CDC1 Aerospace Propulsion

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Author:
chasegrouse
ID:
25326
Filename:
CDC1 Aerospace Propulsion
Updated:
2010-06-30 12:14:02
Tags:
CDC
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Description:
CDC Volume 1, 5 level
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  1. Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
    Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance.
  2. QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
    Supervisors
  3. Who monitors flying and mainteance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
    Maintenace oerations center
  4. When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadrom as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
    Specialist
  5. What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of you job?
    Career Development course (CDC)
  6. You may attend ALS after having houw many months in the Air Force?
    48
  7. which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees?
    AFOSH
  8. Occupationl health is regulated by Air Force series
    91
  9. Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenace and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    21-101
  10. Prior to starting any mantenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
    Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aricraft.
  11. How far does a propeller's axis of ratation extend?
    10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
  12. To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
    200
  13. FOD is normally caused by?
    People
  14. Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
    Maintenance group commander
  15. During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
    carbon monoxide
  16. Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
    gases
  17. Who is responsible for providing yo with training on how te wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
    Supervisor
  18. Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    unauthorized entry
  19. For hazardous waste disposal, it it unlikely the Air Force can justify
    incineration
  20. A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
    dilution
  21. A specialized function of the supply mission is
    disposal
  22. From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
    Weapons system
  23. Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    Repair Cycle Support System
  24. Selected wquipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    overhaul
  25. Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the SBSS?
    Daily Document Register (D04)
  26. Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of what difference in each organization?
    Mission
  27. What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
    Origin of an item
  28. Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
    TO 00-20-2
  29. If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what for would you use to order an engine part?
    AF IMT 2005
  30. If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
    23-110
  31. Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenace?
    DD Form 1575
  32. Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactoily over a specified period of time?
    Shelf-life
  33. When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
    has a definite non-extendible period of shelf life.
  34. A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency
    that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss of damage to equipment or a system.
  35. Within how many hours must Catefory I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
    24
  36. Which type of etems must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
    Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
  37. To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    commander.
  38. The first part of a TO number identifies the
    category and type of equipment in the TO.
  39. The second part of a TO number gives the
    model and series for equipment type in the TO.
  40. In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
    Index
  41. Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    Job guide
  42. Which type of additional data is not provided in the interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMS)?
    Urgent recommendations
  43. What section of the IPB contains an explanantion of the coding used in the IPB?
    Introduction
  44. What category on TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    Immediate action
  45. Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    00-5-1
  46. How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
    A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text or picture.
  47. An AFTO INT 22 is not submitted for
    preliminary TOs.
  48. Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
    Supervisor of initiator.
  49. Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
    Urgent.
  50. What are the two classifications of failures in RCM?
    Potential and functional.
  51. In RCM, which preventative maintenace task is a cheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
    On condition
  52. The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit damage to turbine engines by
    early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.
  53. Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
    Base engine maintenance shop.
  54. Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
    Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.
  55. What drives the creation of a CRP?
    Customer wait time and transportation constraints.
  56. Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and report their status?
    Production supervisor
  57. Whena CIRF ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
    CIRF personnel
  58. What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
    Depot maintenance.
  59. Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
    providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.
  60. Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and
    field teams.
  61. Aprimary objective of the engine reporting system is to
    maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.
  62. The key to makin the CEMS work is
    accurate and timely data at the lowest level.
  63. For how many categories of reporting does the CEMS establish and maintain records?
    2
  64. You should record the removal and replacement of engie accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
    95
  65. To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
    95
  66. What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pace programs?
    Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.
  67. Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.
  68. How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accesories?
    2
  69. Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    injury to you.
  70. What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?
    Toolbag
  71. If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
    use a staggered sequence.
  72. The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the
    grip.
  73. What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
    Slide caliper.
  74. Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an accuracy of
    one ten-thousandth of an inch
  75. The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside mocrometer is
    1 inch
  76. You adjust a micrometer by turning the
    thimble.
  77. The vernier scale on a micrometer is udes to read measurements in
    ten-thousandths of an inch.
  78. Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
    At the end of a pivoted lever.
  79. What feature is common to all dial indicators?
    Ability to amplify movement greatly
  80. To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?
    50%
  81. What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
    Dry-cleaning solvent
  82. The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
    function selector
  83. How many range settings does the Fluke 8025A multimeter have?
    4
  84. What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
    32
  85. What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine?
    Visually inspect internal cavities.
  86. Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
    the fiber optics.
  87. What are the types of views abailable with the rigid borescope?
    Direct and lateral
  88. When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior f the area you are inspecting?
    Distal tip light guides
  89. The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
    videoimagescope.
  90. Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    Age
  91. Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
    2
  92. The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to
    avoid bottoming out the nut.
  93. What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications?
    Internal wrenching.
  94. Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 F?
    Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.
  95. How is a screw length measured?
    Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.
  96. When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be
    slightly smaller than the screw.
  97. What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals?
    Plain
  98. To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?
    Plain washer underneath the lock washer.
  99. What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
    Tapered
  100. When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
    8 to 10
  101. Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it
    has a high-fatigue factor.
  102. You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
    the coded bands of colered tape placed around the tubing or hoses.
  103. What numerical value is given to a fitting sed on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
    6
  104. Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?
    Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed.
  105. For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
    20
  106. What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing?
    Self-sealing.
  107. When you recieve an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
    check the compressor inlet.
  108. Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
    cautions.
  109. Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?
    30
  110. The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
    3
  111. Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
    2J-1-19
  112. Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
    Fiberglass reinforced plastic
  113. To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
    filler valve on the front of the container.
  114. When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?
    1/4 turn
  115. To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
    top half on the right panel of the container.
  116. Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    Release all pressure before removing lid.
  117. How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
    4
  118. Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
    Preservation run and fuel system preservation.
  119. To prepare the engine fuel system for sevice after depreservation, you must flush the system with
    fuel.
  120. when metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
    on the surface of the metal.
  121. What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
    Desiccants
  122. On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform saftey lockpins is to
    prevent the platform from lowering while is is in use.
  123. Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
    B-4
  124. What information is found in Part 1 of an AFTO Form 244?
    Item identification.

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