CDC

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CDC
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  1. the estimated percent of accident caused by nature is 
    A.2
    B.6
    C.8
    D.4
    A.2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. what is the percent of accidents attributable;e to unsafe acts and physical hazards
    A.50
    B.70
    C.90
    D.98
    D.98
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. which directive are used when performing maintenance procedures
    manuals,TO,handbook
  4. what safety training phase is describe as an effective
    tool that creates a lasting impression
    initial
  5. a chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than
    A.-2.0
    B.-1.0
    C.0.1
    D.
    1.0
    C0.1
  6. hazardous waste management system rules are published by
    EPA
  7. temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed
    90 days
  8. what affects radiation hazards
    • streng
    • th of emission time of exposure and weather
  9. the recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is ton park the aircraft in an isolated and then
    allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
  10. the noise intensity of a jet engine is greater toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 
    A.15
    B.45
    C.65
    D.95
    B.45
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue
    A.dizziness
    B.emotional irritability
    C.a feeling of emptiness
    D.impaired mental concentration
    c
  12. when launching an aircraft containing live ammunition who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices
    weapons personnel
  13. all composite material-related safety
    training must be documented on which AF IMT form
    A.55
    B.457
    C.623
    D.1297
    a
  14. the first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to
    identify all possible sources of FOD
  15. before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hanger you must
    remove all ammunition and explosives
  16. who is responsible for FOD prevention
    everyone
  17. when a lost tool cannot be located the lowest person authorized to clear a red x is the
    maintenance operation officer/maintenance superintendent
  18. in most units who is responsible for investigating dropped object
    QA
  19. the pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the
    green marking
  20. individuals not directly involved in nitrogen severing should remain outside a
    20 foot radius
  21. who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check
    aircrew
  22. when servicing as fireguard you position yourself even with the
    nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
  23. what reference covers internationally accepted hand signals 
    A.AFI 23-106
    B.AFI 11-218
    C,TO0-25-172
    D.TO 00-25-212
    b
  24. during an aircraft tow is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order
    supervisor only
  25. What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?
    Organizational, intermediate and depot
  26. What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?
    Preventive
  27. Objectives of the MDD system include
    collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data
  28. What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?
    Select serially controlled and time change items.
  29. What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil
    781F
  30. The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder
    after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing
  31. Engine over-tmeperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO
    781J
  32. Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?
    Item managers
  33. The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the
    unit level
  34. The training managemnt subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by
    helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training.
  35. When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program?
    Within 60 days of arrival
  36. The GAS is normally sent out
    90 days after graduation
  37. Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?
    CFETP, Part 2
  38. The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
  39. Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?
    Reference
  40. What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?
    1
  41. Which column is the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?
    Remedy
  42. What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page?
    Urgent action
  43. Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?
    00-5-1
  44. Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiancy which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?
    Urgent
  45. Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidence on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?
    Pamphlet
  46. Which maintenance stand has an adjustalbe height of 13 to 20 feet?
    B-2
  47. Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?
    B-4
  48. What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?
    8,000
  49. On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer is
    20 mph
  50. What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?
    Axle
  51. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?
    Everyone
  52. Gox high-pressure cylinders are painted
    green with a white band near the top
  53. When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by
    qualified operators only
  54. What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?
    49
  55. What is hte maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?
    4,400 psig
  56. The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to
    3,200 psi
  57. The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of
    200 psi
  58. The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from
    150-280 degrees F
  59. What is the maxumum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?
    20 mph
  60. The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from
    47 to 200 degrees F
  61. The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces
    28.5 VDC
  62. What unit is capable of providing AC and DC eletrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?
    A/M32A-60
  63. Which technical order had operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?
    35C2-3-372-11
  64. The FL-1D floodlight consists of two
    1,000 watt lamp fixtures
  65. What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?
    20 mph
  66. What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?
    An electic motor
  67. How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?
    Number 1 and number 2
  68. The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?
    27 gallons
  69. The MB-4 Coleman incorporates
    four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive
  70. What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?
    20 mph
  71. What type of steeing system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer?
    Hydraulic
  72. Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications?
    Prevent corrosion
  73. How are special bolts identified?
    • The bolt head is marked with the letter S
  74. Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?
    Clevis
  75. Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?
    An internal wrenching type






  76. Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

    groove on the end of the barrel
  77. Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?
    Soft rubber
  78. A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by
    inserting safety wire in the hold in the end of the terminal
  79. What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?
    15-20 inches
  80. The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straights section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than
    15 percent of wall thickness
  81. Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures?
    300 psi and below
  82. The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a
    24 inch length of wire
  83. Whan securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that my be wired in a series?
    3
  84. Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?
    Axially assembled retaining rings
  85. Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove
    Spiral retaining ring
  86. What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit?
    Pin-and-socket contacts
  87. In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates
    pin
  88. Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torgue or twisting action being applied?
    Indicating type
  89. Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?
    Breakaway type
  90. Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the
    maximum setting at least six times
  91. What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?
    Tension and torsion
  92. Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?
    Static
  93. Use the range button on the Fluke mulitmeter to
    move the decimal point
  94. When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter disply, the
    touch-hold mode is in use
  95. Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?
    Feeler gauge
  96. What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil?
    1.0 inch
  97. Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?
    Spring-joint calipers
  98. Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?
    Odd-leg caliper
  99. Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?
    Slide caliper
  100. Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?
    Supervisors at all levels
  101. Bench stock levels are established to provide a
    30-day usage
  102. Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?
    AF IMT 1297
  103. All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?
    ERRC
  104. Within maintenance the internal control of reparalbe items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and
    AFTO Form 350
  105. Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters?
    1577-2 and 1577-3
  106. Engines overhauled by depot are covered againsst defects in the workmanship for
    100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt
  107. Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicalbe aircraft-specific -6 TO and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?
    Periodic
  108. Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?
    Isochronal
  109. Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 TO inspection requirements?
    Programmed depot maintenanace
  110. Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in
    insepction workcards
  111. Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?
    EOR
  112. The TH inspection is normally performed
    after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
  113. Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?
    Calendar
  114. Which inspection ensures that completeness of historical documents?
    Acceptance
  115. To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form
    1149
  116. Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?
    1-1B-50
  117. What is used in determining designe criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?
    Aircraft weight
  118. Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?
    "TRIAGE"
  119. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is
    fabricated or manufactured
  120. Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is
    exhausted or salvaged
  121. What type of corrosion can be recognized by lifting up or sweiling of the metal grains?
    Exfoliation
  122. What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?
    Stress
  123. Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in
    TO 1-1-691
  124. After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?
    Sodium bicarbonate
  125. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is
    14.7 psi
  126. A barometer is designed to measure pressure in
    inches of mercury
  127. The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is
    weight
  128. The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is
    lift
  129. The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is
    drag
  130. The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called
    shear
  131. What is the design that uses any combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads, and frames in the construction of the fuselage called?
    Semi-monocoque
  132. The structural members used to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure are called
    stringers
  133. The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is
    alluminum alloy
  134. The wing design used on most modern military aircraft is
    cantilever
  135. The fixed vertical surface of the empennage is called the
    fin
  136. Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion- resistant steel that is able to withstand forces of
    180,000 to 200,000 psi
  137. The main difference between inspection plates and panels is
    size
  138. A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of transparent plastics is called
    crazing
  139. What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called?
    Waterlines
  140. Movement about the vertical axis is called
    yaw
  141. Which flight control surface is a longitudinal control surface?
    Elevator
  142. Which of these is attached to the trailing edge of a horizontal stabilizer?
    Elevator
  143. When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron trailing edge is
    up, left aileron trailing edge is down
  144. The purpose of wing flaps is to
    increase lift and drag
  145. The purpose of aircraft trim systems is to
    correct minor deviations in flight attitude
  146. Matter is any substance that has mass and
    occupies space
  147. Atoms are made up of
    protons, neutrons, and electrons
  148. Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except
    cold
  149. What is the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor called?
    Electromotive force
  150. If you apply 24 volts through a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage would be
    4
  151. A permanent magnet is produced from a material with
    high reluctance and low permeability
  152. When soft iron is brought close to a permanent magnet it is
    magnetized
  153. The greater the current flow through an electromagnet, the
    greater the strength
  154. Current flow in most aircraft circuits is controlled by
    switches
  155. The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located
    in the aircraft cabin
  156. What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals?
    Alternating
  157. The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are
    engine oil and blast air
  158. The output of the constant speed drive (CSD)used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approximately
    8,000 RPM
  159. THe underspeed swith (USS) on the 60/80 KVA generator constant speed drive actuates at
    365 Hz
  160. What supplies rotary power to the input gear of the CSD
    Accessory gearbox
  161. A bettery's internal component that is a grid or framework which supports the active chemical materials is called the
    plate
  162. A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has
    19 cells
  163. The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by
    constant current
  164. What type of motor can operate on alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)?
    Universal
  165. A shunt-type motor has
    • low starting torque and good speed regulation
  166. The three states of matter are
    liquids, gases, and solids
  167. When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have
    passed the elastic limit
  168. The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its
    ability to conform to the shape of its container
  169. What usually produces flow in a pneudraulic system?
    Piston pushing the fluid
  170. Who was among the first to study the compressibility of gases?
    Boyle
  171. If 50 psi of cf cylinder pressure acts on a 5-square-inch piston head, what will the resulting force be?
    250 pounds
  172. When an 8-square-inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, what volume of liquid is displaced?
    40 cubic inches
  173. Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by
    creating resistance and loss of energy
  174. A tube whose cross-section area is gradually reduced to a smaller size diameter is called a
    venturi
  175. The purposes of a hydraulic reservoir are to
    replenish fluid, allow for thermal expansion, and provide a means of bleeding air from the system
  176. The purpose of a standpipe in a reservoir is to
    reserve fluid for the emergency pump
  177. The amount of fluid a pump produces on each cycle or revolution is called its
    displacement
  178. When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double-action means
    fluid-flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle
  179. Variable-volume pumps do not require a seperate pressure-regulating device in the system because
    they have an integral compensator
  180. What provides for cooler operation in a Stratopower variable-volume hydraulic pump?
    Creep plates
  181. In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, what holds the pistons in contact with the cam plate?
    Nutating plate
  182. The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into
    retary mechanical motion
  183. How is the piston installed in an accumulator?
    Hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator
  184. In a hydraulic system, the hydrualic manifold provides a location where the
    common fluid lines can come together
  185. The purpose of an actuating cylinder is to transform fluid pressure into
    a mechanical force
  186. What pneudraulic system component uses a single-acting actuating cylinder?
    Brake assembly
  187. What pneudraulic system component uses a double-acting balanced actuating cylinder?
    Nosewheel steering
  188. Which actuator type slows down piston travel when the piston nears either end of the cylinder?
    Internal snubber
  189. A manual poppet-type selector valve is in a working position when the camshaft is rotated to
    unseat one pressure poppet and one return poppet
  190. The major advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its
    metering ability
  191. Normally, what positions hydraulic selector valves?
    Solenoid
  192. The advantage of an electrically controlled solenoid valve is its
    reduced weight
  193. The difference between a selector valve and a servo valve is that the
    servo valve controls fluid-flow
  194. Another name for a flapper check valve is
    gate check valve
  195. What is the purpose of the arrow on a check valve?
    Show the direction of free flow through the valve
  196. Which of these allows normal operating speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while limiting speed in the other direction?
    Restrictor check valve
  197. What are the basic units of a hydraulic hand pump system?
    Reservoir, pump, actuator, and manual shutoff valve
  198. The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump
    by gravity and the suction effect of the pump
  199. When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow
    decreases
  200. The purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to
    prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder
  201. How is the motion of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve?
    by a cable system
  202. What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center?
    Centering Switch
  203. Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conducive metal targes on landing gears are known as
    proximity sensors
  204. A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as
    a steer damper
  205. What position must the landing gear control handle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear
    Down (DN)
  206. What slows the free fall of the main landing gear during the emergency extension sequence?
    Snubbing mechanism
  207. The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to
    sound when gear is not safe
  208. Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action
    loss due to overheating
  209. A major disadvantage of multilple disc brakes is that they
    warp when overheated
  210. What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake?
    Adjusters
  211. The purpose of the antiskid system is to
    prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel
  212. The purpose of deboosters is to
    reduce braking pressure
  213. Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of
    magnesium and/or aluminum alloys
  214. Split wheels are balanced
    individually by halves
  215. What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves?
    An O-ring seal
  216. What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup?
    Thermal relief plugs
  217. What type of bearings is used on aircraft wheels?
    Tapered roller
  218. The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is also called the
    Inner race
  219. When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use
    a wire brush
  220. Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and
    overheating marks
  221. The main parts of a aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall,
    cord body, and beads
  222. What prevents pressure buildup and separation of cord piles or tread rubber on an aircraft tire?
    Vent holes
  223. For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length o
    12 inches
  224. In its natural state oxygen is
    tasteless, colorless, and odorless
  225. What gaseous oxygen (GOX) system valve type prevents a complete loss of oxygen?
    Check
  226. The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by cullulose tape that is
    green and white
  227. The disadvantage of a continuous-flow oxygen regulator is that it
    wastes oxygen
  228. What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel?
    93 percent oxygen-enriched gas
  229. Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of
    860 to 1
  230. Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system's combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the
    buildup position
  231. On an aircraft liquid oxygen (LOX) system, the handle on a manually operated buildup and vent valve is designed to prevent
    the filler access door from closing in the vent position
  232. Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section?
    Compressor
  233. Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the
    engine throttle setting and ambient temperature
  234. What is the purpose of the engine bleed air (EBA) check valves?
    Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air
  235. What engine bleed air (EBA) component prevents loss of air through the engine when it is shutdown?
    Shutoff valve
  236. The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of
    stainless steel
  237. What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting?
    Rawhide mallet
  238. What type of high-pressure/high temperature ducting does not require a gasket?
    Compressible flange
  239. What lubricant can be used on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation?
    Water
  240. The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of
    a soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh
  241. Expansion joints in bleed air systems are best used for
    a short run of ducting
  242. What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes?
    Vent holes
  243. What is defined as "a depression in the duct wall, where the surface of hte material isn't cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material?"
    Major dent
  244. "The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space" is the definition of
    air conditioning
  245. What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)?
    Primary heat exchanger
  246. What aircraft air conditioning system component controls the flow of ram air through the primary heat exchangers?
    Movable inlet and exit doors
  247. The rapid cooling of bleed air causes
    moisture to condense in the form of fog
  248. As bleed air enters the compressor of the air cycle machine, its pressure is increased. With the increase in pressure, there is also an increase in temperature. Which component removes most of this increased temperature?
    Secondary heat exchanger
  249. The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person's blood vessels to
    rupture
  250. What controls the action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system?
    Regulating control chamber pressure
  251. What are the parts of the isobaric section of the cabing pressure regulator?
    An aneroid, spring, and metering valve
  252. What are the components of the differential section of the cabing pressure regulator?
    A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve
  253. What is the purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system?
    Ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time
  254. In the variable isobaric pressurization system, the manual control valve is used as an alternate when the
    cabin pressure controller fails
  255. The normal connection for thermal switches in a fire waring systme is in series with
    the warning light and parallel wiht each other
  256. The fire detector, frequently used in fire warning systems, that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called
    an Iron Fireman switch
  257. The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of
    10 Hz
  258. A liquid fire extinquishing agent douses a fire by
    excluding oxygen from the area
  259. A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguishing agent in order to
    expel the agent from the bottle
  260. What liquid-agent fire extinguisher container component holds in both the liquid agent and the nitrogen charge?
    Frangible disc
  261. In a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container, why is the frangible disc undercut into pie-shaped sections?
    Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer
  262. What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank?
    Sump and drain
  263. A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made of
    rubber or nylon material
  264. Wing tanks are
    sealed-off parts of the wing structure
  265. A centrifugal-type aircraft fuel pump may be used
    for boost, transfer, or air refueling operations
  266. What type of fuel pump must have a fuel-and vaper-proof housing?
    Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, direct current (DC), series-wound motor
  267. What kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions?
    Dual-impeller
  268. In a dual-impeller fuel pump what prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open?
    An inlet screen
  269. What air refueling pump components depend on fuel for lubrication?
    Bearings
  270. What air refueling pump component removes fuel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impellers?
    Rotor
  271. The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the
    direction of free flow
  272. A pressure-loaded fuel system check valve is used
    When gravity flow through the valve is undesirable
  273. The fuel system components that prevent excessive pressure from builing up in trapped lines or within the valve body are three
    spring-loaded relief valves
  274. The rotary plug valve can be removed and replaced
    without draining the fuel lines or tanks
  275. What rotarty plug valve part rotates and seals off the passage of fuel during plug valve removal?
    Secondary seal sleeve
  276. Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is
    butterfly
  277. In a piston-type fuel level control valve, what aids piston closure and prevents fuel from entering the tank?
    Spring
  278. Some fuel level control valves have a dual-float system so that
    there will be a double safety factor
  279. The low-level shutoff valve prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the valve by what typy of action?
    Check Valve
  280. Fuel-controlled switches normally control circuits that indicate
    all of the above A. fuel-flow B. fuel level C. fuel pressure
  281. What most likely controls the automatic pump shutoff when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank?
    Float switches
  282. n a direct current (DC), liquid-level fuel indicating system, what positions the wiper contact on the resistance strip?
    The movement of a float in the tanks
  283. What capacitance-type, fuel-indicating system component allows for changes in fuel density?
    Compensator
  284. What prevents a fuel tank from collapsing if an air pressure regulator fails and excessive negative pressure develops?
    Pressure/vacuum relief valve
  285. A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure
    positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions
  286. The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the
    sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc
  287. The three methods of transferring fuel are gravity flow,
    air pressure, and pump 
  288. What is the basic purpose of the fuel vent system?
    Prevent fuel tank rupture or collapse
  289. The most prevalent method of refueling for ground servicing is
    single-point
  290. The air-refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated
    hydraulically, but controlled electrically
  291. Fuel's ability to hold contaminants in suspension is increased with a higher
    viscosity
  292. What type of foreign particle appears in the fuel in a crystalline, granular, or glasslike form?
    Sand or dust
  293. Which type of fuel contaminant can form a red, brown, gray, or black slime in the fuel?
    Microbial growth
  294. Specks or granules of sediment in fuel that are visible to the naked eye are approximately how many microns or larger?
    40
  295. Classification of fuel leaks is necessary in order to determine
    whether or not they constitute a flight safety hazard
  296. How are fuel leaks categorized?
    Class A through D
  297. Leak limits correspond to the
    leak category and fuel type
  298. n addition to the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A or AFTO Form 781K, what form must you use to document fuel leaks when automatic data systems are not available?
    AFTO Form 427
  299. The ability to do work is the definition of
    energy
  300. The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called
    Inertia
  301. A aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of
    Newton's First Law of Motion
  302. Which of Newton's Laws of Motion is the best description of why an operating jet engine produces forward thrust?
    third
  303. In a jet engine, what meters the fuel for combustion?
    Fuel control
  304. When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy,
    the energy returns to the compressor
  305. What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure?
    Increases pressure
  306. Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require
    greater velocity exiting than entering
  307. When a jet engine uses two or more turbine wheels, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel?
    Nozzle diaphragm
  308. A jet engine derives its name from the fact that
    it uses a exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor
  309. What are the two types of jet engine compressors?
    Centrifugal and axial-flow
  310. After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to
    rotational and centrifugal forces






  311. What determines the N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor?

    Fuel control
  312. What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor?
    Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor
  313. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between
    95-100 percent
  314. Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by
    directing air around the plug electrode
  315. What form the inner and outer surfaces of an annular-typ combustion chamber?
    Interlocking stainless steel bands
  316. Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or after engine shutdown is
    drained overboard by a drain system
  317. The three turbine designs used in jet engines are
    impulse, reaction, and reaction-impluse
  318. On some jet engines, what secures the turnine bucket in place?
    Lock strips
  319. The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the
    jet nozzle
  320. What is the purpose of the exhaust duct?
    Straighten exhaust gas-flow
  321. One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the
    Segmented flap
  322. What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity?
    Flameholder
  323. Which engine type used a lot during the early years of jet engine designe is the most basic turbine engine design?
    Turbojet
  324. A turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as
    medium bypass
  325. The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to
    meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantiy for combustion at all times
  326. What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine?
    Electrohydromechanical
  327. The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
    heat the fuel and cool the oil
  328. What classified according to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump?
    Rotogear
  329. What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
    Gerotor
  330. A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to
    1/25,000 of an inch
  331. the two types of oil coolers used in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and
    fuel/oil
  332. What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system?
    Gasket
  333. What engine component must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective?
    Compressor
  334. The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines
    had the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starter
  335. The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbin wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and
    an overrunning clutch
  336. In a gearbox-type starter system, what transmits the torque supplied by the jet fuel starter (JFS) to the engine gearbox?
    Power takeoff (PTO) shaft
  337. What jet engine alternating current (AC) ignition system unit develops 20,000 volts delivered to the ignitor plugs?
    Transformer
  338. A simple direct current (DC) ignition system consists of
    vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer
  339. Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in precent of
    maximum RPM
  340. The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engines
    available thrust output
  341. Exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicators indicate the engine EGT in
    degrees Celsius
  342. The three benefits of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and
    increased equipment availability
  343. Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be
    less unnecessary maintenance
  344. At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample?
    Goggles and gloves
  345. What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand?
    An increase in silicon
  346. What form must you fill out and submit to the non-destructive inspection (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples?
    DD Form 2026
  347. What maintains pressure if the dual-differental cabin pressure regulator fails during flight?
    The outflow valves

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