state board cosmetology

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state board cosmetology
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  1. You cut clients hair in Jan, 6 mnths later they return requesting you cut hair to same length how many inches should you remove
    a)6 inched
    b)2 inches
    c)3 inches
    d)1 inch
    3 inches
  2. Shaving is an example of cutting or removing the hair at the level of the skin what is the term used for this type of hair removal
    a)electrolysis
    b)depilation
    c)tripicia
    d)hirsutism
    depilation
  3. Short fine soft hair with pigment
    a)lanugo
    b)barba
    c)terminal
    d)capilli
    lanugo
  4. Short fine light color unpigmented hair often observed on women and children
    a)vellus
    b)lanugo
    c)barba
    d)terminal
    terminal
  5. Extremely curly hair tends to grow
    a)faster than typical 1/2" per month
    b)apprx. 1/2" per month
    c)somewhat slower than 1/2" norm
    d)apprx. 1/4" per month
    somewhat slower than 1/2" norm
  6. Short hairs 1 ot 2 centimeters in length containing little or no pigment
    a)lanugo
    b)vellus
    c)barba
    d)terminal
    vellus
  7. Canitites is another name for
    a)red hair
    b) gray hair
    c)black hair
    d)curly hair
    gray hair
  8. This short fine pigmented hair is often observed on premature babies
    a)terminal
    b)vellus
    c)lanugo
    d)canities
    lanugo
  9. Normal wet hair can be stretched __% of its length without damage or breakage
    a)10%
    b)20%
    c)depends if the hair is curly or straight 
    d)40- 50%
    40-50%
  10. Normal dry hair can be stretched __% of its length without damage or breakage
    a)10%
    b)20%
    c)depends if the hair is curly or straight
    d)40-50%
    20%
  11. Hair follicle determines hairs
    a)shape direction and texture
    b)shape size and density
    c)shape size and color
    d)shape size and direction growth
    shape size and direction growth
  12. Which croquignole curl creates the least movement in the hair
    a)full stem
    b)half stem
    c)off base
    d)no stem on base
    no stem on base
  13. Which of the following term is not part of pin curl
    a)base
    b)strand
    c)stem
    d)arc
    strand
  14. If stylist is attempting to create finger waves and comb does not penetrate to the scalp to make certain hair at the scalp is moving the result will be
    a)no wave
    b)weak wave
    c)strong wave
    d)an uneven wave
    weak wave
  15. Most important factor in achieving a strong finger wave is 
    a)being certain only top hair is moving
    b)having correct styling tools
    c)be certain hair at scalp is moving
    d)all the above
    be certain hair at scalp is moving
  16. Hair set using alternating rows pin curls and finger waves is referred to as
    a)cascading waves
    b)waterfall waves
    c)skip waves
    d)c shapings
    skip waves
  17. What is effect of on base or no stem placement on the hair
    a)less volume more movement
    b)more volume less movement
    c)medium volume medium movement
    d)less curl more wave
    more volume less movement
  18. Which type of placement creates the greatest degree of movement and softness
    a)full stem off base
    b)no stem on base
    c)all pin curls create firm curls and movement
    d)1/2 stem 1/2 base
    full stem off base
  19. What base type is best used for barrel curls
    a)triangular
    b)rectangular
    c)square
    d)round
    rectangular
  20. Which type of placement creates least degree of movement and softness
    a)full stem off base
    b)no stem on base
    c)all pin curls create firm curls and movement
    d)1/2 stem 1/2 off base
    no stem on base
  21. What is the effect of off base placement on hair
    a)less volume
    b)more volume
    c)medium volume
    d)more curls
    less volume
  22. What is the effect of half off base placement on hair
    a)less volume 
    b)more volume
    c)medium volume
    d)more curl
    medium volume
  23. What is best method to handle your shears if you stop cutting momentarily
    a)place them closed on your station
    b)palm them closed facing client
    c)palm them open facing stylist
    d)palm then closed facing stylist
    palm them closed facing stylist
  24. Pin curl is made up of which of the following
    a)stem base and ridge
    b)stem base and circle
    c)stem base and curl
    d)stem base and closed end
    stem based and closed end
  25. no stem pin curl or an on base roller set creates
    a)tight firm long lasting curl
    b)maximum movement
    c)loose curls
    d)deep waved ridges
    Tight firm long lasting curl
  26. To create tight firm ling lasting curl use
    a)no stem curls
    b)half stem curls
    c)full stem curls
    d)off base curls
    no stem curls
  27. To create tight firm long lasting curl use
    a)on base curl
    b)half off base
    c)ridge direction
    d)off base
    on base curls
  28. No stem curl would be equivalent of a(n)
    a)on base curl
    b)half off base curl
    c)off base curl
    d)skip wave
    on base curl
  29. Which of the following is most correct
    a)on base=no stem
    b)half off base=half stem
    c)off base= full stem
    d)all of the above
    all of the above are correct
  30. Which of the following would create firmest curl with strongest wave pattern
    a)no stem on base 
    b)half stem half off base
    c)full stem off base
    d)skip wave
    no stem on base
  31. Pin curl will receive both its direction and mobility use
    a)base
    b)arc
    c)stem
    d)all of the above
    stem
  32. Which of following would create a curl with weakest loosest wave pattern
    a)no stem/ on base
    b)half stem half off base
    c)full stem/ off base
    d)skip wave
    full stem off base
  33. If client seeks loose curls or waves with greatest movement or mobility use
    a)on base or no stem curls
    b)1/2 off base or half stem curls
    c)off base or full stem curl
    d)off base or no stem curls
    off base or full stem curls
  34. Which placement would create a strong curl pattern with looseness in finished set
    a)no stem/on base
    b)half stem/half off base
    c)full stem/off base
    d)skip wave
    half stem/ half off base
  35. When you have combinations of pin curls and finger waves this pattern is referred to as
    a)finger waves
    b)marie antoinette waves
    c)cascade waves
    d)skip waves
    skip waves
  36. If stem direction is going towards clients face it is referred to as 
    a)backwards movement
    b)forward movement
    c)skip waves
    d)cascade curls
    forward movement
  37. Oxidation occurs during which of the following periods
    a)processing
    b)oxidative
    c)neutralization
    d)reduction
    neutralization
  38. For maximum volume use
    a)barrel curls off base
    b)half base half stem
    c)off base full stem
    d)on base no stem
    on base no stem
  39. Stand up pin curls are often referred to as
    a)off base curls
    b)barrel curls
    c)cascade curls
    d)waterfall curls
    barrel curls
  40. In roller set part of the hair closet to the head is referred to as the
    a)open end
    b)closed end
    c)curl direction
    d)wave ridge
    closed end
  41. When doing a roller (wet) set what should be the width of the parting?
    a)1/2" smaller than roller
    b)1/2" wider than roller
    c)1/4" smaller than roller
    d)same size as roller
    same size as roller
  42. In wet set which of the following placements would result in least volume
    a)1/2 stem
    b)off base
    c)on base
    d)full stem
    off base
  43. In pin curl set which of the following placements creates max volume
    a)no stem
    b)off base
    c)on base
    d)full stem
    no stem
  44. Which of the following takes longer to rinse from clients hair
    a)ammonium thioglycolate perm
    b)alkaline perm
    c)acid balanced perm
    d)acid perm
    acid perm
  45. Which permanent wave will cause the least swelling/ opening of he cuticle
    a)acid wave
    b)cold wave
    c)ammonium thio wave
    d)acid balanced wave
    acid wave
  46. Triangular shaped bases in a pin curl set can be used to 
    a)avoid excessive volume
    b)avoid any splits in dried style
    c)create maximum volume
    d)create crisper/firmer curl
    avoid any splits in dried style
  47. During which period in permanent wave process does oxidation occur
    a)neutralizing
    b)processing
    c)rebonding
    d)all of the above
    all of the above
  48. Reduction occurs during which of the following periods
    a)neutralizing
    b)oxidative
    c)neutralizing
    d)reduction
    processing
  49. During which period in permanent wave process does oxidation occur
    a)neutralizing 
    b)processing
    c)rebonding
    d)both a and c
    both a and c
  50. Curling hair from scalp to ends is referred to as
    a)croquignole
    b)cascade
    c)waterfall
    d)spiral
    spiral
  51. In permanent wave the diameter of rod will determine the
    a)number of rods to be used
    b)number of rods needed
    c)processing time
    d)size of curl
    size of curl
  52. Which type of shampoo may increase porosity and hasten color fading
    a)conditioning
    b)moisturizing
    c)volumizing
    d)none of the above
    volumizing
  53. In hair cutting the word complimentary means the same as
    a)opposite
    b)similar
    c)2 colors that look good together
    d)colors that do not look good together
    opposite
  54. What is 20 volume hydrogen peroxide equivalent to
    a)3%
    b)6%
    c)9%
    d)12%
    6%
  55. What is 40 volume hydrogen peroxide equivalent to
    a)3%
    b)6%
    c)9%
    d)12%
    12%
  56. What is complimentary color for yellow
    a)blue
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)orange
    violet
  57. What color neutralizes yellow when tinting
    a)blue
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)orange
    violet
  58. What is the opposite color to yellow
    a)blue
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)orange
    violet
  59. A clients hair has been lightened to shade of pale yellow they wan to see no warmth in hair, you should use a toner with what base color?
    a)blue
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)orange
    violet
  60. If you want no lift and deposit only which strength of h2o2 would you use?
    a)20 volume
    b)15 volume
    c)5
    d)30
    5 volume
  61. Over oxidation in any chemical process may result in
    a)under processing
    b)uneven color or curl
    c)hair breakage
    d)none of the above
    hair breakage
  62. An acid rinse may be used to achieve all of the following except
    a)close cuticle
    b)remove built up soap scum from hair
    c)increase shine
    d)open cuticle
    open cuticle
  63. Which of the following would you use to achieve maximum lift in one process color
    a)3% or 10 vol.
    b)6% or 20 vol.
    c)9% or 30 vol.
    d)12% or 40 vol.
    12% or 40 vol.
  64. Approx. how long will bleach mixture last before losing its potency
    a)as long as it does not dry out
    b)1 hr
    c)2 hrs
    d)4 hrs
    2 hrs
  65. What is complimentary color for red
    a)orange
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)blue
    green
  66. What is opposite color for red
    a)orange
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)blue
    green
  67. If stylist wants to remove tint they should use
    a)bleach
    b)dye solvent
    c)deposit only H2O2 
    d)20 vol h2o2 or above
    dye solvent
  68. Coloring material of hair in known as
    a)pigment
    b)melanin
    c)ptygerium
    d)orthocytes
    melanin
  69. Highlighting shampoo is made by addition of ammonia water and h2o2
    a)shampoo
    b)henna
    c)temp colors
    d)demi-perm. colors
    temp colors
  70. Layer of hair in which melanin is found
    a)cuticle
    b)papilla
    c)medulla
    d)cortex
    cortex
  71. What color could be used to neutralize a green cast in hair
    a)blue
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)red
    red
  72. White hair is discolored with yellow streaks apply  ____ to camouflage the yellow
    a)red rinse
    b)yellow rinse
    c)bluing rinse
    d)green rinse
    bluing rinse
  73. Client has white hair discolored with yellow streaks apply ___ to correct yellow
    a)violet toner
    b)yellow toner
    c)bluing rinse
    d)green toner
    violet toner
  74. Aniline derivative tints are derived from
    a)carbon base inorganic matter
    b)synthetic materials
    c)vegetables byproducts
    d)coal tar
    coal tar
  75. Which if the following services would likely not require a predisposition test
    a)tint back
    b)cream discoloration
    c)tint touch up
    d)high lift tint
    cream discoloration
  76. High lift colors often use double peroxide what does this mean when mixing a tine
    a)twice as much tint as peroxide
    b)double processing
    c)equal amounts of peroxide and tine
    d)twice as much h2o2 as aniline derivative
    twice as much h2o2 as aniline derivative
  77. Which of the following is not a primary color
    a)yellow 
    b)orange
    c)red
    d)blue
    orange
  78. Which of the following is not a secondary color
    a)orange
    b)green
    c)purple
    d)blue
    blue
  79. Which of the following choices correctly identifies the 3 primary colors
    a)red whit and blue
    b)red yellow and green
    c)red yellow and blue
    d)green orange and violet
    red yellow and blue
  80. Client has lightened his/her hair to an odd shade or orange what color should you use to tone the orange from her hair
    a)green
    b)blue
    c)violet
    d)more orange
    blue
  81. Client has 70% -80% gray and wants it tinted to its original color choose
    a)one shade lighter than original
    b)same shade as original
    c)one shade darker than original
    d)2 shades darker than original
    on shade darker than original
  82. Stylist puts blue based toner on hair lightened to pale yellow what are results
    a)neutral light blonde
    b)light blue
    c)green
    d)none of the above
    green
  83. Aniline derivative tints belong to family of
    a)vegetables dyes
    b)non-metallic salt dyes
    c)hennas
    d)penetrating dyes
    penetrating dyes
  84. Blue and yellow are primary colors when mixed equally they make
    a)dark blue
    b)orange
    c)green
    d)light blue
    green
  85. You have lightened clients hair medium brown hair to lightest pale yellow what toner should you apply to achieve a neutral/platinum blonde shade
    a)blue
    b)violet
    c)green
    d)red
    violet
  86. If you lightened clients med. brown hair to lightest pale yellow and you apply blue based toner what will be the result
    a)light blue
    b)light violet
    c)light green
    d)light red
    light green
  87. What is darkest pigment color
    a)brown
    b)blue
    c)black
    d)red
    blue
  88. Law of color suggest you would use which of the following to darken a color
    a)violet
    b)blue
    c)green
    d)black
    blue
  89. When applied to white or very light gray hair, hennas will produce what color
    a)light brown
    b)dark brown
    c)orange
    d)red
    orange
  90. If client wants perm and color what would be the recommended order
    a)perm then color
    b)color then perm
    c)one or the other but not both
    d)color today perm another day
    perm then color
  91. Hair with a hard closed compact cuticle layer is
    a)resistant and non porous
    b)resistant and porous
    c)porous and easy yo work with
    d)porous and difficult to work with
    resistant and non porous
  92. How far in advance must a P.D test be given
    a)1-24 hrs
    b)5-7 min
    c)24-48 hrs
    d)at least 48 hrs
    24-48 hrs
  93. Which one of the following colors would not require a p.d test
    a)certified color
    b)demi permanent color
    c)semi permanent color
    d)permanent color
    certified color
  94. When tinting blue green and violet are classified as
    a)warm colors/tones
    b)cool colors/tones
    c)complimentary colors/tones
    d)secondary colors/tones
    cool colors/tones
  95. When tinting red orange and yellow are classified as
    a)warm colors/tones
    b)cool colors/tones
    c)complimentary colors/tones
    d)secondary colors/tones
    warm colors/tones
  96. Which of the following is correct in terms of lasting longer on hair (shortest to longest)
    a)temp, permanent, semi permanent,demi permanent
    b)temp, demi,semi,permanent
    c)temp,semi,demi,permanent
    d)temp,perm,demi,semi
    temp,semi,demi,perm
  97. Toners are
    a)aniline tints in bright vivid colors
    b)aniline derivative tints in pale delicate shades
    c)aniline tints between level 5 to 10
    d)aniline derivative tines between levels 8 and 10
    aniline derivative tints in pale delicate shades
  98. What coloring effect would used of chamomile produce on very light hair
    a)light cool violet tone
    b)pale yellow blonde tone
    c)light ash tone
    d)red
    pale yellow blonde tone
  99. If client has 80% gray hair which of the following is best for maximum coverage
    a)demi
    b)semi
    c)permanent
    d)temp
    permanent
  100. Why would stylist use a filler on bleached or highly lightened hair
    a)to increase its porosity
    b)to decrease its porosity
    c)to even out its porosity
    d)to avoid damage to hair shaft
    to even out its porosity
  101. Colors with no warmth are considered
    a)best for older clients
    b)cool shades
    c)unflattering shades
    d)warm shades
    Cool shades
  102. In hair coloring "double process"refers to
    a)tinting twice
    b)bleach and tone
    c)bleaching twice
    d)bleach and tint
    bleach and tone
  103. Returning color to its original shade whether lighter or darker is known as
    a)color filler
    b)color blocking
    c)color correction
    d)tint back
    tint back
  104. Any product designed to remove artificial color from hair is known as
    a)decolorizers
    b)dye solvent
    c)bleached 
    d)peroxide
    dye solvent
  105. An oxidative tint is best mixed in container made from
    a)glass/plastic
    b)stainless steel
    c)wood
    d)metal
    glass/plastic
  106. Angle/degrees at which you hold out hair from scalp prior to cutting
    a)elevation
    b)graduation
    c)weight line
    d)demarcation
    elevation
  107. Slithering/effilating refers to a technique of decreasing bulk by
    a)point cutting
    b)thinning hair
    c)opening and partially closing shears down shaft
    d)both b and c
    both b and c
  108. Extremely resistant canitites hair may require stylist to use
    a)a pre- softener
    b)pre lightener
    c)lighter shade than desired
    d)darker shade than desired
    pre softener
  109. Para phenylene diamene colors are generally used for
    a)fabris
    b)furs
    c)leather
    d)hair
    hair
  110. It is generally not allowable for stylist to color clients cilia however if you decide to do so which of the following products should you not use
    a)professional lash and brow tint
    b)aniline derivatives tints
    c)mascara
    d)eye shadow
    aniline derivative tints
  111. If client has predominantly gray hair and they show you the color they would like on color chart what should you do
    a)low vol peroxide for deposit only
    b)high vol h2o2 on resistant grey hair
    c)choose a color 1 shade lighter
    d)choose 1 shade darker
    choose 1 shade darker
  112. What effect do acids have on hairs cuticle layer
    a)soften and swell
    b)soften and shrink
    c)harden and shrink
    d)harden and swell
    harden and shrink
  113. What is the purpose of pre softening before application of one step color
    a)open pores
    b)open cuticle
    c)speed up processing time
    d)achieve more even tone
    open cuticle
  114. What is purpose of pre softening before bleach application
    a)open pores
    b)opens cuticle
    c)speeds up processing time
    d)achieve more even tone
    increase porosity
  115. Hair with an open cuticle layer is
    a)usually straight
    b)less porous
    c)porosity remains unchanged
    d)more porous
    more porous
  116. Most soap is usually
    a)neutral
    b)alkaline
    c)acid
    d)none of the above
    alkaline
  117. Most shampoo is usually
    a)neutral
    b)alkaline
    c)acid
    d)none of the above
    alkaline
  118. Most 60  second rinses are ___ to counteract the ___ pH of most shampoos
    a)acid,alkaline
    b)alkaline,acid
    c)neutral, acid
    d)neutral,alkaline
    acid, alkaline
  119. Mild acid rinse such as vinegar can be used to
    a)close cuticle
    b)increase shine
    c)remove built up soap/shampoo scum
    d)all of the above
    all of the above
  120. How does good porosity of hair (an open cuticle) effect processing times
    a)usually lengthens them
    b)usually shortens them
    c)usually they remain unchanged
    d)usually provides better elasticity
    usually shortens them
  121. What effect does alkaline have on hairs cuticle layer
    a)soften and swell
    b)soften and shrink
    c)harden and shrink
    d)harden and swell
    soften and swell
  122. What type of rinse would be bad choice prior to applying a temporary color
    a)conditioning rinse
    b)volumizing rinse
    c)alkaline rinse
    d)acid rinse
    acid rinse
  123. Which of the following hydrogen peroxide
    strengths is deposit only
    a)10 vol
    b)20 vol
    c)30 vol
    d)40 vol
    10 vol
  124. Which of the following hydrogen peroxide strengths is deposit only
    a)12%
    b)6%
    c)3%
    d)9%
    3%
  125. If p.d test shoes negative results what should be done
    a)proceed with service
    b)refuse service
    c)use a weaker peroxide strength
    d)recommend another service
    proceed with service
  126. If p.d test shows positive results what should be done
    a)proceed with service
    b)refuse service
    c)use weaker peroxide
    d)recommend another service
    refuse service
  127. When performing virgin bleach or high lift color what does hair closet to scalp process more quickly
    a)its newer hair
    b)its younger hair and more porous
    c)its shorter hair
    d)heat from scalp speeds lightening
    heat from scalp speed lightening
  128. What would you use to remove old very dark tint
    a)high lift tine
    b)dye solvent
    c)bleach
    d)40 vol cream hydrogen peroxide
    dye solvent
  129. Minimum sub partings in bleach app are
    a)1/16
    b)1/8
    c)1/4
    d)1/2
    1/8
  130. When applying high lift volume virgin tint on hair begin app 
    a)away from scalp through the end
    b)away from scalp to the ends
    c)from scalp through ends
    d)away from scalp and 1/2' from ends
    Away from scalp to ends
  131. In which layer of hair do all permanent chemical reactions occur
    a)cuticle
    b)medulla
    c)papilla
    d)cortex
    cortex
  132. When decolorizing hair, strand test are performed to test for
    a)porosity
    b)elasticity
    c)decolorization
    d)both b and c
    both b and c
  133. What liquid could you use to reduce the strength oh Hydrogen Peroxide
    a)tap water
    b)spring water
    c)distilled water
    d)conditioner
    distilled water
  134. When doing a tine back from lighter color which of the following should be used
    a)darker tine
    b)filler
    c)lighter tine
    d)dye solvent
    filler
  135. When testing presence of metallic dyes/salts in hair you should place a strand of hair in which of the following
    a)30 v h202, 30 drops ammonia,30 min
    b)20 v h202 20 drop ammonia 20 min
    c)1/2 ammonia and 1/2 water 30 min
    d)20 v h202 45 min
    20 v h202 20 ammonia 20 min
  136. When using higher volume h202 than manufacturer recommends what is likely
    a)burning of clients scalp
    b)faster processing
    c)lower lifting than anticipated
    d)high lifting than anticipated
    burning of clients scalp
  137. Although anyone may decide an allergy, patch p.d test might be a good idea which agency is responsible for ordering that these type of test be administered
    a)state government
    b)state board of cosmo.
    c)salon management
    d)none of the above
    none of the above
  138. Tone lacking warm pigment may be referred to as the following except
    a)ash tones
    b)smokey tones
    c)drab tones
    d)silvery tones
    silvery tones
  139. Strand test reveals too much orange in hair what would not correct this
    a)add cool tone
    b)add a drabber
    c)add smoky tone
    d)add warm tone
    add warm tone
  140. strand reveals too much yellow in hair what would correct this
    a)add blue drabber
    b)add green toner
    c)add violet toner
    d)add warm toner
    add violet toner
  141. Strand test reveals greenish cast in hair, all of the following are incorrect except
    a)adding cool tone
    b)adding a drabber
    c)adding smoky tone
    d)adding warm toner
    adding warm toner
  142. Normal pH of human hair skin and nails
    a)4.5-5.5
    b)5.5-6.5
    c)2.5-3.5
    d)5.0-5.5
    4.5-5.5
  143. After removal of perm solution,relaxer,bleach or aniline tints hair is in what state
    a)acid
    b)alkaline
    c)base
    d)both b and c
    both b and c
  144. Best way to be certain how color will appear on clients hair is to conduct a/an
    a)experimental test
    b)strand test
    c)P.d test
    d)color hold test
    Strand test
  145. Best way to determine how clients hair skin or nail will react to a certain product is to conduct any or all of the following except
    a)allergy test
    b)patch test
    c)p.d test
    d)p.d test
    allergy test
  146. If client becomes inflamed after patch test is given this result is said to be
    a)positive
    b)negative
    c)neutral
    d)contra indicated
    positive
  147. If positive result is observed including inflamed skin this is conditon known as
    a)dermatitis verruca
    b)dermatitis rubra
    c)dermatitis vitiligo
    d)dermatitis venenata
    dermatitis venenata
  148. App of virgin tint is going lighter should begin
    a)where hair is lightest
    b)at crown of head
    c)around hairline
    d)where hair is darkest
    Where hair is darkest
  149. This act/law requires a p.d test prior to app of aniline derivative tints
    a)cosmetology and cosmetics act
    b)cosmetics and chemistry act
    c)u.s food drug and cosmetics act
    d)u.s federal food drug and cosmetics act
    u.s federal food drug and cosmetics act
  150. Which government agency mandates use of p.d test prior to aniline tints
    a)epa
    b)omb
    c)fda
    d)osha
    fda
  151. Example of progressive hair dye is
    a)aniline derivative tints
    b)demi permanent colors
    c)metallic salts
    d)color rinse
    metallic salts
  152. ____ leave hair unfit for further chemical service
    a)metallic dyes
    b)demi permanent colors
    c)aniline derivatives tints
    d)color rinse
    aniline derivative tints
  153. Certified colors are
    a)temporary products
    b)aniline derivatives tints
    c)metallic salts
    d)permanent colors
    temporary products
  154. Application of virgin tint going darker should begin
    a)where hair is lightest
    b)at crown of head
    c)around hairline
    d)where hair is darkest
    where hair is lightest
  155. If client has almost entirely gray hair and wants to darken it to its original color where should you begin to apply product?
    a)nape
    b)crown
    c)sides
    d)front
    front
  156. Simplest way to correct greenish cast in blonde hair would be with
    a)orange
    b)red
    c)green
    d)yellow
    yellow
  157. Terms ash,smoky,and drab are used interchangeably and regard what color base/s
    a)red or green
    b)yellow orange or violet
    c)orange or blue
    d)green blue or violet
    green blue or violet
  158. Henna is an ex of what type of tint
    a)metallic
    b)permanent
    c)aniline
    d)vegetable
    vegetable
  159. Aniline derivatives tints may safely be applied in p.d test was
    a)positive and at least 24 hrs old
    b)positive and least 5-7 min old
    c)negative and at least 72 hrs old
    d)negative and between 24 and 48 hrs old
    negative between 24 hrs and 48 hrs old
  160. Compound dye is generally made by combining metallic salts with
    a)progressive dyes
    b)permanent dyes
    c)semi permanent dyes
    d)vegetable dyes
    vegetable dyes
  161. Aniline derivative tines are also known as
    a)metallic dyes/tints
    b)henna
    c)penetrating dyes
    d)non-penetrating dyes
    penetrating dyes
  162. Builds up and coats cuticle with repeated app makes hair darker
    a)aniline derivatives
    b)semi permanent tint
    c)progressive dye/tint
    d)none of the above
    progressive dye/tint
  163. What is action of semi or demi permanent color on hair
    a)lift artificial pigment
    b)lift natural pigment
    c)lift and deposit pigment
    d)deposit pigment
    deposit pogment
  164. What is action of an aniline derivative tint color(w/ appropriate h2o2) on hair
    a)lift artificial pigment
    b)lift natural pigment
    c)lift and deposit pigment
    d)deposit pigment
    Lift and deposit pigment
  165. What is action of high lift color w/ appropriate developer on hair
    a)lift artificial pigment
    b)lift natural pigment
    c)lift and deposit pigment
    d)deposit pigment
    lift and deposit pigment
  166. What is action of bleach with developer on hair
    a)lift artificial pigment
    b)lift natural pigment
    c)lift and deposit pigment
    d)deposit pigment
    lift natural pigment
  167. What is action of dye solvent on hair
    a)lift artificial pigment
    b)lift natural pigment
    c)lift and deposit pigment
    d)deposit pigment
    lift artificial pigment
  168. What is action of deposit only color on hair
    a)lift artificial pigment
    b)lift natural pigment
    c)lift and deposit pigment
    d)deposit pigment
    deposit pigment
  169. Agent that begins any chemical reaction is known as
    a)developer
    b)catalyst
    c)protinator
    d)protagonist
    catalyst
  170. When rinsing decolorizer from hair the stylist should use cool water
    a)to open cuticle and remove all product
    b)avoid scalp irritation
    c)to avoid tangling
    d)helps to close cuticle and adds shine
    to avoid tangling
  171. Which of the following ingredients ,all used by cosmetologist, is principal ingredient in semi demi and permanent color
    a)sodium hypochlorite
    b)ammonium thioglycolate
    c)sodium hydroxide
    d)para phenylenediamine
    para phenylenediamine
  172. During permanent wave, if hair begins to smoke or cotton turns purple
    a)This indicated the presence of henna
    b)this indicates presence of vegetable dyes
    c)this indicates presence of metallic salts
    d)indicates presence of certified colors
    indicates presence of metallic salts
  173. In virgin tine going darker apply product
    a)from scalp through ends
    b)1/2' from scalp to/through ends
    c)1/2" from scalp until 1/2 from ends
    d)from scalp until 1/2 from ends
    1/2" from scalp until 1/2 from ends
  174. Stylist use activators boosters protinators and ____ as a catalyst
    a)bleach
    b)aniline derivative tint
    c)h2o2
    d)alcohol
    h2o2
  175. Black white and gray are often referred to as
    a)mono chromatic colors
    b)achromatic colors
    c)poly chromatic colors
    d)acro chromatic colors
    achromatic colors
  176. Accounting for nearly 2/3 of bloods volume 
    a)thrombocytes
    b)hemoglobin
    c)plasma
    d)lymph
    plasma
  177. When attempting to tint highly resistant hair you should
    a)use higher h2o2
    b)use low volume h2o2
    c)use pre-softener
    d)apply product on damp hair
    use pre-softener
  178. Which of the following would you use to pre-soften resistant grey hair
    a)ammonium thioglycolate
    b)sodium thioglycolate
    c)aniline derivative tint
    d)hydrogen peroxide
    hydrogen peroxide
  179. The minimum wait time between application of one decolorization and the next is 
    a)24 hrs
    b)48 hrs
    c)1 week
    d)7-14 days
    24 hrs
  180. If client has entirely gray hair and wants to darken it where should you begin
    a)nape
    b)crown
    c)sides
    d)front
    front
  181. Which of the following products would work fastest to relax overly curly hair
    a)sodium hypochlorite
    b)sodium bromate
    c)sodium hydroxide
    d)ammonium thioglycolate
    sodium hydroxide
  182. Client with kinky hair wants it temporarily relaxed you should
    a)soft press/single press
    b)hard press/double press
    c)soft perm
    d)sodium hyrdroxide relaxer
    hard press/ double press
  183. Client with kinky hair wants it temporarily relaxed with large curls, stylist should do
    a)soft press
    b)hard press
    c)soft perm
    d)sodium hydroxide relaxer
    soft press
  184. Client with kinky hair wants it permanently relaxed until it is curly stylist should do
    a)soft press
    b)hard press
    c)soft perm
    d)sodium hydroxide relaxer
    sodium hydroxide relaxer
  185. When applying virgin sodium hydroxide relaxer, the application should do
    a)from scalp up to ends
    b)from scalp through ends
    c)1/2" from scalp 1 in from ends
    d)1" from scalp 1/2" from ends
    1/2" from scalp 1 " from ends
  186. When applying a virgin thio relaxer the application should be done
    a)from scalp up to ends
    b)from scalp through ends
    c)1/2" from scalp to ends
    d)1/2"from both scalp and ends
    1/2" from scalp to ends
  187. When relaxing hair with thio relaxer how wide should partings be
    a)1/8"
    b)1/4"
    c)1/2"
    d)1/4"
    1/8"
  188. Which of the following relaxers leave hair unfit for any further chemical service 
    a)ammonium thioglycolate
    b)sodium hydroxide
    c)sodium thioglycolate
    d)potassium hydroxide
    sodium hydroxide
  189. Hair previously relaxed with sodium hydroxide should not be
    a)colored using permanent hair color
    b)set in rollers for 24 hrs
    c)shampooed with color fast product
    d)flat ironed
    flat ironed
  190. Hair that was relaxed with thioglycolate based product should not be treated with a
    a)thio based product
    b)sodium based product
    c)demi permanent color
    d)permanent color
    sodium based product
  191. Pressing creams oils and other products designed to protect hair should be used
    a)after completing style
    b)after shampoo prior to drying
    c)on dry hair after shampoo
    d)after drying and prior to completing style
    on dry hair after shampoo
  192. This type of relaxer is usually advertised as a no-lye relaxer 
    a)sodium hydroxide
    b)lithium hydroxide
    c)guanidine
    d)potassium hydroxide
    guanidine
  193. Relaxer recommended for sensitive scalps are sold over the counter
    a)sodium hydroxide
    b)lithium hydroxide
    c)guanidine
    d)potassium hydroxide
    guanidine
  194. Process where a hydroxide relaxer removes one atom of sulfur from disulfide bond
    a)oxidation
    b)lanthionization
    c)lithiumization
    d)redox
    lanthionization
  195. Hydroxide relaxer breaks disulfide bond thereafter it is referred to as lanthionine bond, these bonds
    a)must be reformed by neutralizer
    b)reform through air neutralization
    c)are the last bonds to reform
    d)can never be reformed
    can never be reformed
  196. If relaxer is advertised as no lye you can be certain it is not which of the following
    a)ammonium thioglycolate
    b)guanidine
    c)thioglycolate
    d)sodium hydroxide
    sodium hydroxide
  197. All of the following are true guanidine relaxers except
    a)they contain no lye
    b)have lower pH than thio relaxer
    c)cause less skin/scalp irritation
    d)more drying to hair
    have lower pH than thio relaxer
  198. Although marketed for sensitive scalps this type of relaxer will cause more swelling of hair shaft and is more drying to hair than hydroxide type of relaxer
    a)sodium
    b)lithium
    c)potassium
    d)guanindine
    guanindine
  199. If relaxer is rinsed with cold water there is a good chance the relaxed hair will
    a)break
    b)revert
    c)tangle
    d)all the above
    all of the above
  200. When doing a chemical relaxer service the best h2o2 temperature for shampooing is
    a)hot
    b)tepid
    c)cool
    d)cold
    tepid
  201. Unless instructions say otherwise to stop action of relaxer they stylist should
    a)rinse with cool/tepid water
    b)apply neutralizer
    c)rinse with warm water
    d)rinse with cold water
    rinse with cool/tepid water
  202. To avoid tangling hair while rinsing relaxer use
    a)hot water with med pressure
    b)hot water with low pressure
    c)cold water with med pressure
    d)tepid water with med pressure
    tepid water with med pressure
  203. Unless otherwise instructed by manufacturer when rinsing any relaxer it is best to use
    a)warm to tepid water
    b)cool to tepid water
    c)cold water to cool scalp
    d)hot water to remove all relaxer
    cool to tepid water
  204. To stop chemical reaction after relaxer has been removed stylist should use/apply
    a)fixative neutralizer or stabilizer
    b)cold water
    c)oil based conditioner
    d)warm water
    fixative neutralizer or stabilizer
  205. In chemical relaxer the action of neutralizer is to do which of the following
    a)stop action of processing solutions
    b)reform broken bonds of hair
    c)establish how curly/straight hair will be
    d)all of the above
    all of the above
  206. In chemical relaxer the action of fixative is to do which of the following
    a)stop action of processing solutions
    b)reform broken bonds of hair
    c)establish how straight hair will be
    d)all of the above
    all of the above
  207. A thio relaxer should be applied to
    a)dry hair
    b)wet hair
    c)pressed hair
    d)damp hair
    damp hair
  208. In a permanent wave the action of neutralizer is to do which of the following
    a)stop action of processing solution
    b)reform broken bonds of hair
    c)establish how curly hair will be
    d)all of the above
    all of the above
  209. Chemical hair relaxers will tend to
    a)be disulphides
    b)be alkaline
    c)be neutral
    d)be acid
    be alkaline
  210. Chemical relaxers will tend to have which of the following effects on hair.
    a)harden and shrink
    b)soften and swell
    c)harden and swell
    d)soften and shrink
    soften and swell
  211. App of neutralizer has what effect on hair
    a)curl straight hair
    b)relax curly hair
    c)soften and swell hair
    d)reform broken hair bonds
    reform broken hair bonds
  212. Which hair bonds can only be broken chemically
    a)disulfide
    b)hydrogen
    c)keratin
    d)salt
    disulfide
  213. Chemical relaxers are designed to break which bonds of hair
    a)disulfide
    b)hydrogen
    c)keratin
    d)salt
    disulfide
  214. Stylist should begin app of chemical relaxer
    a)at top
    b)nape or most resistant area
    c)at crown
    d)at the sides
    nape or more resistant area
  215. Permanent wave solutions are designed to break which bonds of hair
    a)disulfide
    b)hydrogen
    c)keratin
    d)salt
    disulfide
  216. Chemical relaxers and permanent wave solutions will often begin to smoke on clients head if there is/are any ____ on hair
    a)aniline derivatives color
    b)demi-permanent color
    c)alcohol based stylist aids
    d)metallic dyes
    metallic dyes
  217. If client has metallic salts/dyes on their hair you should not give a
    a)permanent wave
    b)chemical hair relaxer
    c)press and curl
    d)both A and B
    both a and b
  218. Shampooing blow drying/curling irons and brushing will break which bonds of hair?
    a)disulfide
    b)polypeptide
    c)hydrogen
    d)salts
    hydrogen
  219. Acidic products have which action on hair
    a)soften
    b)soften and swell
    c)harden
    d)harden and shrink
    harden and shrink
  220. Alkaline  products have which action on hair
    a)soften
    b)soften and swell
    c)harden
    d)harden and shrink
    harden and shrink
  221. Although incompatible Both thio and sodium relaxers are
    a)acidic 
    b)alkaline
    c)acidic and alkaline
    d)sodium is alkaline and thio is acidic
    alkaline
  222. Both thio and sodium relaxers will have what effect on hair
    a)hardening
    b)softening
    c)thio will harden sodium will soften
    d)straighten
    softening
  223. Neutralizer stabilizer or fixative will have what effect on hair
    a)hardening
    b)softening
    c)straighten
    d)relax
    hardening
  224. Neutralizer stabilizer or fixative is
    a)acidic
    b)alkaline
    c)acidic and alkaline
    d)straighening
    acidic
  225. Neutralizing shampoos are sometimes referred to as
    a)neutralizers
    b)stabilizers
    c)fixatives
    d)all of the above
    all of the above
  226. Because they are incompatible and usage may cause extensive breakage hair treated with Sodium Hydroxide relaxer should not be treated with
    a)guanidine
    b)ammonium thioglycolate
    c)certified colors
    d)temporary colors
    ammonium thioglycolate
  227. To remove relaxers from hair stop their chemical action and avoid damage to hair itself it is necessary to
    a)shampoo hair at least twice
    b)use an acid balabced shampoo
    c)rinse hair well
    d)both b and c
    rinse hair well
  228. If relaxer comes into contact with skin or scalp must be
    a)gently removed with cold water
    b)gently removed with hot water
    c)gently removed with dry towel
    d)gently removed with moist towel
    gently removed with moist towel
  229. How often is it recommended to have a relaxer retouch
    a)every 4 weeks
    b)1 to 2 months
    c)3 to 4 months
    d)6 to 8 months
    3 to 4 months
  230. What strength relaxer would you suggest using on fine/damaged hair
    a)weak
    b)regular
    c)alkaline
    d)mild
    mild
  231. If relaxer is left on hair longer than directions state what will likely occur
    a)may be necessary if hair is resistant
    b)hair may become straight
    c)hair may discolor
    d)hair may break
    hair may break
  232. A disulphide relaxer often marketed as less damaging to hair is or has
    a)an alkaline pH
    b)an acidic pH
    c)pH starts as alkaline then turns acidic
    d)none of the above
    Acidic pH
  233. Relaxer app generally begins
    a)at crown
    b)at nape
    c)at temples
    d)at sides
    at nape
  234. What would be first step in chemical relaxer service
    a)section hair
    b)apply base cream
    c)discuss with client
    d)complete client records
    discuss with client
  235. Once hair is relaxed with thio relaxer app of a new thio relaxer may cause
    a)deconstruction of hair shaft
    b)breakage
    c)color to darken
    d)none of the above
    breakage
  236. In cutting chemically relaxed it is recommended you use
    a)shears
    b)clippers
    c)razors
    d)specialized shears for cutting relaxed hair
    shears
  237. Using very cold water while rinsing relaxer will cause all of the following except 
    a)reversion
    b)breakage
    c)tighter curl
    d)looser curl
    looser curl
  238. Which of the following is not a strength of professionally made relaxers
    a)color treated
    b)mild
    c)super/extra strength
    d)regular
    color treated
  239. Product protection scalp from irritation in a no base relaxer is know as
    a)base cream
    b)protective cream
    c)neutralizing cream
    d)no scalp cream is applied in no base relaxer
    no scalp cream is applied in no base relaxer
  240. Product protecting scalp from irritation in a relaxer service is known as
    a)base cream
    b)protective cream
    c)neutralizing cream
    d)no scalp cream is applied in a no base relaxer
    base cream
  241. In virgin relaxer the relaxing product should be applied
    a)1/2" from scalp to 1/2 from ends
    b)1 in. from scalp to 1/2 in. from the ends
    c)from scalp to /through ends
    d)1/2 in. from scalp and 1 in. from ends
    1/2 in. from scalp and 1 in. from ends
  242. When doing a retouch relaxer service avoid
    a)using sodium hydroxide relaxer
    b)overlapping previously relaxed hair
    c)using thio relaxer
    d)use of oil based conditioners
    overlapping previously relaxed hair
  243. Which agency approves efficacy of product used for infection control
    a)fda
    b)epa
    c)department of health
    d)state board of cosmetology
    epa
  244. Designed to reform hairs disulfide bonds neutralizers have what effect on hair
    a)swell and harden
    b)swell and soften
    c)harden and shrink
    d)harden and swell
    harden and shrink
  245. Which of the following cant be used to reform hair after relaxer is removed
    a)fixative
    b)stabilizer
    c)conditioner
    d)neutralizer
    conditioner
  246. Stretching hair during app of relaxing cream will cause it to
    a)straighten faster
    b)break
    c)have no effect
    d)revert
    break
  247. Average pH range of sodium hydroxide relaxer is
    a)about same as thio relaxer
    b)somewhat higher than thio
    c)Somewhat lower than thio
    d)highly acidic
    somewhat higher than thio
  248. When doing a retouch relaxer service it is a good idea to
    a)deeply condition hair immediatley prior to service
    b)have relaxed hair damp
    c)leave conditioner on previously relaxed hair during service
    d)have hair wet
    leave conditioner on previously relaxed hair
  249. Chemical relaxers and permanent wave solutions have what effect on hair
    a)acid so they shrink and harden
    b)alkaline so they swell and harden
    c)alkaline so they swell and soften
    d)idk
    alkaline so they swell and soften
  250. Average pH range of an ammonium thioglycolate relaxer is
    a)4.5-5.5
    b)7.5-8.5
    c)

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