CDC 2A651 Vol 1 Self-Test Questions

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AdrianSoto
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CDC 2A651 Vol 1 Self-Test Questions
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2014-01-05 16:33:02
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CDC VOLUME1 2A651 AEROSPACE PROPULSION
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CDC 2A651
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Volume 1 CDC Self-Test Questions. Only the questions I don't know are placed in this flashcard set.
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  1. How does QA identify negative trends and problem areas?
    Through evaluation and/or inspection
  2. The maintenance operation squadron is directly responsible to the MXG commander for a variety of tasks in order to support the group production effort. What tasks are these?
    Administration, analysis, training management, and programs and resources
  3. What are the main functions of the MOC?
    To monitor and coordinate sortie production, maintenance production and execution of the flying and maintenance schedules and maintain visibility of fleet health indicators.
  4. In order for the MOC to comply with requirements and to identify potential problems, what type of exchange is crucial?
    Detailed information between squadrons and the MOC.
  5. Which two squadrons may the MX squadron be divided into?
    Component maintenance squadron (CMS) and equipment maintenance squadron (EMS)
  6. If you are assigned to the MXS or CMS/EMS, to which two flight might you be attached?
    Propulsion flight (off equipment maintenance) or  the maintenance flight (phase inspections)
  7. What type of tasks does the propulsion flight perform?
    Engine/module/accessory disassembly, assembly, test, and repair
  8. If you are assigned to a specialist flight in the AMXS, which engine tasks may you be required to accomplish?
    Troubleshooting engine malfunctions, component removal and replacement, compressor washes, performing inspections, and servicing.
  9. What is the purpose of the CFETP?
    To provide career field managers, commanders, training managers, supervisors, and trainers with the framework to plan, develop, conduct, manage, and evaluate an effective, productive, and efficient career field training program.
  10. What is the purpose of the AFOSH program?
    To ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees. Its ultimate goal is to protect personnel from work-related deaths, injuries and illnesses.
  11. What series of AFOSH standards govern occupational safety.
    91 series of AF publications.
  12. On what aspects of performing maintenance must all levels of supervision place emphasis?
    Safety, quality, and timeliness.
  13. What type of maintenance actions are prohibited?
    Shortcuts or incomplete maintenance actions.
  14. What does maintenance discipline require of all maintenance personnel?
    To display integrity and comply with all written guidance.
  15. What will happen to personnel who fail to uphold maintenance discipline?
    They will be held accountable.
  16. What two things should you check to ensure the aircraft is safe for you to perform maintenance?
    The aircraft forms as well as other personnel locatd around and onboard the aircraft.
  17. What aircraft forms should you check for entries that may prevent you from starting your assigned task?
    AFTO forms 781H and 781A
  18. What form is documented to identify an armed aircraft?
    AFTO form 781H
  19. What are three types of equipment that produce radio frequency radiation?
    • 1. High frequency radio transmitters
    • 2. Radar
    • 3. Electronic countermeasure devices
  20. What are the primary danger areas that exist around an operating engine?
    Propellers, engine intakes and exhausts, turbine wheel and starter planes of rotation, as well as high frequency noises.
  21. When a propeller is running, what are its two most dangerous areas?
    The plane of rotation and the axis of rotation
  22. Why should personnel exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of a helicopter's main rotor blades?
    Because the rotating blades tend to droop at decreased speeds.
  23. What are the primary factors that create static electricity?
    Movements or motion
  24. What is effective grounding?
    Providing a path for static electricity to flow to a grounding point in the earth
  25. What is the purpose of bonding?
    To eliminate the differentials in electrical charges that exist or are generated between a component and the aircraft or between two components.
  26. At the locations where a bonding wire is attached, what surface requirements must be met?
    They must be clean and unpainted
  27. Why should AF personnel be so concerned about FOD?
    The damage it causes translates into the loss of resources, money, or in a worst-case scenario, someone's life.
  28. Who is assigned as the FOD prevention program manager?
    The vice wing commander.
  29. What should you do when you suspect that an item is lost on an aircraft, and it is in an area where it can cause damage?
    Immediately place a red "X" in the aircraft forms with a description of the tool and a specific last-known location of the tool. Then you must conduct a search.
  30. To whom should you report damaged paving in aircraft parking areas and taxiways for immediate repair?
    The base airfield manager.
  31. Into what two categories are hazardous materials divided?
    Health hazards and physical hazards.
  32. What is the purpose of the hazard communication program?
    It establishes guidance for training employees on the health and physical hazards associated with HAZMAT in the work area.
  33. Toxic materials  are divided into what three general physical classifications?
    Gases and vapors, liquids and solids
  34. What is the key factor in making the PPE program successful?
    Your acceptance.
  35. When you store PPE, from what are you protecting it?
    Sunlight, heat, extreme cold, excessive moisture and mechanical damage.
  36. What should the design of a hazardous storage area allow for?
    Inspection of each container for leaks and deterioration and for the transfer of container contents in case container damage occurs.
  37. When removing spilled or leaking hazardous materials from the storage area, what should you never do?
    Never place incompatible types in the same container.
  38. What information must hazard-warning labels include?
    Name and identity of the chemical and all appropriate hazard warnings.
  39. For stationary hazard containers, what can be used in place of a label?
    Placards.
  40. An MSDS is cross referenced to every type of material recorded on what document?
    Hazardous chemical inventory.
  41. What are ways hazardous wastes can be disposed of properly?
    Chemical-physical treatment, bio-degradation, incineration, land disposal, and off-site contract disposal.
  42. What is the purpose of the maintenance supply system?
    To procure, stock, and issue millions of items to thousands of customers worldwide.
  43. What areas of major weapon systems do GLSCs manage?
    Aircraft, engines, communications, test stands, aerospace ground equipment, vehicles, and pods.
  44. What are the four primary points of contact within base supply?
    Customer service, retail sales, demand processing, equipment management
  45. What is the common term for repair cycle assets?
    Due in for maintenance (DIFM) parts.
  46. When does the repair cycle time of an item start and stop?
    It starts when the unserviceable item is removed from the engine and a demand is made on base supply for a replacement. It stops when the item is sent back to base supply.
  47. When you route a part to be repaired through the repair cycle support system (RCSS) which part of the AFTO Form 350 do they need?
    The bottom portion, Part II
  48. What types of items generally require complete depot-level overhaul?
    Time change items (TCI), that allowable operating time has expired, items involved in a weapons system accident, items which have evidence of contamination, and items for which the condition cannot be determined.
  49. List four of the important supply documents that you may utilize.
    Daily Document Register (D04), Priority Monitor Report (D18), Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), Due Out Validation Listing (M30), Material Support Division (MSD) and Due in From Maintence (DIFM)
  50. Which supply document provides data by which to monitor due-outs and their corresponding status?
    Priority Monitor Report (D18)
  51. Why must base supply have a priority system in place?
    Because base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a daily basis and each organizations mission is different.
  52. What two priority systems does supply use?
    Delivery priority system and the uniform material movement and issue priority system (UMMIPS)
  53. What two factors determine the priority for an off-base requisition?
    The urgency justification code (UJC) and the force activity designator (FAD)
  54. What factor is adversely affected by the misue of priority designators?
    The integrity of the supply system.
  55. What is part I of the AFTO form 350 known as and for what is it used?
    The repair cycle processing tag; it is attached to items that are determined to be reparable and are being forwarded to other activities for repair.
  56. Where is part II of the AFTO Form 350 located and what purpose does it serve?
    It is the section located below the perforationl as the production scheduling document.
  57. Where can you find a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 Tag?
    TO 00-20-2, Maintenance Data Documentation
  58. When an item is sent to the reparable processed center (RPC) which blocks (both front and back) are required to be completed by the individual (originator) imitating the 350 tag?
    Blocks 1 through 14, 15A and 29.
  59. When an item is NOT sent to the reparable processing center (RPC) because of its size or for other reasons, which additional blocks must be completed by the originator?
    Blocks 16, 17, and 18.
  60. When are you required to enter the type, model, series, and serial number required on the AF IMT 2005?
    When the requirement is for an NMCS (not mission capable supply) or PMCS (partially mission capable supply) reportable item.
  61. Which form should you submit if it's determined that a first-time request part will become a recurring one and, there, the stock level needs to be adjusted?
    AF IMT 1996, Adjusted Stock Level
  62. Where can you look to find information concerning how to use the condition tags and the required entries for each?
    TO 00-20-3, Maintenance Processing of Reparable Property and the Repair Cycle Asset Control System
  63. What conditions warrant use of the DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag?
    This tag is brown and is used when the part is awaiting maintenance or awaiting parts.
  64. What is the purpose of DD form 1577?
    This tag is red and is used to identify an unserviceable, condemned item.
  65. What is the purpose of DD Form 1577-2?
    This tag is green and is used to identify defective items that can be repaired and made serviceable.
  66. What is the difference between type I and type II shelf-life items?
    Type I items have a definite non-extendable period of shelf-life, type II items may have their shelf-life period extended after completion of inspection/test/restorative actions.
  67. How is the information on DR's used?
    To increase operational capability and efficiency by correcting defects in design, material, quality, or maintenance of equipment, and to reflect the past performance history of a contractor.
  68. You receive a part from supply that does not fit correctly and the part is still under warranty. How does this change the way the DR process?
    It doesn't change the process.
  69. What are sme of the justifications for initiating a DR?
    Safety; the item doesn't fit or work upon receipt; the items failed before its expected life cycle.
  70. If you find a deficiency that, if uncorrected, would cause severe injury, under which category would you submit the DR?
    Category I
  71. Within what timeframe must all category II DRs be forwarded?
    Within three work days.
  72. List some example of Equipment Authorization Inventory Data (EAID) items.
    Individual equipment, organizational equipment (i.e., engine stands and special tools), and special or project equipment.
  73. EAID items that require formal supply accountability must be reflected on what listing?
    Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)
  74. Who provides you with the required equipment manager training?
    Equipment management element at base supply
  75. List the things you must accomplish if you serve as an equipment custodian.
    Ensure you attend the required training on proper equipment account maintenance; inventory and account for every piece of equipment shown on the current CA/CRL before signing for the account; and conduct periodic inventory checks of your account to ensure that all the items listed are accounted for.
  76. Why are technical orders numbered?
    To provide a sequence for filing, categorize them by equipment type, and assist in establishing a library.
  77. How are index TO's identified?
    With a single "0" in the first section of the TO number.
  78. What can the USAF TO catalog be used for?
    To establish and requisition TO requirements; for the maintenance of TO libraries; to search for new, updated, and rescinded TO's; and to cross reference TO numbers to equipment numbers.
  79. List three examples of O&M TO's.
    Flight manual program publications, On-equipment organizational maintenance, Work package TO's
  80. What do methods and procedures TO's establish?
    Policies, methods, and procedures relating to the TO system, maintenance management, ground handling of aerospace vehicles, general maintenance practices, management of precision measuring equipment, and the safe use of Air Force equipment.
  81. What are abbreviated TO's?
    Excerpts from one or more basic TO'sthat organize and simplify instructions
  82. TCTO's are the authorized method for doing what?
    Directing and providing instructions for modifying military systems and commodities and for performing or initially establishing one-time inspections.
  83. Which technical manuals (TM) generally describe the overall aircraft and its installed systems?
    General equipment (GE) manuals.
  84. What type of information do GS manuals provide?
    Detailed system and subsystem description, as well as theory of operation.
  85. What type of information do JG manuals provide?
    Detailed start-to-finish, step by step maintenance instructions arranged in a logical sequence.
  86. What type of TM contains operation fault identification procedures and reporting instruction that allow the flight crew to describe the conditions pertaining to a malfunction?
    Fault reporting manuals.
  87. Describe the process of troubleshooting equipment when using a FI manual?
    The parts of a system/function are tested in a logical sequence until a specific line replacable unit failure, maladjustment, or a wiring fault is found.
  88. Which type of manual illustrates, lists, and describes all parts, modules, and special support equipment necessary to maintain aircraft engines?
    Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB)
  89. If you need to look up a part number, which two sections of the illustrated parts breakdown manual could you use?
    The group assembly parts list and the numerical index.
  90. How are TCTO instructions used?
    For modifying military systems or commodities within specified time limites, and initiates special "one-time" inspections or imposes temporary restrictions on systems or commodities.
  91. How can a TCTO be quickly identified?
    By the number 501 or higher in the third section of the TO number.
  92. Why are interim TCTO's issued in an electronic message format?
    To speed delivery and implementation.
  93. What are ways, or formats, in which TOs issued?
    Hard copy (paper based) or compact disc.
  94. Why is it important to ensure that you are using the most current TO for your particular job?
    Working with outdated information could result in serious injury and/or damage to tools/equipment
  95. What factors is the need for a TO revision based on?
    The impact of changes and supplement on the usability of the TO, urgency of need for update, cost, and quantity of stock on hand.
  96. If a TO change contains new material that cannot be included on an existing page, how are added pages assigned?
    With the preceding page number and a suffix, such as 2-2.1 or 2-2A.
  97. How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
    A bold vertical black line alongside the affected text in the margin and there is a silhouette of a pointing hand in a figure, picture, or illustration.
  98. What form is used to recommended improvements to TOs?
    AFTO IMT 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply
  99. What are potential results of an approved TO recommendation?
    Correcting an error, insert an omitted technical fact, or standardize improved procedures for all personnel AF wide.
  100. Paper copies of the AFTO IMT 22 will not be accepted without prior approval from whom?
    The TO manager.
  101. What is reliability centered maintenance (RCM)?
    A disciplined methodology used to identify preventative maintenance tasks to ensure equipment meets its life expectancy at minimum cost to the government. It also is a maintenance concept that has the objective of achieving the inherent or designed-in reliability of a system.
  102. What is the goal of RCM?
    To optimize ETOW through a disciplined analysis and structured processes to identify cost-effective and technically sound maintenance policies.
  103. What is the process of trying to match modules with approximately the same amount of time left on them when assembling engines?
    Module matching
  104. What is the et&d program?
    An integration of hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health.
  105. How do flight line personnel use ET&D data?
    By collecting raw engine date and transferring it to the base engine maintenance shop for analysis.
  106. What is the ET&D program designed to determine?
    If maintenance must be performed before the next flight and/or before the next scheduled engine change.
  107. What are CRFs designed for and what type of support do they provide?
    Designed to take advantage of existing repair center to sustain deployed forces and reduce forward support footprint; provides regional repair support during steady-state or contingency operations.
  108. Operating CRP rules should be mutually agreed upon by whom?
    Appropriate lead commands.
  109. How are CRF assets accounted for and tracked.
    By using the AF portal to report daily status of these assets IAW prescribed instructions.
  110. What is depot maintenance?
    Maintenance performed on material requiring overhauling or rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items.
  111. Why does depot maintenance stock serviceable equipment?
    Because it has more extensive repair facilities than those available at the base level.
  112. What type of maintenance does deport perform?
    Engine/component overhaul, jet engine intermediate maintenance (JEIM) level functions, disassembly, inspections, repairs, replacements, assemble and test engines/components, and engine systems.
  113. From where does the AF obtain deport maintenance?
    Organic Department of Defense facilities and private sector contractors.
  114. What is the primary objective of CEMS?
    To obtain accurate information on the status, condition, and location of aircraft engines, gearboxes, and modules in the AF inventory.
  115. What is used to collect and store information provided by different engine reporting systems?
    CEMS collects the information and stores it in a central database (CDB).
  116. What section monitors engine removals and replacements and tracks components at the base?
    Base level engine management (EM) section.
  117. What are the two categories of status reporting?
    The first is for engines and modules; the second category is for tracked components.
  118. What is the purpose of AFTO IMT 95?
    For maintaining a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end items of equipment.
  119. What should you do if an automated data system is not available for engine status reporting?
    Use the AFTO IMT 95 to collect the data manually and in sufficient detail to update the automated systems when practical.
  120. In general, what conditions should be documented on the AFTO IMT 95?
    Conditions that could have a bearing on the future maintenance of the equipment.
  121. What is the lead the fleet/pacer program?
    An accelerated mission usage program that assists in maturing the engines, modules, line replaceable units (LRU), ship replaceable units (SRU), and their subsystems.
  122. What type of information does the lead the fleet/pacer program provide?
    Early intelligence on equipment integrity, reliability, maintainability, before the majority of the fleet is impacted.
  123. How do the participating units manage the pacer engines?
    At twice the normal flying rate
  124. Which program does the lead the fleet/pacer program support?
    The overall engine life cycle management plan.
  125. Why shouldn't you use a greasy tool?
    Because the tool could become slippery and you could lose your grip.
  126. Why shouldn't you put tools in your pockets?
    Increases the chances of you losing them and increases your chances of being injured.
  127. How is the value of a torque wrench expressed?
    Inch pounds and foot pounds.
  128. What is the most common type of torque wrench used in the AF?
    The breakaway type.
  129. If you drop a torque wrench, what action must you take?
    Recalibrate it with a torque wrench tester.
  130. When using the thickness gauge to check the gap between two surfaces, what important point regarding accuracy should you always remember?
    The accuracy of the gauge will depend on one's ability to determine by feel when there is the correct tension or pressure on the blades.
  131. What are the parts of an outside micrometer?
    Frame, anvil, spindle, lock, vernier scale, barrel, and thimble.
  132. What are the three basic types of micrometers and their purposes?
    • Outside micrometer - to measure outside diameters.
    • Inside micrometer - to measure inside dimensions
    • Depth micrometer - to measure the depth of holes or recesses.
  133. Which other measuring tool can you use while practicing with a micrometer to aid you in becoming proficient in using the micrometer?
    A feeler gauge
  134. How many revolutions would you have to turn the thimble of a micrometer to read 0.025 of an inch?
    One complete revolution.
  135. Which part of the micrometer has graduations that represents tenths of an inch?
    The barrel.
  136. What type of device is a dial indicator?
    A mechanical motion-amplifying device.
  137. With two indicators within one dial face on dial indicators, what does the smaller inset indicator measure?
    Revolutions.
  138. What is the single greatest assurance against excessive wear, breakage, and other damage to measuring tools?
    A careful user.
  139. What element is the most prevalent cause of excessive wear of measuring tools?
    Dirt.
  140. What should you apply to steel measuring tools that are stored in a shop area having a high relative humidity?
    Corrosion preventing coating of lubricating oil
  141. Which control switch on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is used to set the meter to check for alternating current, direct current, and ohms?
    Function selector rotary switch.
  142. Which control switch is used to take measurements in a circuit that's difficult to reach?
    Hold push button.
  143. Where are measurement results displayed on the meter?
    On the digital display.
  144. What's the most important safety precaution to observe when using the ohms function of the multimeter?
    Do not hook an ohmmeter to a live circuit.
  145. What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the decimal point is at 300 on the digital display?
    320 volts.
  146. What is the purpose of the borescope inspection?
    For visual inspection of the internal sections of an assembled engine.
  147. What types of borescopes are used on today's engines?
    Rigid, flexible, and videoimage.
  148. What factors determine whether or not someone is capable of becoming qualified to operate a borescope?
    Experience, maturity and rank.
  149. Where is the diameter of a bolt measured?
    On the grip.
  150. Why are fine-thread bolts stronger than coarse-thread bolts?
    Because they have a greater cross-sectional area.
  151. Into what two general groups are nuts divided?
    nonself-locking and self-locking.
  152. What is the maximum safe working temperature for nonmetallic self-locking nuts?
    250 degrees.
  153. Which screw is made from high tensile material?
    Structural screws
  154. Which screw is used for general purpose?
    Machine screws
  155. What are the four types of machine-head screws?
    Roundhead, flathead, filister-head, socket-head.
  156. How do lockwasher secure bolts and screws?
    Through the use of spring action and sharp tempered edge.
  157. In aircraft maintenance, which are the more commonly used pins?
    Tapered pins, flathead pins, cotter pins, roll pins, and quick-release pins.
  158. What type of pin is used in conjunction with a cotter pin or safety pin?
    Flathead pin
  159. What is the purpose of safetying devices?
    To maintain the proper torque.
  160. What advantage does steel tubing have over aluminum tubing?
    It will withstand rough handling and high pressure
  161. Why are flexible hose assemblies used instead of metal tubing in some applications?
    To carry fluids where a greater amount of flexibility and a better ability to withstand vibration are necessary.
  162. Why should the bend radii on hoses be bent as large as possible?
    To avoid kinking of the line.
  163. What types of connectors can be used in any system no matter what the pressure is?
    Flared, sleeve or swage types.
  164. What causes most nicks and scratches on engine plumbing?
    Careless handling of tools during maintenance.
  165. How should dust caps be installed on open lines?
    Over the tube ends.
  166. What is the allowable limit for a dent in a straight line?
    Less than 20%, unless it is on the heel of the short bend radius.
  167. What is the maximum distance a hose can go without support?
    24 Inches.
  168. Why should a preliminary inspection of the engine be performed prior to correcting a known discrepancy?
    To ensure an unknown discrepancy doesn't slip by while the engine is undergoing maintenance for a known discrepancy.
  169. What are possible consequences of a dirty work area?
    Contamination and subsequent engine failures.
  170. How are hints on maintenance procedures highlighted in maintenance manuals?
    With notes, cautions and warnings.
  171. Why should you never stack engine parts with precision finishes on concrete floors?
    Marring and nicking would lead to cracks in the metal and leaks of exhaust gases during engine operation.
  172. Before you prepare an engine for air shipment, what precaution do you take for engine fuel and oil systems?
    Make sure all residual fluids are drained from the engine lubricating and fuel system.
  173. What is the most common shipping container for components?
    The cardboard box.
  174. A flexible environmental container can be used for what type of shipment?
    Air and surface transportation.
  175. What type of cover is opened by using a zipper?
    Prefabricated cover.
  176. What types of inspections are performed on engines after they are involved in mishaps or are dropped?
    visual inspections and test cell functional test.
  177. If an engine was dropped en route and an inspection revealed only minor damage to the engine, which level of maintenance would do the repair work?
    Intermediate maintenance.

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