Management 3

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Management 3
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Management 3
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  1. 1. Intellectual capital can be defined as
    A. the development of an organisational training program to increase information learning
    B. the shared knowledge of a workforce that can be used to create wealth
    C. a plan to promote higher education through annual fund raising events
    D. the concentration of wealth in technologically advanced countries
    E. the use of new ideas to create a competitive advantage by producing high quality products
    B. the shared knowledge of a workforce that can be used to create wealth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. 2. __________ is the ability to utilise computers and information technology to locate, retrieve, evaluate, organise and analyse information for decision making.
    A. Intellectual capital
    B. Knowledge management
    C. Computer competency
    D. Decision support management
    E. Information competency
    E. Information competency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. 3. Which of the following statements accurately describes the impact of information technology on organisations?
    a. More information about more things is being made available to more people in organisations more quickly than ever before.
    b. Since knowledge is an irreplaceable resource, organisations should always seek to grow and create intellectual capital.
    c. To compete successfully in an unforgiving business environment, companies must find new and faster ways of sharing critical information and leveraging knowledge resources.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above.
    d. All of the above.
  4. 4. The combination of computer hardware, software, networks and databases that allow information to be shared, stored and manipulated is known as
    A. information technology
    B. intellectual capital
    C. computer competency
    D. information competency
    E. the electronic office
    A. information technology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. 5. The use of computers and related information technologies to electronically facilitate operations in an office environment is known as the
    A. electronic office
    B. modern office
    C. office of the future
    D. information office
    E. administrative office
    A. electronic office
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. 6. Companies that invest in information technology in the quest for competitive advantage can expect to benefit through
    a. lower costs
    b. improved customer services
    c. better quality
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above
    d. all of the above
  7. 7. The increasing use of information technology (IT) can help organisations better manage relationships with their environments in which of the following ways?
    a. IT helps organisations take care of their customers.
    b. IT helps organisations work well with their resource suppliers.
    c. IT helps build and manage relationships with strategic partners.
    d. All of the above are ways that IT can help organisations manage relationships with their environments.
    e. None of the above is a way that IT can help organisations manage relationships with their environments.
    d. All of the above are ways that IT can help organisations manage relationships with their environments.
  8. 8. __________ is the process of buying and selling goods electronically through the use of the Internet and related information technologies.
    A. Robotics
    B. Electronic commerce
    C. The electronic office
    D. Information management
    E. Information management
    B. Electronic commerce
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. 9. Which of the following sequence of stages accurately describes the stages of development in e-commerce?
    A. Secure an online identity, utilise a service application model, enable e-commerce, establish a web presence, and provide e-commerce and customer relationship management.
    B. Utilise a service application model, secure an online identity, establish a web presence, provide e-commerce and customer relationship management, and enable e-commerce.
    C. Establish a web presence, enable e-commerce, secure an online identity, utilise a service application model, and provide e-commerce and customer relationship management.
    D. Secure an online identity, establish a web presence, enable e-commerce, provide eand customer relationship management, and utilise a service application model.
    E. Establish a web presence, secure an online identity, enable e-commerce, utilise a service application model, and provide e-commerce and customer relationship management.
    D. Secure an online identity, establish a web presence, enable e-commerce, provide eand customer relationship management, and utilise a service application model.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. 10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of useful information?
    A. The information will enable the user to be involved in making decisions and increase the likelihood of his/her commitment to those decisions.
    B. The information is accurate and reliable.
    C. The information is available when needed.
    D. The information is complete and sufficient for the task at hand.
    E. The information is appropriate for the task at hand.
    A. The information will enable the user to be involved in making decisions and increase the likelihood of his/her commitment to those decisions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. 11. Useful information has the characteristics of
    A. timeliness, quality, completeness, relevance and acceptance
    B. timeliness, quantity, quality, completeness and acceptance
    C. timeliness, quantity, completeness, relevance and understandability
    D. timeliness, completeness, relevance, applicability and acceptance
    E. timeliness, quality, completeness, relevance and understandability
    E. timeliness, quality, completeness, relevance and understandability
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 12. A good information system provides managers with 'intelligence information' concerning the
    A. activities of non-managerial personnel.
    B. the activities of key subunits within the organisation.
    C. the historical record of the organisation's performance accomplishments.
    D. the scores of job applicants on aptitude tests.
    E. the activities of a variety of outside parties in the organisation's external environment.
    E. the activities of a variety of outside parties in the organisation's external environment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 13. Information systems are becoming increasingly important to organisations for the purpose of image building. Which of the following describes the type of information that is useful for image building?
    A. Public information
    B. Marketing information
    C. Intelligence information
    D. Customer feedback
    E. Sales information
    A. Public information
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 14. Which level of management uses information to formulate strategies, objectives, and long-term plans; to develop policies; and to make strategic decisions?
    A. Middle managers
    B. All levels of management
    C. First-level managers
    D. Top and middle managers
    E. Top managers
    E. Top managers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. 15. Common information systems mistakes include all of the following EXCEPT which one?
    A. Don't assume that the computer can replace human judgement.
    B. Don't assume that everyone understands computer etiquette.
    C. Don't assume that the newest technology is always best.
    D. Don't assume that everyone understands how an information system works.
    E. Don't assume that more information is always better.
    B. Don't assume that everyone understands computer etiquette.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 16. All but one of the following statements provides an accurate description of decision support systems. Which statement does NOT provide an accurate description?
    A. A decision support system uses special software to allow users to interact directly with a computer to help make decisions for solving complex and sometimes unstructured problems.
    B. A fast growing form of decision support systems utilises groupware to facilitate the interaction and work of team members who are on different shifts or are spread over large geographic distances.
    C. Continuing developments in the use of groupware are expanding the opportunities for use of virtual teams in organisations.
    D. Decision support systems are available to assist managers in such business decisions as mergers and acquisitions, plant expansions, new product development and stock portfolio management.
    E. A decision support system is the work team that assists a manager is evaluating decision alternatives.
    E. A decision support system is the work team that assists a manager is evaluating decision alternatives.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. 17. An interactive computer-based information system that facilitates the efforts of several people working together in solving complex and unstructured problems is a
    A. brainstorming support system.
    B. problem-solving system.
    C. group decision support system.
    D. communal information system.
    E. collective support system.
    C. group decision support system.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 18. The type of group decision support system that allows several people to simultaneously work on a file or database and work together on computer networks is called
    A. groupware.
    B. an informational link.
    C. a dynamic system.
    D. an interactive system.
    E. a team network.
    A. groupware.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 19. Which of the following statements accurately describes the advantages of groupware?
    A. Groupware facilitates the opportunity to create and use virtual teams.
    B. All of these statements accurately describe the advantages of groupware.
    C. Groupware facilitates information exchange, group decision making and work scheduling.
    D. Groupware facilitates group activities without the requirement of face-to-face meetings.
    E. Groupware facilitates work by team members who work different shifts or are dispersed geographically.
    B. All of these statements accurately describe the advantages of groupware.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 20. Computer programs that arise out of the field of artificial intelligence and help managers analyse and solve problems at a highly skilled or proficient level that mimics the thinking of human experts are called
    A. superior management software.
    B. expert systems.
    C. virtual reality systems.
    D. skilled programs.
    E. artificial systems.
    B. expert systems.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 21. An airlines company uses a computer-based system to assist in scheduling maintenance for planes. The system combines the knowledge and insights associated with aircraft landing schedules of approximately three dozen aircraft routing specialists. It uses about 500 decision rules to 'reason' on behalf of the users. This system is
    A. an old-fashioned idea in the computer field.
    B. not likely to work efficiently and effectively.
    C. designed to handle programmed decisions.
    D. an expert system.
    E. likely to replace the judgements of new managers.
    D. an expert system.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. 22. The goal of integrating computer systems and software into intranets is to
    A. enable more information to be stored in the systems.
    B. promote more integration across the organisation and improve operational effectiveness and efficiency.
    C. minimise data entry problems.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above.
    B. promote more integration across the organisation and improve operational effectiveness and efficiency.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. 23. Suppose that a field salesperson uses e-mail to send a customer's suggestion for a product modification to a product designer at company headquarters. After creating a computer-assisted design for the product, the designer uses the computer to pass it on simultaneously to engineering, manufacturing, finance and marketing experts for their preliminary analysis. This is an example of the use of a(n)
    A. data management system.
    B. enterprise-wide network.
    C. artificial intelligence network.
    D. expert system.
    E. macro software system.
    B. enterprise-wide network.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 24. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities influenced or enabled by extranets?
    A. Extranets enable companies to communicate electronically with one another in order to move and share documents such as purchase orders, bills, receipt confirmations, and even payments for services rendered.
    B. Extranets are major components in an organisation's linkages with suppliers and/or customers.
    C. Extranets are increasingly used to allow information transfers between two or more organisations.
    D. Extranets promote more integration within an organisation, thereby improving operational effectiveness and efficiency.
    E. Extranets provide the basic foundations for the fast-paced developments that are occurring in electronic commerce or e-business.
    D. Extranets promote more integration within an organisation, thereby improving operational effectiveness and efficiency.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. 25. __________ uses information technology (IT) to meet the information needs of managers as they make decisions on a daily basis.
    A. A management information system
    B. An enterprise-wide network
    C. An intranet
    D. An inter-organisational information system
    E. An extranet
    A. A management information system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 26. Information technology has numerous important effects on the manager's job. Which one of the following is NOT one of these effects?
    A. Any manager must act as a nerve centre of information flows, interacting with many sources in gathering, giving and receiving information.
    B. Managers should be devoted to implementing and maintaining the very best available information systems.
    C. Only the informational managerial role identified by Henry Minztberg involves communication and information processing.
    D. Managers must have a personal commitment to computer and information competency, and a willingness to utilise developments in information technology to best advantage.
    E. Managers use information to make decisions in fulfilling the management functions of planning, organising, leading and controlling.
    C. Only the informational managerial role identified by Henry Minztberg involves communication and information processing.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 27. The advantages of appropriate MIS utilisation include all of the following EXCEPT
    A. MIS utilisation allows for more ongoing and informed communication among all parts of the organisation, helping ensure better coordination and integration.
    B. MIS utilisation allows for greater reliance on computer and information technology in addressing the challenges faced by an organisation.
    C. MIS utilisation allows for better and timelier access to useful information, as well as for the involvement of many people in the planning process.
    D. MIS utilisation allows for better and more frequent communication with all organisation members and key environmental stakeholders.
    E. MIS utilisation allows for more immediate and complete measurement of performance results and real-time solutions to performance problems.
    B. MIS utilisation allows for greater reliance on computer and information technology in addressing the challenges faced by an organisation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. 28. A problem exists when there is a difference between __________ and __________.
    A. an actual situation, a potential situation.
    B. goals, objectives.
    C. an actual situation, and a desired situation.
    D. a past situation, the current situation.
    E. the financial bottom line in one quarter, the financial bottom line in the next quarter.
    C. an actual situation, and a desired situation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 29. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately characterise the nature of problems?
    A. The challenge in dealing with any problem is to proceed with effective problem solving.
    B. A performance opportunity occurs when an actual situation turns out either better than anticipated or offers the potential to be so.
    C. A problem refers to any difference between an actual situation and a desired situation.
    D. A problem refers to any difference between an uncertain situation and a perceived situation.
    E. A performance deficiency occurs when actual performance is less than desired performance.
    D. A problem refers to any difference between an uncertain situation and a perceived situation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 30. A company purchases a new computer system for the purpose of streamlining the processing of customer orders. The company's objective is to decrease processing time so that 98% of all orders are shipped within 24 hours of being received. After operating with the new system for three months, the company was shipping 92% of all orders within 24 hours. This situation is an example of a
    A. performance deficiency
    B. planning weakness
    C. work process weakness
    D. performance opportunity
    E. ethical situation
    A. performance deficiency
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. 31. A __________ occurs when an actual situation turns out either better than anticipated or offers the potential to be so.
    A. performance issue.
    B. management challenge.
    C. decision situation.
    D. performance opportunity.
    E. performance deficiency.
    D. performance opportunity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 32. Suppose a work process is changed with the intent of increasing output by 5%. After the first month of operation with the new work process, an output increase of 7% is reported. This is an example of a
    A. work process strength.
    B. ethical situation.
    C. performance deficiency.
    D. performance opportunity.
    E. planning strength.
    D. performance opportunity.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. 33. Problem solving and decision making are dependent on quality __________ being available to the right people at the right time.
    A. services
    B. goals
    C. products
    D. control
    E. information
    E. information
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 34. A(n) __________ is a choice among alternative possible courses of action.
    A. action plan
    B. decision
    C. performance opportunity
    D. performance deficiency
    E. problem
    B. decision
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 35. A good example of a programmed decision is to
    a. reorder inventory automatically when it falls to a certain level.
    b. place poor performing students on probation at a pre-established minimum grade average.
    c. initiate an external audit when charitable deductions reported on the tax form exceed a certain limit.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above.
    d. All of the above.
  36. 36. A(n) __________ is made when a new and unfamiliar problem arises and a novel solution is crafted to meet the demands of the unique situation at hand.
    A. programmed decision
    B. structured decision
    C. difficult decision
    D. non-programmed decision
    E. unstructured decision
    D. non-programmed decision
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 37. Which of the following is NOT a good example of a non-programmed decision situation?
    A. Assessing environmental changes and adjusting corporate strategy accordingly.
    B. Dealing with a massive equipment breakdown.
    C. Consideration of an employee's request for tuition reimbursement for a job-related course taken at the local community college.
    D. Evaluating different locations for setting up an overseas manufacturing facility.
    E. Dealing with an incident of workplace rage by a former employee.
    C. Consideration of an employee's request for tuition reimbursement for a job-related course taken at the local community college.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 38. Most higher-level managerial decision situations can be classified as
    A. systematic and behavioural.
    B. intuitive and functional.
    C. routine and administrative.
    D. non-routine and unstructured.
    E. classical and unexpected.
    D. non-routine and unstructured.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 39. An unexpected problem that can lead to disaster if not resolved quickly and appropriately is known as
    A. an unstructured problem.
    B. a structured problem.
    C. a non-programmed decision.
    D. a programmed decision.
    E. a crisis.
    E. a crisis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 40. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe an aspect of how managers should deal with a crisis?
    A. Most managers react to crisis situations by readily involving others in solving the problem.
    B. Information and teamwork are especially crucial in solving a crisis situation.
    C. Proactive managers try to identify those situations that are likely to be susceptible to a crisis, and then develop basic contingency plans for crisis management.
    D. A crisis may be made worse if critical decisions are made with poor or inadequate information and from a limited perspective.
    E. The ability to handle a crisis may be the ultimate test of a manager's problem-solving capabilities.
    A. Most managers react to crisis situations by readily involving others in solving the problem.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. 41. When managers are unable to even assign probabilities to the outcomes attached to various problem-solving alternatives,
    A. uncertainty exists.
    B. managers cannot rely on creativity.
    C. the planning system must rely on managers' intuition.
    D. a state of crisis exists.
    E. no solutions are possible.
    A. uncertainty exists.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 42. The ideal, but seldom achieved, condition for managerial problem solving is characterised by
    A. normality, because that is the condition under which all the business school principles work.
    B. low risk, because managers seek a little stimulation.
    C. certainty, because the manager simply has to locate the alternative offering the best solution.
    D. uncertainty, because that offers the greatest chance for creativity.
    E. high risk, because that is when high profits are possible.
    C. certainty, because the manager simply has to locate the alternative offering the best solution.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 43. When decision makers lack complete information but have some knowledge of the probabilities associated with the outcomes of various courses of action, they are operating in an environment of
    A. certainty.
    B. risk.
    C. uncertainty.
    D. equifinality.
    E. subjectivity.
    B. risk.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 44. The most difficult decision environment for any manager to deal with is
    A. probability.
    B. innovation.
    C. uncertainty.
    D. risk.
    E. certainty.
    C. uncertainty.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. 45. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
    A. Problem avoiders ignore information that would otherwise signal the presence of a problem.
    B. Problem solvers actively process information and look for problems to solve or opportunities to explore.
    C. Problem seekers try to solve problems as they arise.
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
    A. Problem avoiders ignore information that would otherwise signal the presence of a problem.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. 46. __________ are managers who try to solve problems but only when forced to by the situation.
    A. Problem solvers
    B. Problem seekers
    C. Active managers
    D. Problem avoiders
    E. Problem followers
    A. Problem solvers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. 47. Suppose retail sales are steadily dropping. Executive A says it is probably a seasonal drop and should be ignored. Executive B suggests convening a task force to analyse the situation before a decision is made. Executive C says the answer to the drop in sales is to conduct market research and possibly develop a new image for the store or revamp the marketing campaign to make the store more appealing to the consumer. Which of the following statements accurately describes the three executives' different styles for dealing with problems?
    A. A is a problem avoider; B is problem seeker; C is a problem solver.
    B. A is a problem avoider; B is a problem avoider; C is problem solver.
    C. A is a problem avoider; B is a problem solver; C is a problem seeker.
    D. A is a problem avoider; B is a problem seeker; C is a problem seeker.
    e. None of the above is accurate.
    C. A is a problem avoider; B is a problem solver; C is a problem seeker.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. 48. The president of a company anticipated the need for a new product line to replace other products that were reaching their maximum sales potential. This president could be described as a
    A. problem avoider.
    B. problem finder.
    C. problem solver.
    D. problem definer.
    E. problem seeker.
    E. problem seeker.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. 49. A person who approaches problems in a rational, step-by-step, and analytical fashion is engaging in @ Page 72. Factual.
    A. strategic opportunism.
    B. risk analysis.
    C. uncertainty analysis.
    D. intuitive thinking.
    E. systematic thinking.
    E. systematic thinking.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 50. Systematic thinkers are likely to
    A. break a complex problem into smaller components, make a plan before taking action, and search for information to facilitate problem solving in a step-by-step fashion.
    B. make a plan for solving a problem but explore and abandon alternatives very quickly.
    C. broadly and quickly evaluate the problem situation and the possible alternative course of action.
    D. rely on nonverbal cues and hunches to solve problems.
    E. deal with many aspects of a problem simultaneously, consider hunches and jump quickly from one issue to another.
    A. break a complex problem into smaller components, make a plan before taking action, and search for information to facilitate problem solving in a step-by-step fashion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. 51. __________ is the capacity to view many problems at once, in relationship to one another, and across long and short time horizons.
    A. Intuitive thinking
    B. Expert thinking
    C. Strategic thinking
    D. Multidimensional thinking
    E. Alternative thinking
    D. Multidimensional thinking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. 52. Intuitive thinkers are likely to do all of the following EXCEPT
    A. consider a number of alternatives and options simultaneously.
    B. solve problems in a step-by-step fashion.
    C. broadly and quickly evaluate a problem situation.
    D. explore and abandon alternatives very quickly.
    E. consider hunches and jump quickly from one issue to another.
    B. solve problems in a step-by-step fashion.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. 53. Managers should use __________ in high uncertainty situations where limited facts and few decision precedents exist.
    A. intuitive thinking
    B. the nominal group technique
    C. systematic thinking
    D. decision tree analysis
    E. the brainstorming technique
    A. intuitive thinking
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. 54. __________ is the ability to remain focused on long-term objectives while being flexible in dealing with short-term problems and opportunities in a timely manner.
    A. Intuitive opportunism
    B. System opportunism
    C. Strategic opportunism
    D. Individual opportunism
    E. Competitive opportunism
    C. Strategic opportunism
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. 55. The first step in the decision-making process involves
    A. generating alternative solutions and evaluating them.
    B. evaluating the results.
    C. gathering information, processing information, and deliberating.
    D. implementing the preferred solution.
    E. selecting a preferred solution.
    C. gathering information, processing information, and deliberating.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. 56. Decision making is a _________ process that begins with __________ and ends with __________.
    A. six-step; generating alternative solutions; implementing the solution
    B. five-step; identifying and defining the problem; evaluating the results of the implemented solution
    C. five-step; identifying and defining the problem; implementing the solution
    D. four-step; identifying and defining the problem; implementing the solution
    E. six-step; generating alternative solutions; evaluating the results
    B. five-step; identifying and defining the problem; evaluating the results of the implemented solution
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. 57. Stating a problem as the need to 'build a better mousetrap' instead of the need to 'get rid of mice' is an example of which type of error in identifying and defining a problem?
    A. Selective perception
    B. Doing the routine rather than the unexpected
    C. Defining a problem too broadly
    D. Focusing on symptoms instead of causes
    E. Defining a problem too narrowly
    E. Defining a problem too narrowly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. 58. __________ involves asking questions such as: What is the actual situation? What is the desired situation?
    A. Implementation of solutions
    B. Choosing a preferred solution
    C. identification and definition
    D. Generation of solutions
    E. Evaluation of solutions
    C. identification and definition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. 59. Typical criteria for evaluating alternative solutions include all of the following EXCEPT
    A. benefits and costs.
    B. timeliness.
    C. ethical soundness.
    D. ease of implementation.
    E. acceptability.
    D. ease of implementation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. 60. Which of the following features are important for the second step of the decision-making process to be effective?
    a. The pros and cons of possible alternative courses of action should be identified
    b. Others should be involved in order to maximise information and build commitment
    c. Plans are only as good as the pool of alternatives.
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
    d. All of the above
  61. 61. Comparing the costs of implementing an alternative with its expected benefits is called a(n)
    A. cost-benefit analysis.
    B. inventory of alternatives.
    C. decision matrix.
    D. payoff table.
    E. chart of probabilities.
    A. cost-benefit analysis.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. 62. The third step of the decision-making process involves
    A. selecting a preferred course of action.
    B. gathering information, processing information, and deliberating.
    C. generating alternative solutions and evaluating them.
    D. evaluating the results.
    E. implementing the solution.
    A. selecting a preferred course of action.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. 63. Which question(s) arise(s) in the third step of the decision-making process?
    a. Which course of action will be chosen?
    b. How will the course of action be chosen?
    c. Who will choose the course of action to pursue?
    d. All of the above questions arise in the third step.
    e. None of the above questions arises in the third step.
    d. All of the above questions arise in the third step.
  64. 64. A manager who chooses the alternative giving the absolute best solution to a problem is making a(n) @ Page 75. Factual
    A. managerial decision.
    B. optimising decision.
    C. systematic decision.
    D. wise decision.
    E. rational and limiting decision.
    B. optimising decision.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. 65. The __________ describes decision making with complete information, where the manager faces a clearly defined problem and knows all possible action alternatives as well as their consequences.
    A. bounded rationality decision model
    B. administrative decision model
    C. behavioural decision model
    D. classical decision model
    E. political decision model
    D. classical decision model
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. 66. Which one of the following statements provides an INCORRECT description of the behavioural decision model?
    A. Even with cognitive limitations, competent managers can make perfectly rational decisions in highly ambiguous situations.
    B. Cognitive limitations make it difficult for managers to become fully informed.
    C. Managerial decisions are rational only within the boundaries defined by available information.
    D. Because of bounded rationality managers make satisficing decisions, especially in dealing with ambiguous problems in risky and uncertain conditions.
    E. Limits exist regarding human information-processing capabilities.
    A. Even with cognitive limitations, competent managers can make perfectly rational decisions in highly ambiguous situations.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. 67. The __________ describes decision making with limited information and bounded rationality where people are assumed to act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation is called.
    a. executive decision model
    b. personal decision model
    c. biased decision model
    *d. behavioural decision model
    e. descriptive decision model
    *d. behavioural decision model
  68. 68. The __________ is particularly useful in describing how people make decisions under conditions of risk and uncertainty.
    A. descriptive decision model
    B. behavioural decision model
    C. classical decision model
    D. political decision model
    E. executive decision model
    B. behavioural decision model
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. 69. When a manager chooses the first satisfactory alternative that comes to his or her attention during the decision-making process, ______________ has occurred.
    A. satisficing
    B. suboptimisation
    C. optimisation
    D. intuition
    E. rationalisation
    A. satisficing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. 70. Which one of the following statements regarding decision-making models is CORRECT?
    A. The behavioural decision model predicts that managers will make satisficing decisions.
    B. The classical decision model views managers as acting in a certain world.
    C. The classical decision model predicts that managers will make optimising decisions.
    D. All of the preceding statements are correct.
    E. The behavioural decision model describes how managers act in situations of limited information and bounded rationality.
    D. All of the preceding statements are correct.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. 71. The __________ refers to the failure to adequately involve those persons whose support is necessary to ensure a decision's complete implementation.
    A. satisficing error
    B. employee limitation error
    C. lack-of-participation error
    D. person perception error
    E. bounded rationality error
    C. lack-of-participation error
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. 72. The failure to adequately involve the people whose support is necessary to ensure a plan's complete implementation is a major reason for difficulties in the __________ stage of decision making.
    A. implementation.
    B. identification and problem definition.
    C. evaluation.
    D. solution generation and evaluation.
    E. solution selection and 'ethics double check'.
    A. implementation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. 73. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe the evaluation of results in the decision-making process?
    A. The process must be renewed when results are not achieved.
    B. A modified or new solution may need to be generated if the original solution appears to be inadequate.
    C. Evaluation is made easier if the solution involves clear objectives with measurable targets and timetables.
    D. The decision-making process is not complete until results are evaluated.
    E. Only negative consequences of the chosen course of action need to be examined.
    E. Only negative consequences of the chosen course of action need to be examined.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. 74. Which statement about heuristics is correct?
    a. The availability heuristic occurs when people use information from memory as a basis for assessing a situation or event.
    b. The representativeness heuristic occurs when people assess the likelihood of something occurring based on its similarity to some stereotyped set of occurrences.
    c. The anchoring and adjustment heuristic involves making decisions based on alterations to a previously existing value or starting point.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above.
    d. All of the above.
  75. 75. Tips on how to avoid the escalation of commitment trap in decision making include all of the following EXCEPT
    a. setting advance limits on involvement.
    b. determining why the particular course of action is right.
    *c. guarding yourself against the tendency to quit too soon.
    d. keeping in mind the costs involved.
    e. not letting others influence your decision.
    *c. guarding yourself against the tendency to quit too soon.
  76. 76. The tendency to increase effort and perhaps apply more resources to pursue a course of action that is not working is known as
    A. heuristics.
    B. cost-benefit impact.
    C. escalating commitment.
    D. satisficing.
    E. escalating cost impact.
    C. escalating commitment.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. 77. The best managers and team leaders use both ___________ decision making, employing the one that best fits the problem at hand.
    a. classical and individual
    b. classical and group
    c. behavioural and individual
    d. behavioural and group
    *e. individual and group
    *e. individual and group
  78. 78. The potential advantages of group decision making include all of the following EXCEPT
    A. it increases the commitment of team members to the final plans.
    B. it increases the number of action alternatives that are examined.
    C. minority domination may occur.
    D. it makes greater amounts of information, knowledge and expertise available to solve problems.
    E. it increases the understanding and acceptance of outcomes by members.
    C. minority domination may occur.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. 79. The potential disadvantages of group decision making include which of the following?
    a. Individual team members may feel pressure to conform to the wishes of others.
    b. Minority domination may occur.
    c. Decision making takes longer.
    d. All of the above are potential disadvantages of group decision making.
    e. None of the above is a potential disadvantage of group decision making.
    d. All of the above are potential disadvantages of group decision making.
  80. 80. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe an attribute or feature of ethical decision making?
    A. The 'ethics double check' should address the question: 'How would I feel if my family finds out about this decision?'
    B. The 'ethics double check' should be done during step 3 of the decision-making process.
    C. The 'ethics double check' should address the question: 'How would I feel if this decision were published in the local newspaper?'
    D. Only major managerial decisions need to meet the criteria of the 'ethics double check.'
    E. Any discomfort in answering the 'ethics double check' questions signifies that the decision may have ethical shortcomings.
    D. Only major managerial decisions need to meet the criteria of the 'ethics double check.'
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. 81. Examining the __________ a proposed decision may result in both better decisions and the prevention of costly litigation.
    A. required resources for
    B. ethics of
    C. top management support for
    D. expected results of
    E. implementation strategy for
    B. ethics of
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. 82. _________ describes the processes through which organisations develop, organise and share knowledge to achieve competitive advantage.
    A. Employee training and development
    B. Strategic positioning
    C. Knowledge management
    D. Competitive analysis
    E. Information management
    C. Knowledge management
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. 83. An organisation with effective knowledge management will
    a. energise the organisation's learning processes.
    b. ensure that its intellectual assets are well managed and continually enhanced.
    c. ensure that knowledge is used as a strategic and integrative force in the organisation.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above.
    d. All of the above.
  84. 84. A __________ is responsible for energising learning processes and making sure that an organisation's intellectual assets are well-managed and continually enhanced.
    A. Chief Knowledge Officer
    B. Chief Executive Officer
    C. Chief Learning Officer
    D. Chief Information Officer
    E. Chief Operating Officer
    A. Chief Knowledge Officer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. 85. An organisation that is able to continuously change and improve its performance based upon lessons of experience is known as
    A. a learning organisation.
    B. an experienced organisation.
    C. a total quality organisation.
    D. a developing organisation.
    E. a continuous improvement organisation.
    A. a learning organisation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. 86. According to Peter Senge, the core ingredients of a learning organisation include all of the following EXCEPT
    A. everyone is motivated by self-interest.
    B. everyone becomes self-aware and open to others.
    C. everyone works together to accomplish the action plan.
    D. everyone sets aside old ways of thinking.
    E. everyone learns how the whole organisation works.
    A. everyone is motivated by self-interest.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. 87. Which of the following accurately describes the nature of learning organisations?
    a. Learning organisations place high value on developing the ability to learn and then making that learning continuously available to all organisational members.
    b. Learning organisations can learn from their own experiences as well as the experiences of contractors, suppliers, partners, and customers.
    c. Learning organisations must be willing to seek out learning opportunities.
    d. All of the above.
    e. None of the above.
    d. All of the above.

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