Card Set Information

2013-12-21 19:26:36

Show Answers:

  1. For local sorties, briefings will begin at least ___ before scheduled takeoff.
    1 hour
  2. ___ Fuel - a prebriefed fuel needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight.
  3. ___ Fuel - A prebriefed fuel state which allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate, if required, using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel.
  4. ___ Fuel - the fuel on initial or at the final approach fix at the base of intended landing or alternate, if required.
    Normal Recovery
  5. Normal Recovery Fuel
    Established locally or 800 lbs, whichever is higher
  6. Minimum fuel
    600 lbs or less
  7. Emergency fuel
    400 lbs or less
  8. Minimum taxi interval (staggered/ in trail)
    150' / 300'
  9. When ice or snow are present on the taxiway, taxi on the center line with a minimum of ___ of spacing.
  10. Place the wingman on the ___ side if the crosswind exceeds ___ knots.
    upwind; 5
  11. Do not take off when the runway condition reading is less than ___.
  12. Do not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds ___ percent (single ship or interval takeoff) or ___ percent (formation takeoff) of the available runway.
    80; 70
  13. Formation takeoffs are restricted to elements of ___ aircraft.
  14. Do not make formation takeoffs when:
    • Runway width is less than 150'.
    • Standing water, ice, slush, or snow is on the runway.
    • Crosswind or gust component exceeds 15 knots.
  15. Takeoff interval between aircraft or elements will be a minimum of ___.
    10 seconds
  16. When join-up is to be accomplished on top, takeoff interval will be increased to a minimum of ___.
    20 seconds
  17. Day weather criteria for VFR join-up underneath a ceiling is ___ and ___ visibility.
    1500'; 3 miles
  18. Flight leads will maintain ___ KTS until join-up is accomplished unless mission requirements necessitate a different airspeed.
  19. Flight leads will not normally exceed ___ degrees of bank during a turning join-up.
  20. For a straight-ahead rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will join to the ___ wing and the element will join on the ___ wing unless otherwise briefed.
    left; right
  21. For a turning rejoin, the number 2 aircraft will rejoin on the ___ of the turn and the element to the ___.
    inside; outside
  22. The minimum altitude for low altitude maneuvering
    500' AGL
  23. Aircraft will not descend below ____ during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering.
    5,000' AGL
  24. The minimum airspeed for all maneuvering is ___ KTS unless conducting training under a formal syllabus that specifies or allows a slower airspeed for the training being conducted.
  25. Ops checks are required during:
    • Climb or at level-off after takeoff
    • Before each engagement or intercept
    • Before entering an air-to-surface range
    • Once while on the range if multiple passes are made
    • After departing the range
  26. Ops check minimum items:
    • Engine instruments
    • Fuel quantities
    • Fuel balance
    • G-suit connection
    • Oxygen system
    • Cabin altitude
  27. Aircrew will conduct a G-awareness exercise anytime aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above ___ Gs during the mission.
  28. Maintain a minimum of ___ between aircraft during the G-awareness exercise.
  29. The chase will not stack lower than lead aircraft below ___.
    1,000' AGL
  30. A chase aircraft will maneuver in a __ to __ degree cone out to ___ from which the pilot can effectively clear and/or provide assistance.
    30; 60; 1,000'
  31. T-38 approach category
  32. Approach category D minimums may be used where no category E minimums are published if:
    • A straight-in approach is flown.
    • The aircraft is flown at a final approach speed of 165 KIAS or less.
    • The aircraft is flown at 260 KTAS or less for the missed approach segment of the approach.
  33. For trail departure, use a minimum of ___ takeoff spacing.
  34. For trail departure, each aircraft or element will accelerate in AB power until reaching ___ KTS. Accelerate to ___ KTS in MIL. Climb at ___ KTS using ___ degrees EGT, or as briefed, until reaching ___ or ___, unless otherwise briefed.
    250; 300; 300; 600; cruise Mach; cruise TAS
  35. For trail departure, during climbs and descents, each aircraft or element will call passing each ___ altitude increment with ___.
    5,000'; altitude and heading
  36. For trail departure, each aircraft or element will maintain at least ___ of vertical separation from the preceding aircraft or element during the climb or descent and at level-off until visual contact is established.
  37. In the event a visual join-up cannot be accomplished on top or at level-off on trail departure, the flight lead will request ___ of altitude separation for each succeeding aircraft or element if all aircraft can comply with the MSA restrictions. If the MSA cannot be complied with, the separation may be reduced to ___.
    1,000'; 500'
  38. Climbs or descents through icing conditions more severe than ___ are prohibited.
    forecast light rime
  39. For pilots who have not completed stepdown training and who are not designated for flights at lower altitudes, the minimum altitude is ___.
    1,000' AGL
  40. For night or IMC operation, the minimum altitude is ___ above the highest obstacle within ___ of the course.
    1,000'; 5 NM
  41. Taxi spacing will be a minimum of ___ and on the taxiway center line during night operations.
  42. Following takeoff at night, each aircraft or element will climb on runway heading to ___ before initiating turns, except where departure instructions specifically prohibit compliance or executing a night overhead traffic pattern.
    1,000' AGL
  43. The desired touchdown point is ____ from the threshold for a VFR approach.
    150 - 1000'
  44. The break will be executed individually in a level ___ degree turn to the downwind leg at minimum intervals of ___.
    180; 5
  45. Tactical overhead lateral/element spacing
    4000-6000'/ no more than 6,000'
  46. If using an offset box formation, offset ___ from the direction of the break.
  47. For a tactical overhead, the lead element will break to down wind ___.
    abeam or over the touchdown point
  48. The second element for a tactical overhead will delay the break to downwind until number 2 is ___.
    clear of the intended flightpath
  49. Minimum altitude for formation low approach
    100' AGL
  50. Chase aircraft during emergency minimum altitude
    300' AGL unless safety or circumstances dictate otherwise
  51. During go-around, remain ___ below a VFR overhead traffic pattern altitude until crossing ___.
    500'; the departure end of the runway
  52. Plan to arrive on downwind between ___ to ___ KTS.
    200; 240
  53. When the computed landing roll exceeds ___ percent of the available runway, land at an alternate runway, if possible.
  54. When the RCR at the base of intended landing is less than ___, land at an alternate runway, if possible.
  55. If the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds ___ (dry) or ___ (wet), solo UFT students will land at an alternate runway, if possible.
    15; 10
  56. If the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds __ knots, the minimum runway length for __ and __ percent flap touch-and-go's on runways without a suitable barrier is ___.
    15; 60; 100; 10,000'
  57. Do not perform no-flap touch-and-go's on runways without a suitable barrier when the crosswind component exceeds __ knots.
  58. The ___ is primarily responsible for handling in-flight emergencies.
  59. The phrase ___ will be used to direct the tower to raise the departure end barrier.
    "barrier, barrier, barrier"
  60. The mission will be aborted for any of the following:
    • Birdstrike or FOD
    • Over-G
    • Flight control system anomalies
    • Engine flameout, stagnation, or shutdown
  61. If flying other than close or route formation when radio failure occurs, the NORDO aircraft should attempt to rejoin to a route position at approximately ___ on another flight member.
  62. If the terrain permits under spatial disorientation, maintain a straight-and-level flight until symptoms abate, usually in __ to __ seconds.
    30; 60
  63. As a guide, allow __ per __ for a deployed parachute to descend.
    1 minute; 1,000'
  64. Solo Student Restrictions
    • Traffic pattern stalls, approach to stalls, and slow flight
    • Advanced handling characteristics maneuvers
    • Practice nose high and low recoveries
    • Practice lost wingman as wing
    • Rolling takeoffs
    • Practice emergency patterns and landings
    • Low closed or circling approaches
    • Formation landings
    • Takeoffs with crosswinds (including gusts) greater than 15 knots, or landings with crosswinds (including gusts) greater than 15 knots (dry) or 10 knots (wet).
    • Patterns and landings with more than 2,500 pounds of fuel
    • Flight in an aircraft with any known malfunction or requiring an operational check
    • Any unbriefed maneuver
    • On the wing of another solo student
    • Formation low approaches below 300' AGL
  65. Solo student minimum fuel
    800 lbs
  66. Post contact checkride solo students may climb and descend through IMC if the ceiling is at or above ___ and not more than ___ thick. Minimum in-flight visibility above and below the ceiling is ___.
    5,000' AGL; 2,000'; 5 miles
  67. For flight above ___, aircrew will use the minim Mach number indicated on the MFD airspeed indicator.
  68. Do not fly formation above ___.
  69. Do not fly above ___ except in an emergency.