Cell Biology Final

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jphan07
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251937
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Cell Biology Final
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2013-12-09 06:14:18
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cell biology
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Cell Bio Final
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  1. The information encoded in DNA resides in ______.

    A) phosphates in the backbone
    B) the DNA base sequence
    C) the sugars and phosphate
    D) sugars in the backbone
    B) the DNA base sequence
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Which of the phenomena below is responsible for the ability of one gene to code for more than one polypeptide?

    A) transcription
    B) the phosphodiester linkages
    C) transposition
    D) hybridization 
    E) alternative splicing
    E) alternative splicing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. What is the name of proteins that make up the nuclear lamina and of what protein superfamily are they a member?

    A) keratin, laminins 
    B) actin, microfilaments
    C) lamins, laminins
    D) lamins, intermediate filaments
    E) keratin, intermediate filaments
    D) lamins, intermediate filaments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The genetic rearrangement that Barbara McClintock discovered was called ___ and the mobile genetic elements she discovered were called ____.

    A) transposition, transposable elements
    B) transposable elements, transposition
    C) transference, transferable elements
    D) transposition, transposables
    E) mutations, mutable elements
    A) transposition, transposable elements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Why is the AMY1 gene more prevalent in humans than in chimpanzees and more prevalent in some human populations that other?

    1) Chimps have to digest forms of statch different from those digested by humans
    2) Chimps have less starch in their diets than humans and therefore need lower levels of amylase
    3) Some human populations have more starch in their diets
    4) The AMY1 gene is directly involved with the ability to speak.
     
    A) 1     B) 2     C) 3     D) 4     E) 2 AND 3
    E) 2 AND 3
  6. The intermediate state that the group II introns pass through while undergoing self-splicing is called the _____.

    A) lanyard
    B) lasso
    C) langolier  
    D) elsesser
    E) lariat
    E) lariat
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The macromolecular complex that associates with each intron and splices it is called a(n)_____.

    A) acrosome 
    B) splicing body
    C) splice engine
    D) splicer 
    E) spliceosome
    E) spliceosome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which of the following in not included within the nucleus if a typical interphase (nonmitotic) cell?

    A) chromosomes 
    B) nuclear matrix
    C) nucleoplasm
    D) mesosome
    E) nucleolus 
    D) mesosome
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. The extent to which a given gene is transcribed presumably depends upon _______.

    A) the single transcription factor bound to its upstream regulatory elements 
    B) the particular combination of transcription factors found to its downstream regulatory elements 
    C) the particular combination of transcription factors found to its upstream regulatory elements 
    D) the combination of initiation factors bound to its upstream regulatory elements
    E) the combination of translational factors bound to its upstream regulatory elements
    C) the particular combination of transcription factors found to its upstream regulatory elements
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. RNAi or dsRNA-mediated RNA interference is an example of a broader phenomenon that occurs widely in eukaryotes called________.

    A) RNA ascension
    B) RNA surruration
    C) RNA activation
    D) RNA silencing
    E) RNA quieting
    D) RNA silencing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. The enzyme in Eukaryotas that is responsible for the synthesis fo RNA from a DNA template is called ______.

    A) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
    B) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
    C) ribonuclease
    D) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase 
    E) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase 
    E) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The behavior of what cell constituent correlated perfectly with that of Medel's genetic factors?

    A) the homologous pairs of centrioles 
    B) the homologous pairs of chromosomes 
    C) the mitochondria 
    D) the nucleus
    E) the endoplasmic reticulum 
    B) the homologous pairs of chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The site of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds before intiating transcription is called the ______.

    A) terminator 
    B) silencer
    C) promoter 
    D) operator 
    E) enhancer 
    C) promoter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. ______ refers to the fact that the sequence of one DNA strand specifies the sequence of the other strand in the double helix. 

    A) Complexity 
    B) Indirectionally
    C) Compulsivity
    D) Complementarity  
    E) Similarity 
    D) Complementarity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. You are interpretaing dara on a DNA chip or microarray. You expose the chip to a mixture of two DNA populations: one from cells that were not treated with a glucocorticoid hormone (untreated controls labeled with a red fluorescent dye) and a population from cells that were treated with glucocorticoid hormones (glucocorticoid-treated; labled with green fluorescent dye). You look at a spot on the chip representing the gene for phosphoenolase, a gene that is truend off by glucocorticoid treatment, but is expressed in control, untreated cells. What color should the spot representing phosphoenolase gene be?

    A) yellow
    B)  no color, the spot in not labeled
    C) brown
    D) red 
    E) green
    D) red
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The reverse reastion of nucleic acid synthesis almost never happens. What prevents it?

    a) The enzyme does not work in reverse
    b) Polynucleotides are too stable to depolymerize
    c) H bond holding the strands together are too strong
    d) Nucleic acid synthesis is coupled to the highly exergonic pyrophosphate hydrolysis 
    e) There is a large uptake of free energy
    ) Nucleic acid synthesis is coupled to the highly exergonic pyrophosphate hydrolysis
  17. What is the advantage of the highly condensed state of the DNA mitotic chromosomes?

    A) The condensed state allows chromosomes to fuse more easily
    B) The condensed state allows replication to occur more rapidly as the cell enters mitosis 
    C)This state is allows gene expression needed during mitosis 
    D) The highly condensed state favors delivery of an intact package of DNA to each daughter cells
    E) The condensed state favors DNA repair prior to mitosis
    D) The highly condensed state favors delivery of an intact package of DNA to each daughter cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. Scientists often stain chromosomes from mitotic cells and photograph the chromosomes in microscope. Each chromosome is cut out the the photograph, the chromosomes are matched up in homologous pairs and they are placed in order of decreasing size. These pictures can be used to screen individuals for chromosomal abnormalities, like extra, missing or grossly altered chromosomes. What is such picture called?

    A) karyoplan
    B) karyokinesis
    C) karyotype
    D) parokaryote
    E) eukaryote
    C) karyotype
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. In which of the following organisms is polyploidization particular common?

    A) flowering plants
    B) bananas
    C) coffee
    D) wheat
    E) all of them
    E) all of them
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. if cells cannot replicate the ends of their DNA, what should happen with each round of cell division?

    A) the mitotic spindle should weaken
    B) the chromosomes should get shorter
    C) The chromosomes should stay exactly the same length
    D) the chromosomes should get longer
    E) the chromosomes should denature
    B) the chromosomes should get shorter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. What is the name of the site where RNA polymerase binds to the DNA prior to the beginning of transcription?

    A) the structural genes
    B) the terminator
    C) the promotor
    D) the operator
    E) the repressor 
    C) the promotor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. What function does topoisimerase serve during mitosis?

    A) it is needed to dientangle DNA molecules before duplicated chromosomes can be separated during mitosis 
    B) it moves genes from one place to another
    C) it lengthens chromosomes at the end of mitosis
    D) the pulls the chromosomes apart in association with the spindle
    E) it organizes the spindles
    A) it is needed to dientangle DNA molecules before duplicated chromosomes can be separated during mitosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. What provides the energy that drives polymerization of RNA from a DNA template?

    A) deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate precursors
    B) ribosomes
    C) ribonucleoside triphosphate precursors
    D) nitrogenous bases 
    E) ribose sugars
    C) ribonucleoside triphosphate precursors
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. With what structure is the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope continous?

    A) RER
    B) SER
    C) the plasma membrane
    D) the spindle 
    E) Golgi apparatus 
    A) RER
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. A transport receptor that moves macromolecules from the cytoplasm to the nucleus is called a(n) _____.

    A) exportin 
    B) transportin 
    C) importin 
    D) exhaling
    E) receptin
    C) importin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The ____ is located about 10 base pairs upstream from the initiation site. it has the consensus sequence ______ and is responsible for identifying the precise nucleotide at which _____ begins. 

    A) Portnoy box, TATAAT, transcription 
    B) Pribnow box, TATAAT, transcription 
    C) Pribnow box, TTGACA, transcription 
    D) Pribnow box, TATAAT, translation
    E) Portnoy box, TATAAT, translation
    B) Pribnow box, TATAAT, transcription
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. A larger S value for an RNA specifically indicated that the RNA

    a) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation 

    b) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation

    c) migrates less rapidly through a field of force during gel filtration

    d) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis 

    e)migrates less rapidly through a field of force during SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
    a) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation
  28. What statement below explains the uniform width of the DNA molecule along its entire width?

    A) repulsion between phosphate groups keeps the strands a uniform distance apart 
    B) a pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with another pyrimidine nitrogenous base
    C) a purine nitrogenous base always pairs with another purine nitrogenous base
    D) a pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with another purine nitrogenous base
    E) attraction between phosphate groups keep the strands a uniform distance apart.
    D) a pyrimidine nitrogenous base always pairs with another purine nitrogenous base
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Each transcription factor usually has at least two domains that mediate different aspects of their function. What are they?

    A) the RNA-binding domain and the activation domain
    B)the DNA-binding domain and the activation domain 
    C) the RNA-binding domain and the repression domain
    D) the activation domain and the repression domain
    E) the DNA-binding domain and the repression domain
    B)the DNA-binding domain and the activation domain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which of the following is a tenent of the Cell Theory?

    1) all the organisms are composed of one or more cells 
    2) the cell is the structural unit of life 
    3) cells can arise only by division from a preexisting cell 
    4) cells divide only by fission

    a) 1      b) 2    c) 3     d)4    e) 1,2, and 3
    e) 1,2, and 3
  31. The sodium-potassium pump makes the cell interior more _____ by pumping ____ sodium ions out of the the cell for every _____ potassium ions pumped in.

    A) negative, 2, 3
    B) negative, 4, 3
    C) positive, 2, 3
    D) negative, 3, 2
    E) positive, 3, 2
    D) negative, 3, 2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. How are the new "stealth liposomes"
     protected from immune system phagocytes?

    A) they are given a synthetic polymer coating that protects them from immune destruction
    B) they are loaded with radioactive isotopes 
    C) they are colored red
    D) they are kept cold before use
    E) they are coated with carbohydrates 
    A) they are given a synthetic polymer coating that protects them from immune destruction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. What is the distinguishing characteristic of a P-type pump?

    A)it must be protonated during the cycle 
    B)it must be deprotonated during the cycle
    C)it must be pumped during the cycle
    D)it must be phosphorylated during the cycles
    E) it must be potassiumated during the cycle
    D)it must be phosphorylated during the cycles
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. what causes the membrane potential to return to the normal negative value after an action potential has occurred?

    A) opening of the voltage-gated K+ channel 
    B) closing of the voltage-gated K+ channel
    C) opening of the ligand-gated Na+ channel
    D) opening of the voltage-gated K+ facilitated transporter
    E) opening of the voltage-gated Na+ channel
    A) opening of the voltage-gated K+ channel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. What are are the building blocks of a phospoglyceride, specifically phosphatidic acid?

    A) glycerol + 1 phosphate groups 
    B) glycerol + 2 phosphate groups + 1 fatty acid
    C) glycerol + 2 phosphate groups + 1 fatty acid 
    D) glycerol + 1 phosphate groups + 3 fatty acid
    E) glycerol + 1 phosphate groups + 2 fatty acid
    E) glycerol + 1 phosphate groups + 2 fatty acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. What kind of membrane protein is found entirely outside the bilayer on either the extracellular or cytoplasmic surface and is covalently linked to a membrane lipid situated within the bilayer? 

    A) transmembrane
    B) lipid-anchored protein 
    C) integral protein
    D) carbohydrate-anchored protein
    E) peripheral proteins
    B) lipid-anchored protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Proteins  are often composed of two or more distinct modules that fold up independelty of one another. They often represent parts of a protein that function in a semi-independent manner. These modules are called _____.

    A) dominoes
    B) protein motifs
    C) domains
    D) functional
    C) domains
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. A reaction involving the gain of one or more electrons is a(n) _____ reaction.

    A) reduction
    B) oxidation
    C) None of these are correct
    D) inclusion
    E) elimination
    A) reduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The presently accepted model of enzyme action was proposed by Daniel Koshland in the 1960s and suggested that the enzyme was a flexible structure with an active sire roughly complementary to the substrate that binds it. After its initial interaction with the substrate, the enzyme alters its shape and thus improves the fir of the substrate in the active site. What is the name of the model?

    A) The Koshland model
    B) The Flexible Fit model
    C) The Lock and Key model
    D) The Induced Fit model
    E) The Flexible Sponge model
    C) The Lock and Key model
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. _____ is a process that strengthens certain synapses by repeated neuron stimulation over a short period.

    A) Long term potentiation
    B) Denturation
    C) Short term memory 
    D) Temporality 
    E) Long term deviation
    A) Long term potentiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The first continuous culture of human cells was begun by George and Martha Grey of Johns Hopkins University in 1951. The cells were obtained from a malignant tumor and named _____ cells the donor _____.

    A) HeLa, Henrietta lacks
    B) Roberts, Jones Robert
    C) MaLe, Martin lewis
    D) HeLa, Helen Lassiter
    E) HeLa, Herbert Lane 
    A) HeLa, Henrietta lacks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. What type of protein secondary structure is characterized as being highly extensible because of its coiled structure?

    A) double helix
    B) alpha-helix
    C) supercoilling
    D) beta-pleated sheet
    B) alpha-helix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. A channel that opens in response to the binding of a specific molecule, which is usually not the solute that passes through the channel is called a _____.

    A) voltage-gated channel
    B) positive-gated channel 
    C) ligand-gated channel 
    D) electric-gated channel
    E) charge-gated channel 
    C) ligand-gated channel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Diffusion during which the substance to be transported binds selectively to a membrane-spanning protein, which helps the process along, is called _____. 

    A) osmosis
    B) simple diffusion 
    C) facilitated osmosis 
    D) facilitated diffusion 
    E) active transport
    D) facilitated diffusion
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. What kind of bond results form an unequal sharing of electrons?

    A)
    B) nonpolar covalent bond 
    C) H bond
    D) ionic bond
    E) polar covalent bond
    E) polar covalent bond
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which interaction is most important in enhancing the solubility of macromolecules in water?

    A) H bonds
    B) can der Waals forces
    C) nonpolar covalent bonds
    D) hydrophobic interactions
    E) both hydrophobic interactions and noncolvalent  bonds
    A) H bonds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The energy stored in ATP is converted to mechanical energy that moves organelles around within the cell. This is an example  of _____.

    A) being endothermic
    B) polymerization
    C) being exothermic
    D) catheterization
    E) energy transduction
    E) energy transduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Which of the following is a function of membranes?

    A) selectively permeable barrier 
    B) all of these are correct
    C) compartmentalization 
    D) helps cells respond to external stimuli 
    E) mediates intercellular interactions 
    B) all of these are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. What kind of enzyme adds phosphate groups to enzymes for the purpose of activating or deactivating them?

    A)carboxlypeptidase
    B) protein kinases
    C) glycosylsferases 
    D) phosphates 
    E) flippases
    B) protein kinases
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. What word describes a molecule that contains both hydrophilic and hydrophobic portions?

    A) rings
    B) ambidextrous 
    C) amphipatic
    D) straight
    E) amphoteric 
    C) amphipatic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. A release of hydrogen ions to a solution would most likely _________.

    A) buffer the pH
    B) keep pH steady
    C) raise the pH
    D) lower the pH
    E) change salinity 
    D) lower the pH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Entropy is associated with the _____ movement of particles of matter, which because they are ______ cannot accomplish a directed work process. 

    A) random, slow
    B) slow, rapid
    C) rapid, random
    D) random, random 
    E) rapid, directed 
    D) random, random
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Doubling the concentration of enzyme will ____ the Vmax and _____ the KM.

    A) halve, halve
    B) not alter, double 
    C) double, double
    D) double, not alter
    E) not change, not alter
    D) double, not alter
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. Where in the myelinated axon are nearly all of the ion channels concentrated 

    A) dendrites 
    B) axon terminals 
    C) the cell body
    D) neuron nucleus
    E) node of Ranvier 
    E) node of Ranvier
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. What directly or indirectly determines the transition temperature?

    A) the extent to which the fatty acid chains of the lipids contain double bonds 
    B) the ability of lipid molecules to be packed together
    C) whether the fatty acid chains of the lipids are saturated or unsaturated
    D) all of these are correct
    E) the length of the fatty acid chain
    D) all of these are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Which of the following cell processes depend on the movement of membrane components and would probably not be possible of membranes were rigid, nonfluid structures?

    A) cell division
    B) endocytosis 
    C) formation of intercellular junctions
    D) cell movement
    E) all of these are correct
    E) all of these are correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Which property below is not a characteristic of enzymes?

    A) they can be altered reversibly during a reaction 
    B) they do not alter the delta G of a reaction
    C) they are used over and over again 
    D) they are required only in large amounts
    E) they do not determine whether a reaction is exergonic or endergonic
    D) they are required only in large amounts
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. What advantages for the cristae conger on the mitochondria?

    A) they allow swelling of mitochondria
    B) they greatly increase the surface area for aerobic respiration machinery
    C) they confer resiliency on the cells
    D) they allow the mitochondria to shrink
    E) they activate the matrix
    B) they greatly increase the surface area for aerobic respiration machinery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. In what ways can pyruvate and NADH be metabolized?

    A) aerobic process using Kreb cycles, fermentation 
    B) condensation of PGAL and fermentation
    C) fermentation, hydrolysis of PGAL
    D) aerobic processing using Kreb cycles, hydrolysis of PGAL
    A) aerobic process using Kreb cycles, fermentation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. How many carbons from 13 original glucose molecules enter the Kreb cycle in the presence of oxygen?

    0
    13
    26
    52
    78
    52
  61. Where are most of the enzymes of the Kreb cycle located?

    A. on the cristae
    B. in soluble phase of the mitochondrial matrix
    C. on the ribosomes 
    D. in the intermembrane space
    E. in the intercristal spce
    B. in soluble phase of the mitochondrial matrix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. To what is the 2-carbon fragment of acetyl CoA added to make citric acid at the start of the Kreb cycle?

    A. ketoglutarate
    B. succinate
    C. oxaloacetate
    D. citric acid
    E. isocitric acid
    C. oxaloacetate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. how many catalytic sites does ATP synthase posses?

    A. 4
    B. 1
    C. 6
    D. 2
    E. 3
    E. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. What is the name of the process by which the electron transport chain generates the electrochemical gradient that drives the ATP production in the mitochondria?

    A. frusion
    B. osmosis
    C. chemiosmosis 
    D. diffusion 
    C. chemiosmosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. On average, how many ATPs would be made if 4 NADH and 6 FADHmolecules donated their high-energy electrons to the mitochondrial electron transport chain?

    A. 12
    B. 24
    C. 30
    D. 10
    B. 24
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. What drives the rotation of the F1 head of the ATP synthase?

    A. proton movement from the matrix to the intermembrane space
    B. proton movement from intermembrane space to the matrix
    C. ATP condensation
    D. ATP hydrolysis 
    B. proton movement from intermembrane space to the matrix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. The Fbase of the ATP synthase serves as a(n) ______. 

    A. enzyme that hydrolyzes ATP
    B. enzyme that synthesizes ATP
    C. channel that conducts protons from the intermembrane space back to the matrix
    D. proton pump
    C. channel that conducts protons from the intermembrane space back to the matrix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. How do mitochondria generate and store the energy used to produce most of the ATP made during aerobic respiration?

    A. oxidative phosphorylation 
    B. noncyclic phosphorylation
    C. cyclic phosphorylation 
    D. substrate-level phosphorylation 
    D. substrate-level phosphorylation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

    A. carbon dioxide
    B. water
    C. hydrogen
    D. oxygen 
    D. oxygen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What is formed when electrons reach the bottom of the mitochondrial electron transport chain and bind to the final electron acceptor?

    A. water
    B. oxygen 
    C. hydrogen
    D. carbon dioxide
    A. water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. Which of the following is not a usual component found in the stroma?

    a. tRNAs
    b linear DNA
    c. circular DNA
    d. many different polypeptides
    b linear DNA
  72. how did the evolution of photosynthesis set the stage for the evolution of aerobic respiration?

    A. photosynthesis uses carbon monoxide in the atmosphere
    B. photosynthesis produces a waste product (carbon dioxide) that led to evolution of aerobic respiration 
    C. photosynthesis inhibits glycolysis
    D. photosynthesis produces a waste product (oxygen) that led to evolution of aerobic respiration
    D. photosynthesis produces a waste product (oxygen) that led to evolution of aerobic respiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Why is COsplit off of the C4 carriers once they get into the bundle sheath cells?

    A. so that the CO2 can be used by PEP carboxylase to initiate the Calvin cycle 
    B. so that the CO2 can be used by Rubisco to initate the Calvin cycle 
    C. so that the CO2 can be used by Rubisco to initate the Hatch-Slack pathway
    B. so that the CO2 can be used by Rubisco to initate the Calvin cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. The chloroplast internal membrane is organized into flattened membranous sacs called ______; they, in turn, are arranged in orderly stacks called ______ that contain energy-transducing machinery. 

    A. grana, thylakoids
    B. thylakoids, stroma thylakoids
    C. thylakoids, grana
    C. thylakoids, grana
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Where are the enzymes that synthesize carbohydrates located?

    A. thylakoids
    B. the thylakoid lumen
    C. stroma
    D. grana
    C. stroma
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. Thylakoid membranes have ________.

    A. relatively plentiful phospholipids
    B. low amounts of phospholipids
    C. high protein content
    D. high amounts of phospholipids
    C. high protein content
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. You are growing algae in culture and expose them to CO2 that contains radioactive oxygen. Where does the radiolabeled oxygen end up after photosynthesis?

    A. oxygen 
    B. carbohydrates
    C. water
    D. carbon dioxide
    B. carbohydrates
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. What is the plants cell's primary source of reducing power?

    A. ADP
    B. NADPH
    C. NAD
    D. CO2
    E. ATP
    B. NADPH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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