Physiology

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saintcrazy
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252372
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Physiology
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2013-12-13 01:40:22
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physiology biology
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exam questions, stuff from powerpoint
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  1. Body adjusts to find new homeostasis BEFORE any change occurs
    Feedforward mechanism
  2. Feedforward mechanism
    Body adjusts to find new homeostasis BEFORE any change occurs
  3. Developmental acclimitization
    Body develops ways to deal with environmental conditions while in the womb (example: needing less calories when little food is available for the mother)
  4. Body develops ways to deal with environmental conditions while in the womb (example: needing less calories when little food is available for the mother)
    Developmental acclimitization
  5. Efferent neuron
    • From CNS out to peripheral nervous system
    • CNS>>>peripheral
  6. Neuron from CNS out to peripheral nervous system
    CNS>>>peripheral
    Efferent neuron
  7. Afferent neuron
    • From peripheral nervous system back to CNS
    • CNS<<<Peripheral
  8. Neuron that transmits from peripheral nervous system back to CNS
    CNS<<<Peripheral
    Afferent neuron
  9. Long portion of a neuron
    Axon
  10. Where is the axon portion of the neuron?
  11. Where are the dendrites on a neuron?
  12. What is the name of the initial segment of an axon?
    Axon hillock
  13. Where is the axon hillock?
    The initial segment of the axon (closest to the cell body)
  14. Difference between myelinated and nonmyelinated neurons?
    Myelinated neurons send info much more quickly
  15. Where are Schwann cells located? What is their purpose?
    On peripheral neuron axons, forming myelin
  16. What cell forms myelin on peripheral neuronal axons?
    Schwann cells
  17. What cell forms myelin on central neuronal axons?
    Oligodendrocytes
  18. What are oligodendrocytes and where are they located?
    Cells that form myelin on central neuronal axons
  19. What motor protein moves retrograde (terminal end to cell body) on the axon microtubule?
    Dynein
  20. What motor protein moves anterograde (cell body to terminal end) on the axon microtubule?
    Kinesin
  21. What cells form the blood-brain barrier?
    Astrocytes
  22. What cell produces cerebrospinal fluid?
    Ependymal cells
  23. What do ependymal cells do and where are they located?
    Produce cerebrospinal fluid, form barrier around cerebrospinal fluid
  24. What do astrocytes do, where are they located?
    Connection to capillaries and neurons in brain, maintain pH and chemical balance in the fluid around the neurons, maintain blood-brain barrier
  25. What cell is wrapped around capillaries in the central nervous system and maintain pH and chemical balance in the fluid around neurons?
    Astrocytes
  26. Types of glial cells?
    • Peripheral: Schwann cells
    • Central: Astrocytes, Ependymal cells, Oligodendrocytes, Microglia
  27. What are Astrocytes, Ependymal cells, Oligodendrocytes, Microglia classifed as, where are they located?
    Glial cells, central nervous system
  28. What are microglia and where are they located?
    Immune cells in the central nervous system
  29. Which cells serve as immune system cells in the central nervous system?
    Microglia
  30. What is the name of the valve connecting the atrium and the ventricle?
    Atrioventricular valve (AV valve)
  31. In a myocardial pumping cell, which channels open and close during depolarization?
    V-gated Na channels open (letting in Na to depolarize) and V-gated leaky K channels close.
  32. In a myocardial pumping cell, V-gated leaky K channels are open, while V-gated Na channels and L-type Ca channels are closed. What state is the cell in? What is the membrane potential?
    The cell is at rest (repolarization has occured). Membrane potential is close to -90 mV.
  33. In a myocardial pumping cell, V-gated leaky K channels are closed, while V-gated Na channels are open and L-type Ca channels are closed. What state is the cell in? What is the membrane potential?
    The cell is depolarizing, at the beginning of an action potential. The membrane potential quickly depolarizes to 0 or higher.
  34. In a myocardial pumping cell, V-gated leaky K channels are closed, while V-gated Na channels are closed and L-type Ca channels are open. What state is the cell in? What is the membrane potential?
    The cell is in the plateau phase of depolarization. The membrane potential is close to 0, dropping slowly.
  35. What is the first step in a depolarization of an autorhythmic cardiac cell?
    The "downswing" in membrane potential causes funny-type Na channels to open
  36. What causes funny-type Na+ channels in an autorhythmic cardiac cell to open and close?
    A negative (polarized) membrane potential causes F-type Na+ channels to open, causing the cell to depolarize. That depolarization (membrane potential nearing zero) then causes F-type Na+ channels to close.
  37. In an autorhythmic cardiac cell, what is the purpose of Transient(T)-type Ca++ channels and when do they open?
    T-type Ca++ channels open at the beginning of depolarization (caused by F-type Na channels) and continue the depolarization to threshold.
  38. In an autorhythmic cardiac cell, what is the purpose of (L)-type Ca++ channels and when do they open?
    L(long)-type Ca++ channels open when the cell reaches threshold membrane potential, and stay open for a time to continue depolarizing.
  39. In an autorhythmic cardiac cell, what is the purpose of Voltage-gated K+ channels and when do they open?
    The VG K+ channels open at the end of depolarization to re-polarize the cell.
  40. Name all the ion channels involved in cardiac pacemaker potentials in an autorhythmic cardiac cell.
    • F-type Na+ (open when polarized, close when polarized)
    • T-type VG Ca++ (open when depolarized, continue depolarization to threshold)
    • L-type VG Ca++ (open when threshold is reached, delays repolarization)
    • VG K+ (open to re-polarize the cell)
  41. What effect does digitalis have on the heart?
    Increases strength of heart contractions, increasing ejection volume.
  42. How do you calculate hematocrit?
    • hematocrit = RBC count
    • Erythrocyte volume / Total blood volume
  43. After a hemorrhage, what mechanism does the body use to help return the blood volume to normal?
    Autotransfusion - lowered hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries (Pc) results in increased absorption of fluid from the interstitium, adding to the plasma volume.
  44. After a hemorrhage, how does the body adjust these factors? (reflex compensations) Which of these are attempting to return to normal?
    1. Stroke volume
    2. Heart rate
    3. Cardiac Output
    4. TPR
    5. MAP
    • 1. Increased (to return to normal)
    • 2. Increased
    • 3. Increased (to return to normal)
    • 4. Increased
    • 5. Increased (to return to normal)
  45. How is cardiac output (CO) calculated?
    Stroke volume x Heart rate
  46. How is Mean Arterial Pressure calculated?
    Cardiac Output x TPR
  47. What hormone stimulates creation of red blood cells?
    Erythropoitin
  48. What is the purpose of the hormone erythropoitin?
    stimulate production of red blood cells
  49. During aerobic exercise, how are the following factors changed?
    1. TPR
    2. diastolic/systolic pressure
    3. Cardiac output
    4. P(CO2) in systemic arterial blood
    5. pH in systemic arterial blood
    6. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
    • 1. Decreases (in muscles and heart)
    • 2. Stays the same/increases
    • 3. Increases (increases in heart rate and stroke volume)
    • 4. Stays the same
    • 5. Decreases
    • 6. Increases (increase in CO is greater than decrease in TPR)
  50. What is hypovolemic shock? How is it treated?
    Blood volume/fluid volume is too low - give the patient fluids
  51. What is the major cause of Low-resistance shock?
    Allergies causing vasodilation (extreme immune response)
  52. What is vasovagal syncope?
    Fainting/shock due to emotional reasons
  53. Which lung cells secrete surfactant?
    Type II
  54. What is the purpose of Type II cells in the lung?
    Secrete surfactant when stretched
  55. What is Cushing's phenomenon?
    • A rise in intracranial pressure (and less blood flow) causes a rise in MAP
    • Good if a tumor in brain, bad if bleeding out
  56. Which lung cells secrete mucus?
    Goblet cells
  57. What is the purpose of goblet cells?
    Secrete mucus
  58. Which cells cover 90% of the alveolar surface?
    Type I
  59. At the end of exhalation (between breaths), how does alveolar pressure compare to atmospheric pressure?
    They are equal
  60. What happens to the pressure in the interpleural space at the beginning of an inhalation (compared to between breaths)
    Decreases (due to diaphragm)
  61. How do the following factors differ in a trained athlete compared to an average person?
    1. Cardiac Output
    2. Heart Rate
    3. Stroke Volume
    • 1. The same, but ability to do harder work increases upper limit
    • 2. Lower
    • 3. Higher (remodeling of ventricles and blood vessels, increased blood volume)
  62. How do you calculate Alveolar Ventilation Rate?
    (Tidal volume x Breaths per min) - (dead space x breaths per min)
  63. What is lung compliance and how does it affect Alveolar Ventilation?
    How much the lung can stretch - less compliance makes it harder for lung to stretch, meaning normal breaths will have less tidal volume, therefore less Alveolar Ventilation
  64. How do you calculate Partial Pressure?
    V(x)/V(total)  =  P(x)/P(total)
  65. The primary regulator of the magnitude of ventilation under normal circumstances is
    the H+ concentration (pH) in the brain extracellular fluid
  66. What is the function of Clara cells in the lungs?
    Metabolize any toxins/foreign objects that were inhaled
  67. Which cells in the lung are responsible for metabolizing toxins that were inhaled?
    Clara cells
  68. What is the purpose of Alveolar Macrophages?
    Immune cells in the alveoli
  69. What is the name of the immune cells in the alveoli?
    Alveolar Macrophages
  70. How do diuretics treat hypertension?
    Diuretics remove plasma from the blood through filtration in the capillaries, decreasing blood volume. Less blood volume while TPR remains constant results in lowered blood pressure.
  71. Preprohormones will ultimately be processed into...
    Peptide hormones
  72. Describe the steps involved in steroidogenesis.
    • (hypothalamus sends peptide hormone to pituitary, which sends ACTH to endocrine cell, causing it to take up cholesterol)
    • 1. Cholesterol esterase cleaves cholesterol from LDL and moves it to outer mitochondrial membrane
    • 2. Then StAR moves the cholesterol to the inner mitochondrial membrane
    • 3. Cytochrome P450 enzymes convert cholesterol to steroids on the inner mitochondrial membrane (many forms)
    • 4. Specific carrier takes hormone to be released to target cells
  73. Where is aldosterone synthesized?
    Adrenal cortex - zona glomerulosa (outermost layer)
  74. Where is cortisol synthesized?
    Adrenal cortex, zona fasciculata
  75. Where are androgens synthesized in the adrenal gland?
    Adrenal cortex, zona reticularis
  76. In the adrenal gland, where are epi and norepi synthesized?
    Adrenal medulla
  77. What is the adrenal medulla responsible for secreting?
    epi and norepi
  78. What is the purpose of the hormone prolactin?
    Promotes breast development and milk production
  79. What is the purpose of the hormone ACTH?
    Stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol
  80. What are the purposes of aromatase (CYP19) and CYP22?
    These isoforms of cytochrome P450 convert cholesterol to estradiol or testosterone, respectively
  81. Where is GnRH secreted?
    Hypothalamus
  82. What are the effects of GnRH on the pituitary?
    The anterior pituitary secretes FSH and LH
  83. What gene is responsible for male differentiation?
    SRY gene (on Y chromosome)
  84. The active (stronger) androgen in humans is
    Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
  85. DHT is a metabolite of
    testosterone
  86. Which cells are responsible for secreting testosterone?
    Leydig cells
  87. Which cells are responsible for secreting Mullerian-inhibiting substance (MIS)?
    Sertoli cells
  88. What ducts transform into the male ducts, and what causes them to do so?
    Wolffian ducts, led by testosterone
  89. What hormone is responsible for development of the penis, scrotum and prostate?
    Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
  90. What are the functions of Sertoli cells?
    • 1. production of MIS
    • 2. "nurse" cells for spermatogensis
    • 3. provide barrier to chemicals/toxins in the plasma
    • 4. secrete luminal fluid including androgen-binding protein
    • 5. Secrete inhibin (which inhibits FSH secretion)
    • 6. Secrete paracrine agents to influence Leydig cells
    • 7. Phagocytize defective sperm
  91. What is the effect of inhibin on the pituitary gland?
    Inhibits FSH secretion from the pituitary gland
  92. What causes differentiation of fetal gonads to female anatomy?
    the absence of the SRY gene
  93. What androgen is responsible for puberty, and where is it secreted?
    DHEA, adrenal gland
  94. What is a SERM?
    Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators - drug used in hormone replacement therapy.
  95. What is the purpose of Leydig cells?
    secrete testosterone (esp to Sertoli cells to stimulate spermatogenesis)
  96. What is the purpose of the epididymis?
    Transport sperm out of the testes, location of the maturation of sperm
  97. What is the purpose of the seminal vesicles?
    Add fluid to semen
  98. What is the purpose of Theca cells?
    Nurture the developing germ cell by secreting testosterone, which the granulosa turns into estrogen
  99. What is the purpose of the myometrium?
    The muscles involved in uterine contractions
  100. What is pre-eclampsia?
    • toxemia of pregnancy
    • increase in blood volume, CO, TPR (MAP remains constant)
    • damage to endothelial cells
  101. During pregnancy, how are the following affected?
    1. blood volume, CO, TPR
    2. MAP
    3. ventilation and P(CO2)
    4. metabolism
    • 1. blood volume, CO, and TPR increase
    • 2. MAP remains constant
    • 3. hyperventilation and lower P(CO2)
    • 4. increased metabolic rate - increase in appetite, nutritional requirements, thirst, removal of toxins (vomiting)
  102. What are the feedback effects of estrogen?
    • In low concentrations, exerts negative feedback on FSH and LH secretion in anterior pituitary (early and middle follicular phase)
    • When increased dramatically (prior to ovulation), exerts positive feedback on LH and FSH (and GnRH), causing the LH surge
  103. What are the feedback effects of inhibin?
    Inhibits secretion of FSH in the pituitary gland
  104. What are the feedback effects of progesterone?
    • In high concentrations (in the presence of estrogen), exerts negative feedback on GnRH secretion (causing inhibition of FSH and LH secretion)
    • occurs during the luteal phase and pregnancy
  105. What is GnRH?
    Gonadotropin releasing hormone - stimulates pituitary to secrete FSH and LH
  106. What is gynecomastia?
    Formation of breast tissue on male, caused by steroid use, alcohol abuse, Klinefelter's

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