups of virus associated with the common cold is 

    A. coronaviruses
    B. both a and c
    C. rhinoviruses
    D. influenza virus 
    E. both a and b 
    E. both a and b
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. which is not a characteristic of streptococcus pyogenes

    A. gram-positive
    B. sensitive to bacitracin 
    C. group A streptococcus 
    D. alpha-hemolytic 
    D. alpha-hemolytic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. which of the following techniques are used to diagnose tuberculosis 

    a. tuberculin testing 
    b. chest x-rays 
    c. cultural isolation and antimicrobial testing 
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  142. the DTaP vaccine provides protection against the following disease, except

    A. tetanus
    B. pneumonia
    C. pertussis 
    D. diphtheria
    B. pneumonia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. which of the following infections often has a polymicrobial cause

    a. otitis media 
    b. healthcare-associated pneumonia 
    c. sinusitis 
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  144. the vast majority of pneumonias caused by this occur in ADIS patients 

    A. pneumocystis jiroveci 
    B. histoplasms capsulatum 
    C. mycoplasma pneumoniae
    D. hantavirus 
    A. pneumocystis jiroveci
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. the beta-hemolysis of blood agar observed with streptococcus pyogenes is due to the presence of

    A. streptolysin
    B. m. protein
    C. catalase
    D. hyaluronic acid
    A. streptolysin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. an estimated ____ of the world population is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis 

    A. three-quarters
    B. one-half
    C. one-third 
    D. one-quarter 
    C. one third
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. food moves down the GI tract through the action of 

    A. gravity 
    B. cilia 
    C. microorganisms
    D. peristalsis 
    D. peristalsis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. gastric ulcers are caused by 

    A. treponema vincentii 
    B. prevotella intermedia 
    C. helicobacter pylori 
    d. all of the above
    C. helicobacter pylori
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. which of these microorganisms id considered the most common cause of diarrhea in the United States

    A. E. Coli 
    B. Shigella
    C. Salmonella 
    D. Campylobacter 
    D. campylobacter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. which of these microorganisms is associated with Guillian-Barré syndrome 

    A. Shigella
    B. Salmonella 
    C. Campylobacter 
    D. E. Coli 
    C. Campylobacter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. this hepatitis virus is an enveloped DNA virus 

    A. Hepatitis A virus 
    B. Hepatitis E virus
    C. Hepatitis C virus
    D. Hepatitis B virus 
    D. Hepatitis B Virus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. cystitis is an infection of the 

    A. vagina
    B. kidney 
    C. urethra 
    D. bladder 
    D. bladder
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. leptospirosis is transmitted to humans by 

    A. fomites 
    B. mosquitoes 
    C. contaminated soil or water
    D. person to person 
    C. contaminated soil or water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. Syphilis is caused by 

    A. neisseria gonorrhoeae
    B. treponema pallidum 
    C. trichomonas vaginalis 
    D. haemophilus ducreyi
    B. treponema pallidum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. bacterial vaginosis is commonly associated with the following organism 

    A. gardnerella 
    B. candida albicans 
    C. trichomonas 
    d. all of the above 
    e. none of the above
    A. gardnerella
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. this dimporphic fungus is a common cause of vaginitis 

    A. gardnerella 
    B. candida albicans 
    C. trichomonas 
    d. all of the above
    B. candida albicans
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. genital herpes transmission can be reduced or prevented by all of the following, except 

    A. abstinence 
    B. the contraceptive pill 
    C. a condom 
    D. a female condom
    B. the contraceptive pill
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. this protozoan can be treated with the drug metronidazole (flagyl)

    A. neisseria gonorrhoeae
    B. chlamydia trachomatis
    C. trichomonas vaginalis
    D. treponema pallidum 
    C. trichomonas vaginalis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. which group had the highest rate of HPV infection

    A. male collage students 
    B. collage professors of either gender 
    C. baby-boomers
    D. female collage students 
    D. female collage students
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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