T-6 Know it All

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  1. 1. What is the flat rated shaft horsepower output of the PT6A-68 engine?
    1100 SHP
  2. What are the two sections of the T-6’s engine?
    Gas generation section and the power turbine section
  3. What components make up the gas generator section of the engine? (aft half)
    4 Stage Axial Flow Compressor - Single-Stage centrifugal flow compressor - Combustion Chamber - Single-Stage Compressor Turbine
  4. What components make up the Power Turbine section?
    2 Stage Axial Flow Power Turbine - Reduction Gearbox
  5. Briefly describe the flow of air into and through the engine?
    Air enters the intake cowling beneath the prop and flows first through an inertial separator.  It then turns 180 deg and passes through a 4 stage axial compressor and a single stage centrifugal compressor.  From there, it enters the combustion chamber, is mixed with fuel and is lit.  The expanding air first passes over the compressor turbine, making the engine self- sustaining, and then passes over the two power turbines before passing through the exhaust ports and diverted rearward by the exhaust stacks.
  6. What is the capacity of the oil system?
    18.5 quarts
  7. What components does the oil system supply filtered oil to?
    Engine Bearings - Reduction Gears - Accessory Drives
  8. What are the components of the oil system?
    Pressure System - Scavenge System - Cooling System - Breather System
  9. When must oil be checked and where to get an accurate reading?
    Within 30 minutes of engine shutdown and using the dipstick, not the sight gauge
  10. Describe when you might see either an OIL PX master caution and/or OIL PX master warning?
    PCL Position Oil Pressure Condition Time Delay Annunciator IDLE <2> Oil Pressure between 15 and 40 psi None Amber OIL PX IDLE <2> Oil Pressure between 15 and 40 psi 5 seconds or more Amber OIL PX, Red OIL PX IDLE <1> <2> Oil Pressure 15 psi or below None Red OIL PX Above IDLE <2> Oil Pressure between 40 and 90 psi 10 Seconds Amber OIL PX Above IDLE <1> <2> Oil Pressure to 40 psi or below None Red OIL PX
  11. The engine oil pressure indicator may display oil pressures up to __ psi with the engine shut down due to the design of the oil pressure transmitter.
  12. Caution: For most accurate results, check oil level how many long after shutdown?
    15-20 minutes
  13. Caution: What is the only acceptable method for getting a correct indication of oil level?
  14. T/F  Due to the sensitivity of the SCU, a single, momentary illumination of the amber OIL PX annunciator while maneuvering indicates a system malfunction.
    - False
  15. What is the function of the reduction gearbox?
    To reduce the power turbine output of 30,000 RPM to propeller operation speed off 2000 RPM
  16. What drives the Reduction GB?
    Hot Gases impinging on the 2-Stage Power Turbine
  17. What does a red CHIP annunciator indicate
    contaminated oil
  18. T or F: the RGB is mechanically connected to the gas generator section of the engine?
    False – No Mechanical Connection to the Gas Generator Section
  19. What accessories are mounted on the reduction gearbox?
    Prop interface unit (PIU), torque probe, Permanent magnetic alternator (PMA) (on top), and the air conditioning compressor (belt driven) (on right side)
  20. A chip detector is mounted in the RGB to detect ferrous material in the ___.
  21. The propeller system is designed to maintain a constant speed of _____ during most flight conditions?
    2000 RPM (100% Np)
  22. What is the unit on the primary engine data display that indicates prop speed?
  23. At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approx _____ foot pounds of torque at the prop shaft?
    2900 ft-lbs
  24. What are the three basic conditions of propeller pitch?
    Feathered - low pitch (flat or fine) - high pitch (coarse)
  25. Approximately what is the blade angle of the propeller at low pitch? - 15deg 6. Normally, propeller governing is automatically set by the ____ and ____.
    PMU and PIU
  26. What happens to the prop if there is an engine failure with the PCL out of the Cut-Off position?
    The prop will slowly begin to feather due to loss of oil pressure but MAY NOT fully feather
  27. Power for the feather dump solenoid valve is provided through which circuit breaker?
  28. How is the pitch of the prop controlled?
    The PMU controls prop RPM by varying blade angle with oil pressure through the PIU.  Pressurized oil forces the piston forward to decrease pitch toward fine.  With a reduction in pressure the blades turn towards coarse pitch.
  29. With the PMU functioning, the _______________ will modulate oil pressure to the prop pitch change piston to limit Np to 106%, while electronic governor will keep Np at 100%
    mechanical overspeed governor
  30. If PMU is not functioning, the ______________ will modulate oil pressure to maintain Np at or below 100+/-2 %.
    flyweight overspeed governor (checked in hammerhead)
  31. What will happen if the PROP SYS CB is pulled, the PMU is off, and the PCL is placed in CUT- OFF?
    The prop will not rapidly feather and may not fully feather until after landing
  32. During an auto start or normal operations with the ignition set to NORM, the ____ will energize and de-energize the igniters as required
  33. Power for the START control is provided through a circuit breaker placarded START, located on the ________ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit.
  34. During an auto start or normal operation with the IGNITION switch set to _________, the PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required.
  35. Power for the IGNITION system is provided through a circuit breaker, placarded IGN, located on the _______ bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit
  36. T/F If the IGN SEL EICAS message remains continuously illuminated, notify maintenance personnel after the mission.
  37. The _____ PCL is connected to the Fuel Management Unit (FMU) both electrically and mechanically with a flexible cable.
  38. T/F When the PCL is moved forward to idle during engine start, two roller bearings lock in place on the front side of a rocker cam detent to secure a gate
    True (this is what makes the two audible clicks when pushing the PCL up @ 60%)
  39. T/F During ground ops and after the engine is started, if the PCL is inadvertently moved to cutoff and the engine is shutting down, attempt to relight the engine by moving the PCL to idle
    False – DO NOT try to relight the engine in the above situation, SEVERE engine damage could occur
  40. What is the primary source of power for the PMU?
  41. What sort of power does the PMA provide?
    32 VAC
  42. When does the PMU automatically switch to 28 VDC from the battery bus?
    When prop RPM drops below 40-50% Np - When the PMA fails
  43. he aircraft weight on wheels switch on the main gear struts controls what for the PMU?
    PMU In Flight and Ground Mode 5. In ground mode, what is idle?  Flight mode?  - 60% N1 - 67% N1
  44. Above ______ feet MSL the PMU raises N1 to maintain Np above 80% to avoid stress on the propeller during spins
    10,000 MSL
  45. Relation of PCL position to power setting is _______ with the PMU operating.
  46. In what situations will the PMU automatically abort the start?
    light off has not occurred within 10 seconds of selecting AUTO/RESET - ITT exceeds 940 deg C for 2 seconds, 870 for 4 sec, or 840 for 19 seconds - N1 acceleration rate to idle is 50% less than normal
  47. Is the automatic shutdown feature provided by the PMU available in flight mode?
  48. You can expect your IOAT and ITT data to be invalid as well as an EDM FAIL displayed on the EICAS if the PMU is activated when the IOAT is within what range?
    96-121 Celsius
  49. The PMU will go offline when the IOAT exceeds _____?
    - 121 degrees Celsius
  50. With the PCL set to ST READY, when you place the starter switch to AUTO/RESET, the PMU will automatically activate what
    Starter - Boost pump - Igniters
  51. At what N1 in the start sequence will the PMU deenergize the starter and igniters and turn off the boost pump, provided that fuel px is greater than 10 psi?
    Approximately 50% N1
  52. When may you advance the PCL to IDLE during engine start?
    Any time N1 is at or above 60%
  53. When is a manual abort necessary during engine starts?
    PMU is inoperative - PCL has been moved out of the ST READY position
  54. How can an AUTO engine start be manually aborted?
    Retard PCL back to OFF - reselect AUTO/RESET on the starter switch
  55. What does illumination of both the PMU FAIL and PMU STATUS annunciators indicate?
    - PMU system is in manual mode (faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits, or pilot switches PMU OFF)
  56. What does a PMU STATUS annunciation one minute after landing indicate?
    - Fault conditions that are not serious enough to revert the system to manual mode are encountered in flight.
  57. When the PMU is in manual mode, the PCL schedules fuel directly to the engine through the FMU, and the pilot must be careful to ensure what is not exceeded?
    N1 - Temperature - Torque
  58. What does a PMU STATUS annunciation in flight indicate? What does it mean?
    A fault in either of, or a mismatch between the weight-on-wheels switches - The PMU will not revert to ground mode upon landing. - Landing distance will be longer than normal
  59. Does the PMU provide engine protection during airstarts?
    No, ITT, Torque limit, and N1 protection is not available.
  60. Power for FIRE 1 is provided through a CB placarded FIRE 1 located on the _______ bus CB panel in the front cockpit.
  61. Power for FIRE 2 is provided through a CB  placarded FIRE 2 located on the ________ bus CB in the front cockpit
  62. What is the primary method of refueling the T-6?
    Single-point pressure refueling
  63. How much fuel is provided through the single point refueling?
    1100 pounds
  64. How much more fuel is available with over the wing refueling?
    100 pounds
  65. Within how many pounds does the auto balance system keep the wing tanks?
  66. When does the red FUEL PX annunciator illuminate?
    When the low pressure switch indicates less than 10 psi fuel pressure
  67. How many pounds of fuel remain in a wing when the associated FUEL LO annunciator illuminates?
    110 pounds
  68. When will the FUEL BAL annunciator illuminate?
    If indicated fuel balance exceeds 30 pounds for 2 minutes
  69. What does FP FAIL indicate?
    Failure of a fuel probe
  70. Will automatic fuel balancing be available with fuel probe failure?
  71. What should you do if the FUEL PX annunciator illuminates and the boost pump activates during inverted flight?
    Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after the flight
  72. When does FUEL PX illuminate? Where?
    <10 psi in the motive flow supply line
  73. Three times the boost pump light will illuminate?
    When switch is turned on - Automatically by the low px switch as long as PCL is above idle - Whenever starter is activated (automatically or manually)
  74. What is the purpose of the electric boost pump?
    Provides fuel for engine start - Serves as back-up to the engine driven low pressure pump
  75. What happens if the engine driven high pressure pump fails?
    The engine will fail due to fuel starvation and cannot be restarted
  76. How many volts does the Starter Generator produce? Amperage?
    28 VDC - 300 amps
  77. How much voltage does the generator need to supply to charge the battery?
    25 volts
  78. When the generator is not providing power for the electrical system what is?
    4 VDC/42 AMP Battery (battery does not power air conditioning)
  79. If the red GEN annunciator illuminates, the battery will take over powering what equipment?
    Everything except the air conditioner, which will automatically be shed
  80. The Auxiliary Battery produces how many VOLTS/AMPS?
    24 VDC/5 AMP hour
  81. What items are powered by the Auxiliary Battery?
    Standby Instruments, Standby instrument lights, UHF backup, Fire 1.
  82. Do not connect external power if the battery voltage is below what?
    22 volts
  83. How is the aircraft protected from overvoltage/undervoltage from an external power source?
    A voltage sensor detects voltage level and if it changes to a certain extent, the external power will be disconnected from the aircraft electrical system.
  84. In the event of generator failure, the battery should provide power for approximately how long?  Under what conditions?
    30 minutes - BUS TIE is open and minimal radio communications
  85. If needed, the auxiliary battery should provide power for approximately how long?
    30 min
  86. What is the corrective action if brake pressure appears to fade during application or brakes are not responding as expected?
    Fully release brakes then re-apply (both crewmembers must release)
  87. If landing with a complete brake failure, what should you consider/do when thinking of a field to land?
    Crash Crew Available/Familiar Field - Longest and perhaps widest runway available - Use Landing Flaps to land at slowest possible speed - Plan a FIRM landing to dissipate airspeed - Burn as much gas without causing another emergency to be as light as possible
  88. What is the capacity of the hydraulic system?
    5 qts
  89. What is the range of the hydraulic pressure relief valve?
  90. What is normal hydraulic pressure?
    3000 +- 120 psi
  91. Once the hydraulic pressure exceeds _____ the system can power its components
    1800 psi
  92. What does and amber HYDR FL LO annunciator indicate?
    reservoir level is below approximately 1 qt.
  93. With the HYDR FL LO light illuminated, can the gear and flaps still be lowered using the main system?
  94. When does the amber EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminate?
    When emergency accumulator pressure drops below 2400 +- 150 ps
  95. What prevents hydraulic fluid from the emergency system from flowing back into the main system?
    Check valve
  96. What prevents a leak in the emergency system from depleting the main hydraulic system?
    Hydraulic fuse
  97. What is the flow limit for the hydraulic fuse between the emergency and main hydraulic system?
    .25 gpm
  98. What cockpit indication will you have if hydraulic pressure is low?
    The gauge will turn turn from white to amber below 1800 psi (only indication you’ll have)
  99. The landing gear system is ___________ actuated and __________ sequenced to extend and retract the landing gear and main gear doors. -
    Hydraulically - Electrically
  100. If the gear handle is difficult to raise to the UP position what do you do?
    Return the gear handle to the DOWN position.  Do not use the downlock override handle
  101. If you have a failure of the weight-on-wheels micro-switch, use of the downlock override button will allow the gear handle to be raised, but will that retract the landing gear?
  102. How long does normal gear extension and retraction take?
    6 seconds
  103. If the emergency gear extension is used, what indication will you see on the landing gear control unit?
    3 green, 2 red (gear door lights), and red landing gear handle light
  104. In what situations will you hear the aural gear tone?
    Gear handle is not down with weight on wheels - Gear is not indicating down and locked with the flaps set to LDG (regardless of gear door position, power setting, or airspeed) - Gear handle not DOWN (regardless of actual gear position) with the PCL below a mid-range (app. 87% N1) position, airspeed below 120 KIAS, and flaps set to UP or T/O
  105. When would the normal flap operation and position indicators be unavailable?
    Battery bus failure - Auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power
  106. When would the emergency flap operation be unavailable?
    Auxiliary battery is the only source of electrical power
  107. What will happen to the flaps if power to the flap control circuit is lost (loss of power to the battery bus or FLAP CONT circuit breaker has opened)?
    The flaps will retract to the UP position - Flap indication will be unreliable
  108. How would you know inside the cockpit that the flap indicator is not receiving power and therefore is giving an unreliable indication?
    The position pointer will move to a position counterclockwise of the UP position(the indicator will point above the “UP” position)
  109. Can the flaps be extended using emergency extension if the AUX Batt is the only source of electrical power?
  110. Can the flaps be retracted if they have been extended using the emergency extension?
  111. When will the speed brake automatically retract?
    PCL moved to MAX  - The flaps are extended
  112. Will power to trim actuators continue to be interrupted after you release the trim interrupt button?
  113. Besides interrupting power to the trim actuators, pressing the trim interrupt button also disengages what?
  114. . What is the purpose of the bobweight installed on the front control stick?
    increases stick forces as G-load increases (improves control feel and helps prevent overstressing the airframe)
  115. After setting T/O trim, the TAD will make no further inputs until what point?
    80 KIAS with no weight on wheels
  116. For protection from birdstrike, the windscreen and front windscreen is designed to withstand  the impact of a 4lb bird at speeds up to _______ knot
  117. 4. How much pressure is needed to pull the CFS handle in either cockpit or externally
    15 - 25 pounds
  118. When do you get the Red CANOPY Warning on the EICAS?
    When the canopy latch mechanism and microswitches do not indicate the canopy is in the closed and locked position
  119. The ejection seats in the T-6 are capable of providing safe escape from the aircraft at what altitudes and at what airspeed?
    - 0 feet up to 35,000 feet - 0 speed up to 370 KIAS
  120. What is the purpose of the manual override (MOR) handle on the right side of each seat?
    Initiates seat/pilot separation if the automatic system fails or if seat/pilot separation is desired above 14,000 feet MSL
  121. What is the duration of the emergency oxygen system supply?
    10 min
  122. What two ways can the emergency oxygen system be activated?
    automatically during ejection, or by pulling the green ring while in the cockpit
  123. If it is necessary to pull the green ring, descent below what altitude should be initiated?
    Below 10,000 feet cabin altitude or 10,000 feet MSL (if cabin pressure is lost) - Should occur within 10 minutes
  124. SEAWARS is designed to release within ____ seconds after being immersed in salt water
  125. What uses Engine Bleed Air?
    Canopy pressurization seal - Anti-G system - Cockpit heating and defogging - Pressurization - OBOGS
  126. Bleed air from the left side P3 port is for what?
  127. Bleed air from the right side P3 port is for what?
    Canopy Seal - Anti-G - Heating/Defogging - Pressurization
  128. To prevent bleed air from entering the cockpit, what two switches must be in the OFF position?
  129. When will the DUCT TEMP annunciator illuminate?
    Bleed air temp exceeds 300 degrees
  130. Placing the DEFOG switch to ON does what 3 things?
    Opens up the defog valve - Sets the inflow valve to high - Activates the air conditioning compressor
  131. How do you defog the canopy?
    Set Vent Control Lever to CANOPY  and air will be routed to the windshield DEFOG outlets in both cockpits
  132. How does the operation of canopy defog affect ITT?
    It increases ITT for a given PCL setting due to higher bleed air load on the engine
  133. If operating correctly, the pressurization system will maintain a differential pressure of what?
    3.6 +/- 0.2 psi
  134. When would you get an amber CKPT ALT annunciator?
    Cockpit pressure altitude rises above 19,000 feet
  135. When would you get the red CKPT PX annunciator?
    Cockpit differential pressure exceeds 3.9 to 4.0 psi
  136. Power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits (except for the backup UHF control head and UHF transceiver) is supplied through which switch?
  137. How many antennas are on the aircraft?
  138. What side of the aircraft has the primary pitot/static system?
  139. What does the Engine Data Manager (EDM) do?
    Monitors engine performance and illuminates appropriate EICAS display
  140. Optimum approach airspeed will decrease approximately 3 knots for every _____ pounds of fuel
    - 400
  141. What is full scale deflection of the CDI when the GPS is in EN ROUTE mode? APR ARM? APR ACT?
    5 NM - 1 NM - 0.3 NM
  142. Where is the primary pitot system probe located? What system does it provide data to?
    Right wing - Air Data Computer
  143. The secondary pitot tube provides pressures to what system(s)?
    EDM - Standby altimeter - Standby airspeed indicator
  144. The ADC uses pitot/static air inputs and calculates what?
    Airspeed - Altitude - Climb Rate
  145. The TAT probe is located where?
    Underside of Left Wing
  146. The TAT probe provides air temperature input to the _______.
  147. Why is it important to avoid sustained ground operations with the PROBES ANTI-ICE switch on?
    The TAT probe can overheat which in turn will prevent accurate TAT  information to the ADC
  148. What does the white diamond indicate?  Units?
    Maximum endurance (Diamonds are Forever) - 8.8 units
  149. What does the white triangle indicate?  Units?
    Maximum range - 4.9
  150. What is the difference between maximum range and maximum endurance?
    Max range – greatest amount of flying distance per pound of fuel remaining - Max endurance – greatest amount of flying time per pound of fuel remaining
  151. What does the amber donut (circle) indicate on the AOA indexer?
    Optimum angle of attack range for landing (app. 1.3 times the stall speed)
  152. When does the stick shaker activate?  At what AOA?
    App. 5 to 10 knots above stall speed - 15.5 units
  153. What VHF frequency will the ELT transmit on if activated?
  154. The ELT battery allows the ELT to transmit for how long?
    50 hrs
  155. Where are the landing and taxi lights located?
    - Landing light - left side - Taxi Light - right side
  156. Which side is the green navigation light located?
  157. Which side is the red navigation light located?
  158. When placed to MAX, the OBOGS will provide 100% oxygen.
    False (about 95% depending on altitude)
  159. What does the BIT button do?
    Used to activate the initiated OBOGS BIT any time after engine start AND the 3 minute warm-up.  It verifies that the OBOGS sensor and OBOGS FAIL warning are operating properly.
  160. Up to ___ pounds of baggage may be stowed in the baggage compartment
  161. What are the external ground power requirements?
    28 to 28.5 VDC - 1000 to 1500 AMPs
  162. If possible, move aircraft to a hangar when winds above ___ knots are expected.
  163. To preclude inadvertent seat firing, ensure what?
    Both ejection seat handle safety pins are installed - warning streamer is free and clear of handle
  164. With the starter switch in AUTO or MANUAL, what happens when electrical power is applied to the aircraft?
    the prop will begin to rotate immediately upon power application.
  165. What is the minimum battery voltage for a battery start?
    23.5 VDC
  166. What items do you check when confirming that the ejection seat is good?
    CFS attach bolt, parachute risers inertia reel, inertia retraction device lock release plunger, lap belt, leg restraint lines, MOR handle, oxygen hoses, SSK, seat oxygen supply
  167. What things are you looking for when checking the main gear?
    No hydraulic leaks, no external damage, tire condition (no red cord and general condition), strut extension (2 in), doors secure, Landing gear lock pin and flag removed, no wheel damage, landing light condition, brake wear indicator (should protrude)
  168. If the brake wear indicator is not protruding, what else can be done to brake wear indicator to protrude as it should?
    Reset the parking brake and re-check
  169. What items are you checking for in the single point refueling door?
    Refueling cap secure, pre-check valves down, fuel filter indicator in, maintenance fuel shutoff valve (with the flow line)
  170. What are you checking in the engine compartment?
    Oil filler cap secure, hot battery bus CB all in, general condition
  171. What is the min strut extension of the nose gear?
  172. Do not connect external power if battery voltage is below what voltage?
    22 Volts
  173. During High IOAT procedures, place the STARTER switch in MANUAL for a maximum of how long?
    20 sec
  174. Is the start sequence is considered an engine duty cycle
  175. Failure to ensure the ST READY EICAS advisory remains illuminated for 3 seconds prior to engine start may result in _______ ________ from the start being in manual mode
    engine damage
  176. Caution – If the ST READY light goes out once the start sequence has been initiated, you should immediately?
    terminate start
  177. How do you terminate the engine start sequence?
  178. With the PMU STATUS light illuminated during engine start, what will not be available?
    PMU auto abort function
  179. T/F Engine sounds associated with compressor instability during start are acceptable as long as PMU allows the start to continue
    True 10
  180. Aural tones will be inaudible during engine start any time N1 is below what?
  181. . What are you looking for when checking Flight Instruments?
    Pitch, roll, heading, and vertical speed indicators and no flags
  182. Prior to pulling ejection seat safety pin ensure what?
    Safety streamer is free and clear of ejection seat handle
  183. Any fault discovered in this check is reason for what?
    Ground Abort
  184. T/F  Power should be set to attain 30% Torque during the Overspeed Governor Check
    False (100% Np)
  185. What is the earliest point at which the Lineup Check should be accomplished?
    After receiving T/O or Line UP and Wait clearance
  186. How long should you wait before takeoff behind a larger type aircraft or helicopter?
    Two minutes
  187. If gusty winds are present, increase rotation speed by what?
    ½ the Gust Factor up to 10 Knots
  188. What is the range of desired climb airspeed?
    140-180 KIAS
  189. Charted Climb performance is based on what airspeed?
    140 KIAS
  190. When should Ops Checks be performed during flight?
    • At initial level-off
    • - About every 15 minutes
  191. You should check that the fuel is balanced within what range prior to any stalls, spins, or aerobatics?
    50 lbs
  192. What is the dash one recommended enroute descent airspeed range?
    200-250 KIAS
  193. What is the recommended holding speed  and configuration?
    125 to 150 KIAS -
  194. If nose wheel shimmy occurs during landing roll, what should you do?
    Apply back stick pressure to relieve the weight on the nose wheel
  195. . N1 will automatically reduce form flight idle (67%) to ground idle (60%), approximately___ seconds after touchdown
  196. With gusty winds, you should increase threshold and touchdown speeds by what?
    50% of the gust increment up to 10 knots
  197. 1. After landing and situation develops where you have overheated brakes (most likely from max braking), do not taxi where?
    - Taxi into or park in a congested area until the brakes have had a sufficient time to cool.  DO NOT set the Parking Brake.
  198. The ITT should be stabilized at idle for at least how long prior to engine shutdown?
    1 minute
  199. Why do we deactivate the OBOGS regulators during the engine shutdown checklist?
    to prevent draining the aircraft battery
  200. If a PMU fault is detected, the PMU STATUS message will illuminate when after touchdown?
    1 minute
  201. Define Land as soon as Possible
    An emergency shall be declared and a landing accomplished at the nearest suitable landing area considering the severity of the emergency, weather conditions, field facilities, ambient lighting, and command guidance.
  202. Define Land as Soon as Practical.
    Emergency condition is less urgent and, although the mission is to be terminated, the degree of the emergency is such that an immediate landing may not be necessary.
  203. In what situations should you manually abort an engine start?
    ITT rate appears likely to exceed 1000 deg C (hot start) - normal N1 increase is halted (hung start) - no rise of ITT 10 sec after fuel flow indications (no start) - BAT BUS annunciator illuminates during the start sequence - PCL is moved or the ST READY light annunciator extinguishes
  204. Can you attempt subsequent starts if a start is aborted while using external power?
  205. n what 4 situations should the emergency engine shutdown on the ground boldface be accomplished?
    engine fire - chip light - prop strike - aircraft likely to depart prepared surface - Not limited to these situations
  206. Does each internal CFS handle activate the charges for both transparencies or the respective transparency?
    Respective transparency
  207. If a raised barrier is already in place and your current speed indicates you cannot stop short of it what should you do?
    Steer around it to include departing the prepared surface if necessary - Eject if necessary
  208. If you blow a tire on t/o and the decision is made to continue, what actions should be taken?
    Do not change the position of the gear and flaps - Fly a straight-in approach - Land on side of the runway with the good tire – put bad tire (drag) towards the middle of the runway
  209. Initial indications of engine failure/flameout are what?
    oss of power - Loss of airspeed - Rapid Decay in N1, Torque, and ITT - Propeller movement toward feather due to loss of oil pressure - N1 will indicate 0% within 5 seconds – airspeed dependent o N1 does not indicate speeds below 8% - As prop moves toward feather, it may still be windmilling at a reduced RPM
  210. What are Secondary indication of engine failure/flameout?
    Rapidly decreasing ITT  - Lower than normal Oil Pressure
  211. What are the procedures for a zoom climb above 150 KIAS?
    2 G pull-up to 20 degrees nose high until reaching 20 KIAS above glide speed, then initiate a 0 to 0.5 G pushover to capture glide speed
  212. . In what 3 situations is an airstart not warranted?
    Fire - Mechanical (Frozen Engine, Fod)
  213. If an airstart is successful, how long will it take for you to have usable power?
    40 sec
  214. What is the airstart envelope?
    125-200 KIAS Sea Level to 15000ft MSL - 135-200 KIAS 15,001 to 20,000 ft MSL
  215. How much altitude can you expect to lose while performing an airstart?
    1,200 feet at 125 KIAS glide speed
  216. How long should it take for the prop to unfeather once the PROP SYS circuit breaker has been pulled?
    15 – 20 seconds
  217. What is the primary reason for reducing the PCL to mid range if experiencing an uncommanded power change, loss of power, or uncommanded prop feather?
    Minimizes the potential of engine overtorque and/or overtemp when the PMU is turned of
  218. When is the Np considered stable below 40%?
    No upward change for 3 seconds
  219. With an Uncommanded Power Loss/Prop Sleeve Touchdown, if Np indicator is displaying Red X’s, switching the PMU to _____ and back ____ will reset the PMU and should restore Np indication
    - NORM, OFF
  220. With the engine still running, if your descent rate while stabilized at 125 KIAS is greater than 1500 ft/min, what should you do?
    - Increase torque to achieve between 1350 and 1500 ft/min rate of descent
  221. What if engine power is insufficient to achieve the desired 1350 to 1500 ft/min descent rate?
    CL – OFF (pick up 125 knot glide with feathered prop)
  222. If it is necessary to shut down the engine after completing the Uncommanded Power change/Loss of power/Uncommanded Prop Feather Boldface, what should you do to ensure that the prop will feather?
    Reset the PROP SYS circuit breaker
  223. What is the major difference between a compressor stall and an uncommanded power change/loss/prop feather?
    Loud bangs - Backfires - Engine sputtering - Flames and/or smoke coming from the exhaust stacks
  224. If after reducing the PCL towards IDLE, a fire light goes out, what problem should you suspect?
    Bleed air leak
  225. If only one fire loop annunciator is illuminated and the other loop tests good, what should you suspect?
    False fire indication
  226. After experiencing a fire light in flight, how do you confirm that you actually have a fire?
    Smoke, flames, engine vibration, unusual sounds, high ITT, and fluctuating fluids
  227. With the battery and generator off, how do you extend the landing gear?
    Emergency gear extension
  228. What should you do if you can determine the source of the smoke and fumes (i.e. the faulty component)?
    Turn off the defective unit  - Pull the respective circuit breaker
  229. OBOGS will be _________ once the main battery is depleted or with battery failure
  230. If weather permits, how should you recover the aircraft following an electrical fire?
    VFR recovery without electrical power
  231. . If PMU failure is accompanied by uncommanded power changes other than anticipated changes, do not reset
  232. If the PMU fails, automatic limiting of what will be lost?
    - Torque - ITT - N1
  233. If you have a PMU FAULT in flight, can it be reset?
    No, it is problem with the Weight on Wheels Switch
  234. If engine fuel feed drops below 10 psi and the boost pump fails to engage, the ______ ____ will illuminate
  235. If you have a fuel imbalance, which way do you place the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch?
    To the low tank - pick on the little guy
  236. If you are leaking fuel from a wing, which direction do you put the MANUAL FUEL BAL switch?
    To Non-Leaking tank 46 - drain leaking while you have it
  237. What do you do if fuel state cannot be verified due to a Fuel Probe Malfunction?
    Land as soon as possible.
  238. In most instances, if you experience a hydraulic malfunction, your immediate action should be what?
    Slow down and configure (assuming distance to a suitable field is not a problem)
  239. Fly no slower than min control airspeed plus how many knot on final after a controllability check?
    20 KIAS
  240. What might white dust or powder be indicative of in the oxygen mask?
    Zeolite Dust from the OBOGS
  241. What power setting should you set for a PEL or practice ELP to simulate zero thrust?
  242. Where do you aim to touchdown on the runway during emergency landing patterns?
    first third
  243. When is it an option to land on an unprepared surface?
    When an ejection is not possible.
  244. If engine power is insufficient to produce a rate of descent less than 1500 ft/min set PCL to ____.
  245. If PEL is being performed with IDLE power, add how many feet to high, low, and base  key?
    500 ft
  246. What should you do if the engine fails during a precautionary emergency landing?
    Transition to the Forced Landing
  247. Where is High Key (generic)?
    2500-3000’ AGL (recommended) - 1/3rd  point on runway
  248. If landing on an unprepared surface or ditching, you should plan to land in what configuration?
  249. What is the most preferred method of landing if only an unsafe gear indication can be achieved?
  250. Allowing the nose to forcefully hit the ground may cause structural damage rendering the ____ system inoperative and/or making the canopy difficult to impossible to open.
  251. For most accurate results, check oil level ___ to ___ minutes after shutdown.
  252. What is the maximum ITT for T/O? Idle? Start? Transient?
    820°C - 750°C - 1000°C (5 seconds) - 870°C (20 seconds)
  253. What is the maximum transient Np?
    102% (20 seconds) - 110% (in emergency)
  254. What is the normal operating range for oil pressure? During aero/spins (transient)
    90-120 psi - 40-130 psi or 15-40 psi (5 seconds)
  255. What is the normal operating range for oil temperature? Transient?
    0-105°C - 106-110°C (10 minutes)
  256. What are the limitations of the generator amps in-flight? Voltage?
    +50 to -2 amps - 28.0 to 28.5 Volts
  257. What is the operating maneuvering speed (Vo) for the T-6 ? What is its significance? Rudder?
    27 KIAS - Speed above which full or abrupt control movement can result in structural damage to the aircraft. - 150 KIAS
  258. Zero G-loading should be limited to what
  259. What is the time limit for inverted flight?
    15 sec
  260. With a clean configuration, what are the symmetric G-limits? Asymmetric?
    +7.0 to -3.5 G’s - +4.7 to -1.0 G’s
  261. With the gear and flaps extended, what are the symmetric G-limits? Asymmetric?
    +2.5 to 0.0 G’s - +2 to 0.0 G’s
  262. Maneuvers with ice accumulation are restricted to ____ degrees bank angle and __to ___Gs normal acceleration, up to stall warning system activation
    30, 0 to 2Gs
  263. Engine operation with only the Engine Driven High Pressure fuel pump without both the electric boost pump and the engine driven low pressure fuel pump is limited to ____ hours.
  264. . When ejecting over mountainous terrain exceeding _______ ft MSL, the MOR handle should be used to manually separate from the seat and deploy the parachute
  265. What are the four factors that act as a function of the Trim Aid?
    Engine torque, indicated airspeed, pressure altitude, and pitch rat
  266. Spin entry greater than ___ degrees nose high may result in low oil pressure and engine damage
  267. What will the airspeed stabilize at for a steady erect spin? Inverted Spin?
    Erect 120-135 KIAS - Inverted 40 KIAS
  268. In an erect steady state spin, the will pitch to approximately ____ below the horizon with pitch attitude becoming oscillatory
    60 deg
  269. In an erect steady state spin, what will be the altitude loss per turn?
    400-500 feet
  270. What is critical altitude?
    Altitude where 100% torque is no longer available with PCL at max
  271. What is the runway condition reading or RCR for a dry runway? Wet? Icy?
    DRY 23 - WET 12 - ICY 5
  272. What allowances or assumptions go into maximum abort speed?
    3-second reaction at max abort speed to recognize decision to abort and select idle power, and 3 second period to apply the brakes after idle power is selected.
  273. Speed may increase up to ___ knots during the 6 second period. (3 sec reaction/3 sec period to apply brakes)
    20 KIAS
  274. What does the F-E-V-E-R acronym stand for?
    a. Fluctuating fuel flow, Excessive ITT, Visual signals, Erratic engine operations, and Roughness
  275. What is the maximum airspeed for flying through turbulence? Recommended?
    a. 195 KIAS b. 180 KIAS
  276. What is the maximum rate of descent at touchdown? G’s?
    600 ft/minb. 3.7 G’s
  277. 33. What is the maximum N1 for T/O? Transient?
    a. 104% b. 104%
  278. Well clear of another aircraft is defined as?
    500 ft
  279. What are some choke points in the pattern?
    90-to-initial, VFR entry, closed downwind, high-to-low key, and the perch point
  280. What is the standard for End of Runway Procedures?
    “Entering the EOR, change to the appropriate frequency for takeoff (RSU or Tower).”b. “Set the parking brake, check fore, aft, left and right of the aircraft, ensure both crewmembers are guarding the brakes then accomplish the Overspeed Governor Check.”c. “When taxiing to the hold short line, stagger to provide room for other aircraft, and ensure adequate separation from a preceding aircraft (normally no closer than ½ ship length).”
  281. 2. Note – What are some typical annunciators which may illuminate on initial application of power?
  282. 1. What are the first 4 steps of the Smoke and Fume Elimination/Electrical Fire Checklist?
    a. Descent below 10,000 feet MSLb. PRESSURIZATION switch – RAM DUMPc. BLEED AIR INFLOW switch – OFF d. BAT, GEN, and AUX BAT switches – OFF
  283. If you are electric out, you should enter the pattern at what altitude?
    500 AGL
  284. 1. When should you declare an emergency?
    a. Where the safe recovery of the a/c is in doubt and/or traffic priority is required
  285. On ATIS, when the ceiling and visibility are not given, that are least greater than what?
    5,000 feet and 5 miles
  286. 3. What are the three methods of pattern entry when the status is Restricted Overhead?
    Initial t/o, straight-in from radar termination, or closed/crosswind from the center
  287. 4. The weather for Restricted Overhead is 1,500/3. What are some of the restrictions associated with this status?
    a. No Breakouts, max number of 8, aircraft will carry straight-through initial with straight-ins between 5 and 2
  288. 15. What is the break zone?
    a. between approach end and 3,000 feet down the runway
  289. 18. A proper perch point should allow for what distance when rolling out on final?
    a. ½ to ¾ mile final
  290. 20. Do not start the final turn generally if conflicts exist or if potential conflicts are not in sight. What are some of these situations?
    a. proceeding aircraft in the final turn not in sightb. straight-in aircraft is inside 2 miles and not in sightc. an ELP aircraft is inside low key and normal spacing cannot be maintainedd. Pattern spacing cannot be maintained within the normal ground tracke. Not properly configured by the perch point
  291. 27. Heavy weight equates to a fuel weight of what?
    a. 700-800 pounds
  292. 63. Explain the ORM 3-2-1 acronym.
    • a. Do not descend below 2000 ft AGL unless: i. On profile for the field of intended landingii.With the Runway in sight iii. In a position to safely Maneuver to land
    • b. 300 ft AGL – final decision point to continue or ejectc. 200 ft AGL – gear confirmed and reported downd. 100 ft AGL – a/c should be on centerline
  293. 11. In
    a. Fireb. Fodc. Frozen
Card Set:
T-6 Know it All
2014-01-05 17:40:39

T-6 info
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