Bio 110 Final

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  1. The continued existence of as many species as possible provides what kinds of value to humans?
    All of the above are correct.
  2. The single greatest current threat to biodiversity is _____.
    habitat destruction due to human activities
  3. ____________ species are those that humans intentionally or accidentally move from the species' native locations to new geographic regions.
  4. The study and protection of biological diversity is __________.
    conservation biology
  5. Which of the following systems has the highest level of species richness and endemic species?
    tropical rain forests
  6. You arrive back in the U.S. after having visited a foreign country located on another continent. The customs agent stops the person in front of you and confiscates the fruit basket this person is bringing home. Being the knowledgeable person you are, you calmly explain to your enraged fellow traveler that the reason for the detainment is that the fruit basket may be ______.
    carrying an exotic species that could damage North American ecosystems
  7. Introduced species can have important effects on biological communities by ______.
    doing all of these
  8. Why might introduced species flourish in their nonnative habitat?
    The nonnative habitat may lack predators that recognize the introduced species as prey.
  9. The nonnative habitat may lack predators that recognize the introduced species as prey
    All of the choices are likely to result from an increase in global atmospheric temperature of as little as 2 percent.
  10. Which of the following is not a likely consequence of the thinning of the ozone layer?
    All of the choices are likely consequences of the thinning of the ozone layer
  11. A species’ chances of becoming extinct are increased when its geographic range is _____________, its local population size is _____________, and it habitat tolerance is _______________.
    restricted; small; narrow
  12. Background extinction rates tend to:
    have decreased over the past 500 million years.
  13. The current mass extinction is __________
    both of the above are correct statements
  14. ___________ is a narrow strip or series of small clumps of quality habitat connecting otherwise isolated patches.
    movement  corridors
  15. Biodiversity _________________ have been identified based on high biodiversity and imminent threats caused by human activities
  16. Though still important, which of the following is NOT one of the causes of extinction?
    all of the above are causes of extinction
  17. Which of the following industries may lead to overexploitation of resources?
    All of the above are correct.
  18. Acid precipitation dissolves _________________ in soil and carries the dissolved metal—which is toxic to animals—into lakes and streams, where it can kill most forms of aquatic animal life.
  19. Over the last 200 years, the amount of CO2 in the air has:
    Both a) and b) are correct.
  20. Ozone depletion is a cause for concern because:
    without the protection against solar radiation provided by ozone, rates of skin cancer are likely to increase.
  21. ____________________ is responsible for the greatest loss of tropical forests.
  22. Classifying animals as endangered or threatened:
    Both b) and c) are correct.
  23. An umbrella species:
    is a species whose protection results in the protection of many other species as well.
  24. Which of the following statements about habitat loss is CORRECT?
    Fragmented habitats can only support small populations of the species living in them.
  25. A species that can engender significant public support for conservation of other species and the ecosystem they all inhabit is called:
    a flagship species.
  26. Which of the following is abiotic
    a rock
  27. An ecosystem:
    consists of all of the living and non-living things functioning together in an area.
  28. The distribution of terrestrial biomes across the globe corresponds MOST to which of the following?
  29. Which of the following BEST defines a biome?
    areas with distinct plant communities and associated with particular climates
  30. What is the primary source of energy for nearly all of Earth's ecosystems?
  31. ____________ and __________ are the major factors that determine climate
    Temperature; precipitation
  32. Populations of two coexisting species both only feed at the third tophic level.  What relationship may exist between these two organisms?
  33. How does energy flow differ from chemical cycling?
    Energy flow is unidirectional; chemical elements can be recycledQuestion 9
  34. Bears eat berries, humans and large fish; large fish eat smaller fish and insects; humans eats bears, large fish and berries; venus fly traps eat insects.  The scenario described here is an example of ___________ .
    food web
  35. The term “rain shadow” describes:
    the lower average rainfall that occurs on the backside of mountains.
  36. Omnivores:
    are never found in the first trophic level.
  37. Roughly how much energy in a trophic level is available to the next trophic level
  38. Humans are ___________ .
  39. Why are most energy pyramids limited to three to five levels?
    There is insufficient energy to support more trophic levels.
  40. The main abiotic reservoir for carbon is _____________ .
  41. Populations of two coexisting species both only feed at the third trophic level. What relationship may exist between these two organisms?
  42. Organisms at the first trophic level are ______.
    primary producers
  43. In the food chain grass  antelope  human  lion, the antelope is ______.
    both an herbivore and a primary consumer
  44. Organisms play a significant role in:
    Organisms play a significant role in all of the above.
  45. Over the last 200 years, the amount of CO2 in the air has:
    Both a) and b) are correct.
  46. The American Kestrel (Falco sparverius) and the Common Kestrel (Falco tinnunculus) are found on different continents; however, both hunt for small mammals and birds in open country. Therefore, these two species:
    occupy similar niches.
  47. The “competitive exclusion principle” states that:
    no two species competing for the same resources can stably coexist.
  48. The monarch butterfly uses ___________________ as a defense for reducing predation.
    warning coloration
  49. In a commensal relationship:
    one species benefits while the other neither benefits nor is harmed.
  50. Keystone species:
    play an unusually important role in determining the species composition in a habitat.
  51. When more than two members of the same species live in the same place at the same time, they constitute:
    a population.
  52. When determining the growth rate of a population, which of the following are NOT important?
    starting population size
  53. A population with a higher death rate than birth rate may still have positive growth. This statement is:
    correct; if immigration rates plus birth rates are greater than death rate plus emigration rate, population growth will still be positive even if birth rate is lower than death rate alone.
  54. On average, which leaves more offspring that survive to become adults and reproduce: a pair of elephants or a pair of rabbits?
    If both populations are stable, then the pair of elephants and the pair of rabbits will leave the same number of offspring that survive to become adults and reproduce.
  55. A population with an S-shaped growth curve is said to exhibit _____________ growth.
  56. Which of the following is NOT an example of a density-dependent limiting factor that will influence carrying capacity?
  57. Population density is determined by the number of:
    individuals of a species in a given area.
  58. Life histories are based on:
    all the above
  59. A organisms with a slow development and a high investment in their young will most likely have a __________ survivorship curve.
    Type 1
  60. What type of survivorship curve do humans have?
    Type 1
  61. A survivorship curve that had low survivorship in the beginning and stabilized after high initial mortality would be characteristic for which type of organism?
  62. A population pyramid:
    reflects the number of individuals in various age groups in a population.
  63. A population pyramid that gets wider in shape with higher age groups represents _____ while a population pyramid with nearly parallel lines represents _____.
    declining growth; stationary growth
  64. A primary difference in the age-pyramids of industrialized versus third-world countries is that:
    third-world countries have much larger proportions of their population in the youngest age group.Question 15
  65. Approximately what is the current size of the human population?
    7 billion
  66. Approximately what was the human population of the world in the year 1950?
    2.5 billion
  67. What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?
  68. What is a population?
    a group of organisms of the same species isolated in space and time
  69. Which of these is NOT a population?
    all of the organisms living in your home
  70. In the absence of limiting factors, what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble
  71. In the presence of limiting factors, what shape does a population's growth curve most closely resemble?
  72. ______ is the number of individuals of a species that a particular habitat can support.
    Carrying capacity
  73. Which of the following is a major trade-off in life histories?
    growth for reproduction
  74. A population pyramid:
    represents the number of individuals in various age groups in a population
  75. The primary difference between the age pyramids of industrialized and developing countries is that:
    in developing countries, much larger proportions of the population are in the youngest age groups
  76. Which of the following terms includes all of the others in the list?
    vascular plant
  77. Which of the following is a significant new challenge plants faced in moving to land that they had not faced in their aquatic environment?
  78. Which is the best brief description of the vascular system of the very first terrestrial plants?
    The first plants did not develop a vascular system.
  79. Both mosses and ferns must have free standing water present (e.g., water droplets) in order to fulfill their requirements for fertilization. Which of the following choices is the most likely explanation for why this would be?
    Both mosses and ferns have motile male gametes that require water to travel to the female gametes.
  80. The ferns possess all of the following EXCEPT:
  81. Early seed plants were pollinated by:
  82. A seed is:
    an embryonic plant with its own supply of water and nutrients encased within a protective coating.
  83. The evolution of seeds allowed for:
    plants to colonize dryer climates
  84. The common term for the action of transferring pollen grains from an anther onto a stigma is:
  85. Which of the following is NOT an example of a gymnosperm
  86. Which of the following most clearly defines the process of pollination?
    They are wind-pollinated.
  87. Which of the following is NOT a structural characteristic that allow conifers to grow taller and reach older ages than any other plants?
    water distribution throughout plant by diffusion
  88. The world's tallest and longest-lived trees are:
  89. In angiosperms the _______________ are the specialized reproductive organs whose main function is to bring together the sperm and egg.
  90. In the human body:
    there are more microbial cells than human cells.
  91. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about microbes?
    Microbes are not genetically diverse.
  92. Viruses are most closely related, in that they share a common ancestor, to which domain of life?
    Viruses are not considered to be part of the tree of life.
  93. ________________ is added to milk to make yogurt.
  94. Pathogenic bacteria are bacteria that:
    cause disease.
  95. Antibiotics have no effect on:
  96. All fungi are multicellular, but some also have an unicellular form that is called:
  97. The closest relative to fungi are ___________.
  98. The cell wall of fungi is made of:
  99. Members of the Archaea have been observed most commonly:
    in very extreme (with respect to temperature, salinity, pressure, etc.) environments.
  100. All animals:
    are heterotrophic.
  101. The most ancient branching point in the phylogeny of animals is the one that distinguishes between having:AnswerSelected Answer:  true tissues or no tissues.Correct Answer:  The most ancient branching point in the phylogeny of animals is the one that distinguishes between having:
    true tissues or no tissues.
  102. Which of the following statements about animal nervous systems is CORRECT?
    All taxonomic groups of animals have nervous systems EXCEPT sponges.
  103. Some general evolutionary change trends in animals include:
    larger body size, bilateral symmetry, and an enclosed, fluid-filled body cavity.
  104. According to Darwin:
    it is improper to view any species as higher or lower than any other species.
  105. Why is the amniotic egg considered a key evolutionary innovation?
    It greatly increases the survival probabilities of eggs in a terrestrial environment.
  106. Which of the following are chordates?
    all of the above are chordates
  107. Lampreys and hagfishes:
    are the only living jawless vertebrates.
  108. Sharks have ________________ skeletons, while salmon have _______________ skeletons.
    cartilaginous; bony
  109. In what order do the following taxa appear in the fossil record?
    invertebrates, fish, land plants, amphibians
  110. The two most important evolutionary innovations in vertebrates, which resulted in their eventual domination of the large animal niches, were:
    evolution of jaws and amniotic eggs.
  111. Which came first, the chicken or the egg?
    The egg, because the amniotic egg evolved well before the first bird.
  112. Birds are most closely related to:
  113. Birds are ___________________, while turtles are _________________.
    endotherms; ectotherms
  114. Which of the following is NOT a reptile?
  115. Two important features that distinguish mammals from any other type of animal are:
    hair and mammary glands.
  116. The bat's wing is NOT homologous to which of the following?
    the dragonfly's wing
  117. Most species of animals are:
  118. Which order of insects has the highest species diversity, more than that of any other order in animals?
  119. All arthropods have:AnswerSelected Answer:  a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.Correct Answer:  a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.
    a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages.
  120. All of the following are insects EXCEPT:
  121. Which animal phylum lacks true tissues?
    Porifera (sponges)
  122. In what order did the following structures or processes evolve?
    prokaryotic cell, photosynthesis, multicellularity, terrestriality
  123. In terms of their adaptation to living on land, how are reptiles similar to the seed plants?
    Seed plants and reptiles have developed structures such as cuticles and impermeable skin in order to minimize water loss.
  124. Reptiles show numerous adaptations for a completely terrestrial life cycle. One adaptation that first occurred in the reptiles includes:
    the amniotic egg.
  125. Which of the following would occur due to a geographic separation keeping members of one species from interacting with one another?
    allopatric speciation
  126. Sympatric refers to
    population of zebras living in the same geographical area
  127. In plants _______________ is a common form of sympatric speciation.
  128. Phase 1 of the creation of life on earth was _____________________. Phase 2 was the formation of self-replicating, information-containing molecules. Phase 3 was the development of a membrane, which enabled metabolism and created the first cells
    the formation of small molecules containing carbon and hydrogen
  129. Which of the following is(are) characteristics of punctuated equilibrium?
    all of the above
  130. Which of the following is TRUE about bacteria?
    Only a small fraction of bacteria cause disease
  131. What is the approximate age of the earth?
    4.6 billion years
  132. Researchers have found that mixtures of phospholipids placed in water or salt solutions tend to spontaneously form:
    small spherical units that resemble living cells
  133. Horses and donkeys can breed and produce sterile offspring known as mules. Horses and donkeys remain separate species because of this hybrid sterility, which is:
    a postzygotic barrier to reproduction.
  134. On what basis are populations assigned to the same biological species?
    they can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
  135. When brought together in a zoo, two species are capable of mating and producing fertile offspring. Why may they still be considered two distinct species?
    Zoos are artificial environments.
  136. A generation to generation change in the population's frequencies of alleles is called, ______.
  137. A reproductive barrier that prevents species from mating is an example of ______.
    nswer:  a pre-zygotic barrier
  138. The evolutionary history of groups of organisms is known as:
  139. A population of organisms that breaks away and becomes different from the original population through isolation and separate evolution might eventually become a separate:
  140. Which of the following is a pair of closely related homologous features?
    bear paw and bat wing
  141. Speciation requires ______.
    genetic isolation
  142. A pattern of evolution in which most change in appearance takes place during a relatively short period of time fits the ______ model of speciation.
    punctuated equilibrium
  143. Macroevolution includes all of the following except
    adaptation of populations over the short term.
  144. The current mass extinction is believed to be primarily caused by:
    human actions.
  145. Darwin argued that modern species developed by, _________________ .
    the preservation of favorable variations and the loss of unfavorable ones from a population
  146. Natural selection ______.
    results in evolutionary adaptation
  147. Which of the following is a population?
    the termites infesting your house
  148. The smallest unit of evolution is the ______.
  149. Evolution occurs:
    only via natural selection, genetic drift, migration, or mutation.
  150. While searching through a book store you come across a book entitled 'Voyage of the Beagle'.  This book is about;
    :  Darwin's journey to explore the world
  151. The origin of all genetic variation is:
  152. When a sudden change in the environment, such as a flood or a fire, reduces the size of a population, the survivors’ collective gene pool becomes only a limited representation of what was present before the disaster. This phenomenon is called:
    the bottleneck effect.
  153. Genetic drift is the result of ______.
  154. After surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?
    The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
  155. The founder effect differs from a population bottleneck in that the founder effect ______.
    involves the isolation of a small colony of individuals from a larger population
  156. Gene flow is accomplished by ______.
  157. A storm washed 5 female and 5 male tiger beetles from the mainland to a small island that had no previous population of tiger beetles. In tiger beetles, having six spots (A) is dominant to having four spots (a). All 10 beetles had six spots, but 1 male and 1 female were heterozygous for the four-spot trait. If 6 of the beetles died randomly without reproducing, the ratio of the genotypes could be quite different in subsequent generations. This change in allele frequencies would be an example of:
    genetic drift.
  158. Natural selection can only act on traits:
    that are heritable.
  159. Artificial selection was used on corn to produce a single strain of corn with increased growth rates and greater resistance to a fungus. Although farmers have continued to select for these traits, the productivity of this strain is no longer increasing. This suggests that:
    all or most of the natural variation for these traits has been eliminated.
  160. Which of the following is the best measure of an organism’s fitness?
    the number of fertile offspring it produces
  161. “Survival of the fittest” may be a misleading phrase to describe the process of evolution by natural selection because:
    survival matters less to natural selection than reproductive success does.
  162. A population’s environment sometimes changes too quickly for natural selection to adapt the individuals in the population to the environment. In these situations:
    extinction occurs during the following generation.
  163. _____________ selection favors organisms with phenotypes that are at one extreme relative to the average phenotype
  164. Until the middle of the 19th century, all peppered moths (Biston betularia) observed around Manchester, England, were light in color. In 1845, a single black peppered moth was reported. As Manchester became more industrialized and dark soot began to cover the bark of the trees, the frequency of black moths increased greatly. The change in proportion of light and dark forms resulted from:
    directional selection.
  165. True-breeding plants ______.
    self-fertilize to produce offspring identical to the parent
  166. Alleles are decribed as _________________ .
    alternate forms of the same gene
  167. A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. All of the seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
    The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.
  168. A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds to produce F1 plants that have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 x F1 cross?
  169. Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
  170. Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What phenotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
  171. Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
  172. What is the phenotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
  173. An individual who is homozygous ______.
    carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
  174. Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
    AA x aa
  175. In order to determine the genotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who ______.
    is homozygous recessive for that trait
  176. A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?
  177. What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?
    The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
  178. An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate, all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. What is the relationship between the alleles for hair texture?
    incomplete dominance
  179. What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
    The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
  180. Genes are carried on ______.
  181. The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.
  182. A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
  183. Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
  184. Which of the following does NOT occur during interphase?
    chromatin becomes tightly coiled
  185. The cell cycle results in the production of ______
    two diploid cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
  186. A karyotype reveals:
    the number, shape and sizes of chromosomes in an individual
  187. Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?
  188. The correct sequence of the stages of the cell cycle is ______.
    interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
  189. What type of chromosomal abnormality leads to the phenotype known as Down syndrome?
    trisomy 21
  190. Which of these are benefits of sexual reproduction?
    all of the above
  191. Which of the following are characteristics of cancer cells?
    all of the above are correct
  192. A cell that completed the cell cycle WITHOUT undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
    have two nuclei
  193. During which stage of the cell cycle does cytokinesis usually occur?
  194. What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?
    Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.
  195. You decide that you want to die of cancer. Which of these will help you achieve your goal?
    avoid colonoscopies and other early screening procedures
  196. Homologous chromosomes ______.
    carry the same gene sequence
  197. What is the sex chromosome complement of a normal human male?
  198. How many autosomes do humans have?
  199. Chromosomes that do not determine sex are called ______.
  200. Asexual reproduction _____.
    produces offspring genetically identical to the parent
  201. Replication of all the chromosomal DNA occurs _____.
    before a cell divides
  202. A benign tumor is a condition in which the cells _____.
    remain confined to their original site
  203. With the exception of the gametes, a human cell contains _____ chromosomes.
  204. Mitosis and cytokinesis result in the formation of ______; meiosis and cytokinesis result in the formation of ________.
    ploid cells ... four haploid cellsCorrect Answer:  two diploid cells ... four haploid cells
  205. DNA is a macromolecule made up of repeating ____________ .
  206. Which nitrogenous base is not contained within DNA?
  207. In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
    thymine . . . cytosine
  208. If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand?
  209. X-rays and ultraviolet rays from the sun can result in
  210. Avoiding sunburns, smoking, and radiation can help prevent _________ which can lead to _____________ .
    mutations, cancer
  211. What is recombinant DNA?
    DNA that carries genes from different organisms
  212. What process describes the development of corn from the ancestral variety to the modern variety pictured here?
    genetic engineering
  213. Which of the following are examples of how biotechnology has impacted modern food?
    all of the above are examples of biotechnology
  214. Gel electrophoresis seperates DNA fragments on the basis of differences in their ______.
  215. Ethical dilemmas raised by DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome include ______.
    All of the choices are issues raised by current DNA technology and knowledge of the human genome.
  216. "Golden rice" is golden because it is rich in ______.
  217. Nuclear transplantation involves replacing nuclei of egg cells with nuclei from a differentiated (or adult) cell, this has been used to _____________ .
    clone animals
  218. Hamster ovaries now produce large amounts of __________________ used to treat anemia in people.
    human erythropoietin
  219. Cells that have the ability to develop into any type of cell in the body are called ___________ .
    stem cells
  220. Electrophoresis is used to _____.
    separate fragments of DNA
  221. The physical appearance of an organism due to the specific genes that individual has is called the ____________.
  222. The sequence of  bases in a DNA molecule that carries the information necessary for producing a functional produce is called a(n) _____________ .
  223. These steps, remove nucleus from an egg, replace nucleus with one from an adult animal cell, initiate cell division... are used in the process of _________________ .
  224. Select the option that list the terms from most to least inclusive.
    genome, chromosome, gene
  225. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria, and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce sugar, which _______________ converts to ATP, the "fuel" used by all living things.
  226. Life gains most of its energy from:
  227. Which one of the following statements best represents the relationship between respiration and photosynthesis?
    Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, while respiration releases it.
  228. Potential energy:
    is contained in matter placed in certain positions or arrangements.
  229. Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy?
    a covalent bond linking phosphate molecules
  230. Every time a source of energy is converted from one form to another:
    some of the energy is converted to heat, which is one of the least usable forms of kinetic energy.
  231. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is constant; it can ____________________, but not _______________.
    be transferred and transformed; created or destroyed
  232. When ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP, what happens?
    One phosphate is removed.
  233. Each ATP molecule is composed of three separate subunits. Which of the following is NOT a proper description of one of these subunits?
    three carbon-nitrogen rings
  234. Which of the following sequences accurately represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
    H2O --> NADPH --> Calvin cycle
  235. Which of the following is NOT a product of photosynthesis?
    carbon dioxide
  236. A green plant can carry out photosynthesis if given nothing more than:
    water, light, and air.
  237. Carotenoids:
    are accessory pigments in chloroplasts that protect the chlorophyll by absorbing excessive light energy.
  238. Aerobic bacteria:
    lack mitochondria.
  239. Anaerobic mammals:
    do not exist.
  240. Cellular respiration is the process by which:
    energy from the chemical bonds of food molecules is captured by an organism.
  241. Glycolysis:
    occurs in all cells
  242. Three different metabolic pathways are responsible for the production of ATP. What are they?
    glycolysis, the reactions on the electron transport chain, and the Krebs (citric acid) cycle
  243. Which of the following energy-generating processes is the only one that occurs in all living organisms?
  244. Energy used in cellular respiration can originate from:
    carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
  245. Fermentation reactions generally occur under conditions of:
    low oxygen concentrations.
  246. All alcoholic beverages are produced as the result of:
    cellular respiration by yeast occurring in the absence of oxygen.
  247. In cellular respiration:
    all of the above are correct
  248. Which of the following statements about fermentation is NOT correct?
    All of the above are correct.
  249. Which of the following statements about glycolysis is INCORRECT?
    It requires oxygen.
  250. What theory states that all living things are composed of cells?
    cell theory
  251. The two basic types of cells are ______ and ______.
    . . . eukaryotic
  252. The difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ______ prokaryotic cells.
    have a nucleus, which is lacking in
  253. Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane?
    regulation of the passage of material into and out of the cell
  254. In eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane?
  255. You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall. Therefore, you conclude that it must be a ______ cell.
  256. ______ are the major lipids of plasma membranes.
  257. Why, when mixed with water, do phospholipids spontaneously form membranes?
    Phospholipids have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water.
  258. A single celled organism contains pili, a nucleod region, and ribosomes.  What type of cell is this organism?
  259. The nuclear membrane is composed of ______.
    a double membrane
  260. Which of the following organelles is NOT defined by a membrane?
  261. Where does protein synthesis take place?
    on ribosomes
  262. Based on its function in detoxifying drugs, you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ______ cells.
  263. Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
    protein synthesis
  264. Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus?
    protein modification
  265. Lysosomes are responsible for ______.
    intracellular digestion
  266. As a(n) ______ is to a cell, a(n) ______ is to a multicellular organism.
    lysosome . . . digestive system
  267. Vacuoles are ______.
    membranous sacs
  268. Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ______.
    cell wall and central vacuole
  269. Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?
  270. The nucleus contains _________ and ______________ .
    chromatin, nucleolus
  271. A bacterial cell's DNA is found in its ______ . Hint - a bacteria cell is a prokaryotic cell.
    nucleoid region
  272. Bacteria are examples of ______ cells.
  273. Which of the following is a correct statement about cilia and flagella?
    cilia and flagella are motile appendages, they allow a cell to be able to move around its environment
  274. Which of the following are correct statements are the cytoskeleton of a cell?
    all of the above are correct statements
  275. An atom with a positive charge has ______.
    more protons than electrons
  276. All atoms of an element have the same number of ______.
  277. An atom's protons are found in its ______.
  278. The second electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of ______ electron(s).
  279. Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7; therefore it has ______ electrons in its outermost electron shell and is considered a ___________ molecule.
    5, unstable
  280. An atom with an an electrical charge is a(n) ______.
  281. The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n) ______ bond.
  282. What name is given to bonds that involve the sharing of electrons?
  283. The type of bonds joining adjacent water molecules are ______ bonds.
  284. How are adjacent water molecules connected?
    by the electrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule
  285. The simplest unit of matter that still retains the properties of an element is a(n) _____.
  286. Carbohydrates are defined as ______.
    being made of C, H, and O in a 1:2:1 ratio
  287. Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?
  288. A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ______.
  289. What are saturated fats saturated with?
  290. By definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds?
  291. ______ is a steroid.
  292. Proteins are macromolecules constructed from ______ building blocks.
    amino acid
  293. A protein's function is dependent on its ______.
  294. Nucleic acids are macromolecules of ______ building blocks.
  295. A fat that is hydrogenated is ______.
    A  more solid
  296. Cellulose is an example of a ______.
  297. The numbers listed represent the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
  298. The reason water is a solid at 0 degrees C is;
    together into a crystalline like structure
  299. Which of the following functions to increase the rate that chemical reactions occur at?
  300. What is biology?
    the study of life
  301. Which of the following is not a characteristic of life.
  302. Which of these statements is correct?
    Scientific ideas are subjected to rigorous and repeated testing.
  303. The changes that occur as a result of the interactions between organisms and their environment is called _____________>
  304. What is a hypothesis?
    a proposed explanation
  305. Organisms require an input of energy in order to sustain life. We need to eat food that we then break down to release energy. We use the energy for muscle contractions, maintaining body temperature, etc.  The previous statement refers to
    Energy Utilization
  306. In a scientific experiment, what is the function of the control group?
    The control group serves as a basis of comparison with the experimental group.
  307. How do hypotheses differ from theories?
    Theories are more comprehensive than hypotheses.
  308. An ________________ is when a person noticies some natural event of interest.  >
  309. Science itself is NOT capable of _____.
    addressing questions of ethical dilemmas
  310. Which of these is a scientific hypothesis?
    My excessive urination may mean that I have high blood pressure.
  311. Two garden plots were planted with corn. The soil was similar in each, and equal amounts of water were applied to each plot. One plot was fertilized, the other was not. The experimenters measured the yield as bushels of corn from each plot. The plot that did not receive the fertilizer was the _____.
    control plot
  312. A hypothesis must be testable to be scientifically valid. Being testable means that _____.
    :  some conceivable observation could prove the hypothesis incorrect
  313. The statement that living organisms are composed of cells is called _________ .
    Cell Theory
  314. The best method for determining whether bean plants require sodium is to _____.
    grow bean plants with and without sodium
  315. A researcher is interested in knowing the impact of a new drug on blood pressure levels.  The researcher has two groups of people.  One group is receiving the new drug while the second group is receiving a placebo.  The placebo acts as the _________________ in this experiment.
  316. Which of the following is an underlying theme that ties together various topics of biology?
  317. ______________ occurs when individuals make scientifica-sounding claims that are not supported by trustworthy; methodical scientific studies.
  318. Which of the following is a correct statement?
    Dependent variable the outcome or measured data and represented on the y-axis
  319. Double blind is a technique used to control ____________ in experiments.
Card Set
Bio 110 Final
Final exam review
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