Cell Biology Exam I Key

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iishvo
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251225
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Cell Biology Exam I Key
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2013-12-07 00:13:15
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cell bio
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cell bio 3510.001 davis exam I
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  1. Model organisms used in cellular research include:
    A. Caenorhabditis elegans
    B. Arabidopsis thaliana
    C. (a and c)
    D. Lionfish, Pterois volitans
    C. (a and c)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. What is the minimum sized object resolvable by a light microscope?
    A. 200 um
    B. 2 um
    C. 20 um
    D. 0.2 um
    B. 2 um and d. 0.2 um
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. The following dye can insert itself directly into DNA:
    A. indocyanine green
    B. acridine orange
    C. coumassie blue
    D. neutral red
    B. acridine orange
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The central dogma of cell/molecular biology is:
    A. RNA -> DNA -> protein
    B. DNA -> RNA -> protein
    C. RNA -> protein -> DNA
    D. protein -> RNA -> DNA
    B. DNA -> RNA -> protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Immunoglobulins like IgG are composed of:
    A. 4 light chains held together by disulfide bonds
    B. 4 heavy chains held together by disulfide bonds
    C. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains, held together by hydrogen binding
    D. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains, held together by disulfide bonds
    D. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains, held together by disulfide bonds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Mitochondria are approximately ______ in diameter:
    A. 2 um
    B. 2 nm
    C. 20 um
    D. 20 nm
    A. 2 um
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Look at question 7 on exam 1
    amino acid structure
  8. Hemoglobin contains:
    A. 4 b chains
    B. 2 a and 2 b polypeptide chains
    C. 4 a chains
    D. 1 a, 1 b and 1 gamma chain
    B. 2 a and 2 b polypeptide chains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. In addition to its polypeptide chains, hemoglobin contains 4 of the following "prosthetic groups":
    A. NAD+
    B. Heme
    C. Iron
    D. Flavin
    B. Heme
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. What is the minimum object resolvable by an electron microscope?
    A. 0.2 nm
    B. 200 nm
    C. 2 nm
    D. 20 nm
    A. 0.2 nm and d. 2 nm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Both heme and chlorophyll use this compound to bind to their respective metal ions:
    A. tryptophan
    B. myosin
    C. porphyrin
    C. porphyrin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Density gradient centriguation:
    A. takes advantage of relative pelleting rates in a cell lysate suspension
    B. uses sucrose or salt gradients to separate proteins
    C. (a and c)
    D. usually takes place in a fixed angle centrifuge rotor
    B. uses sucrose or salt gradients to separate proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Look at question 13 on exam 1
    review alpha and beta links
  14. The nucleosome core particle is composed of:
    A. (b and c)
    B. 147 bp dsDNA
    C. h1, h2a, h2b, h3, h4
    D. h2a, h2b, h3, h4
    A. (b and c)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. During prion diseases, normal PrP proteins are:
    A. converted to a nonfunctional form by misfolded PrP
    B. phosphorylated to a nonfunctional form
    C. misfolded by host molecular chaperones
    D. glycosylated into a nonfunctional form
    A. converted to a nonfunctional form by misfolded PrP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The Km of an enzymatic reaction is defined as:
    A. 1/2 Vmax
    B. [S] at 1/2 Vmax
    C. Vmax [S]
    D. 1/Vmax
    B. [S] at 1/2 Vmax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. NADH, NADPH, and FADH2 function as:
    A. oxidizing agents
    B. electron donors
    C. reducing agents
    D. (a and b)
    D. (a and b)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A form of biotin can act as an enzyme cofactor to:
    A. transfer methyl groups
    B. donate hydrogens
    C. transfer carboxyl groups
    D. transfer acetyl groups
    C. transfer carboxyl groups
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. The first protein to be amino acid sequenced was:
    A. insulin
    B. hemoglobin
    C. actin
    D. keratin
    A. insulin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. In the lineweaver-burk plot of an enzymatic reaction, the Y axis intercept is:
    A. Vmax
    B. 1/Vmax
    C. 1/[S]
    D. -1/Km
    B. 1/Vmax
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. "Weak forces" that influence protein structure include:
    A. (a and b)
    B. hydrogen binding
    C. covalent bonds
    D. ionic attraction
    A. (a and b)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. What type of binding holds proteins in an a-helical formation?
    A. hydrogen binding
    B. covalent binding
    C. van der waals forces
    D. ionic binding
    A. hydrogen binding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. a-helical protein domains can span the cell membrane by arraying _____ amino acids on their exterior surface:
    a. polar
    b. apolar
    b. apolar
  24. Intact hemoglobins can be used as an example of ______ structure due to its use of subunit polypeptides:
    A. quaternary
    B. secondary
    C. tertiary
    D. primary
    A. quaternary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. phosphatase enzymes:
    A. phosphorylate ADP
    B. remove phosphates from proteins
    C. add phosphate groups to proteins
    B. removes phosphates from proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. An example of a large multimeric protein made up of identical subunits is:
    A. aquaporin
    B. IgG
    C. tubulin
    D. albumin
    C. tubulin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. In general, kinases _______ other enzymes.
    A. activate
    B. inactivate
    C. stabilize
    A. activate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. One problem encountered when trying to determine protein structure by X-ray diffraction is:
    A. purifying the protein to a pure crystal
    B. choice of solvent buffer
    C. radiation sensitivity
    D. determining the proper wavelength
    A. purifying the protein to a pure crystal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. this amino acid produces turns in polypeptide chains:
    A. isoleucine
    B. tryptophan
    C. histidine
    D. proline
    D. proline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. anabolism is the:
    A. production of chemical energy from simple sugars
    B. breakdown of complex molecules to smaller, more useful compounds
    C. sole function of steroid hormones
    D. production of large complex molecules from simple precursors
    D. production of large complex molecules form simple precursors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Metabolic pathways commonly have _______ that control production of final products and intermediates:
    A. molecular chaperones
    B. feedback loops
    C. blocked substrates
    D. steric hindrances
    B. feedback loops
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. allosteric regulation of enzymes can be achieved by:
    a. small ligands binding at the catalytic site
    b. ligands binding at sites remote from the catalytic site
    c. none of the above
    b. ligands binding at sites remote from the catalytic site
  33. a nucleotide often used in enzyme regulation is:
    A. CTP
    B. GTP
    C. GMP
    D. TTP
    B. GTP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Prions can be destroyed by:
    A. standar disinfectants
    B. incineration
    C. autoclaving
    D. 10M HCl
    B. incineration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. All cases of vCJD to date have involved patients who:
    A. are heterozygous (methionine/valine) at codon 125 of PrP
    B. are homozygous for methionine at codon 129 of PrP
    C. are homozygous for valine at codon 129 or PrP
    D. produce a mutant PrP with a deletion at codon 129
    B. are homozygous for methionine at codon 129 of PrP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. sources of human proteins for purification purposes can include:
    a. serum
    b. specific tissue types
    c. cultured cells
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  37. Intact cells can be ruptured by extrusion through a small orifice under pressure. A device used for this purpose is called a:
    A. air jet mill
    B. french press
    C. pneumatic disruptor
    D. hyperbaic chamber
    B. french press
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. density gradient centrifugation (also called equilibrium sedimentation) separates proteins based on their:
    A. polarity
    B. molecular weight
    C. linear or globular structure
    D. buoyant density
    B. molecular weight and b. linear or globular structure and c. buoyant density
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. in isoelectric focusing, a protein at its isoelectric point:
    A. migrates toward the anode
    B. migrates toward the cathode
    C. is stationary
    C. is stationary
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. in SDS-PAGE, the detergent sodium dodecyl sulfate is used:
    a. to denature proteins
    b. as a component of the running buffer
    c. to impart a negative charge to proteins based on their molecular weight
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  41. in gel filtration chromatography, proteins are separated by size, with ______ proteins eluting from the gel column first.
    a. smaller
    b. larger
    b. larger
  42. monoclonal antibodies are produced by fusing antigen stimulated B lymphocytes with myeloma cell lines. The reagent used to fuse cell membranes in this procedure is:
    A. polyethylene glycol
    B. DMSO
    C. phosphatidyl Inositol
    d. none of the above
    A. polyethylene glycol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. in affinity chromatography, proteins are usually eluted from antibody coated beads by:
    a. chaotropic agents like urea
    b. buffer with a high salt concentration
    c. acidic buffer
    d. competing antigens
    All of the answers are right but b. buffer with a high salt concentration and c. acidic buffer are most used
  44. Smooth (S) strains of streptococcus pneumoniae have:
    A. a polysaccharide capsule
    B. no cell wall
    C. a waxy lipid envelope
    D. a cell wall containing large numbers of apolar amino acids
    A. a polysaccharide capsule
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. Rough (R) strains of S. pneumoniae can be converted to smooth strains by ____________ derived from the S strain:
    A. lipids
    B. RNA
    C. specific proteins
    D. DNA
    D. DNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. In the Hershey-Chase experiment, the investigators used bacteriophages labeled wtih:
    A. 3H thymidine
    B. fluorescein
    C. 32P and 35S

    d. ethidium bromide
    C. 32P and 35S
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. Look at 47 on exam 1
    review adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine structures
  48. the amount of DNA compression achieved after final packaging into mitotic chromosomes is approximately:
    A. 10,000x
    B. 100,000x
    C. 100x
    D. 1000x
    A. 10,000x
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Histone proteins can silence or activate expression of associated genes by modification with the following chemical groups:
    A. methyl
    B. (a and b)
    C. acetyl
    D. adenyl
    E. (b and c)
    E. (b and c)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. A common diagnostic procedure performed on mitotic chromosome is:
    A. DNA sequencing
    B. radiolabeling
    C. gel electrophoresis
    D. karyotyping
    D. karyotyping
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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