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  1. what is the preferred source to obtain blood specimens?
  2. When performing a finger puncture, the first drop should be wiped away to avoid what?
    Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids
  3. How far above the inteded phlebotomy site should the tourniquet be placed?
    3-4 Inches above the site.
  4. The correct needle position for venipuncture is what degree angle and with the bevel in what position?
    15-30 and in the UP position
  5. What is the name of the preferred phlebotomy site?
    Anticubital Fossa
  6. What fingers are preferred for the finger puncture method of blood samples?

    On Children it is the?
    Ring and Middle

  7. When puncturing the finger what do you want to avoid?
    the Midline and the grooves of the finger print
  8. You can draw samples from the feet or hands if the arm is not an option. 

    True or False
  9. What would be 2 reasons to not draw blood from an arm.
    • 1.) an Arm with IV fluids running.
    • 2.) the side that a Masectomy was used on.
  10. When do you remove the tourniquet, and how long can you leave it on for.
    Once blood flows freely into tubes

    1 Minute
  11. When should the specimens be labeled
    Before leaving the patient
  12. Which color tube is the best choice for a CBC
    Lavender Top
  13. Which color tube is the best choice for routine chemistry tests
    Red Top
  14. The part of the microscope on which the prepared specimen is placed for examination is called the?
  15. What are the magnification powers of the microscope?
    Low - 10X * OL =100x

    Med - 40x * OL = 400x

    Oil Immersion (High) - 100x * OL = 1000x
  16. What is the Ocular Lens magnification
  17. what objective should be used for a detailed study of stained bacterial smears
    oil immersion
  18. A complete Blood count includes what, name three?
    • total RBC count
    • Hematocrit
    • differential WBC 
    • Hemoglobin
    • WBC
  19. What are some factors that affect the hemoglobin values.
    • Age
    • Sex
    • altitude
    • Disease
  20. What is the function of Hemoglobin in the body
    Transport oxygen to the tissues
  21. A low rbc count may indicate that the patient has which of the following listed conditions. 

    D.) Anemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. What is never used to clean a microscope lens?
  23. What is the normal male and female hemoglobin ranges
    • Male 14-18
    • Female 12-16
  24. what are the normal levels for WBC
    • 4800-10800
    • or 4.8-10.8
  25. wht is the term used for the volume of Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells) expressed as a percentage of the volume of Whole Blood in a sample
  26. Hematocrit ranges for a normal, healthy male and female
    • Male 42-52%
    • Female 37-47%
  27. what is the term used to describe an abnormally high WBC count
  28. What conditions could cause Leukopenia
    • Radiation
    • psittacosis
    • anaphylactic shock
  29. What term is used to describe low WBC
  30. What are the shapes of the following bacteria coccus, baillus, and spirochetes.
    Spherical, Rod Shape, and Spiral/corkscrew
  31. what are the 5 types of WBC
    • Neutrophils
    • eosinophilis
    • basophils
    • lymphoctes
    • monocytes
  32. what is the shape and color of neutrophils
    • Oval, "S" shape
    • with Lilac Granules and Dark Purple Nucleus
  33. What is the identifying color of Eosnophil
    Large Reddish-Orange Granules
  34. What do Basophils due
    Fight inflammatory disease and some luchimas
  35. What are the four growth requirements of bacteria
    • Temp.
    • oxygen
    • nutrition
    • moisture
  36. What is the identifying color of monocyte's
    Pale bluish gray with indented nucleus
  37. what is the identifing color and shape of lymphocytes
    Clear sky blue, with blue granules with halos around them, and the are round or oval shape with indention
  38. What is the name of the of bacteria that only grow in their specific temp. range
    • Psychrophilc ( Cold Loving) 4`c
    • Mesophilc ( Body Temp.) 35`c these are the primary pathogen
    • themophilic - (High Temp) 42`c
  39. which study within a CBC often provides the most helpful information in determining the severity and type of infection
    WBC differential
  40. what is the function of Leukocytes
    To control various disease conditions
  41. What type of leukocyte compromises the largest percentage of cells in the circulating blood
  42. What is another name for a WBC's
  43. which leukocyte functions by ingesting invading bacteria
  44. which leukocyte helps to respond to parasitic infections
  45. when performing a WBC differential, which cell has the large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker that the nucleus
  46. Which leukocyte fights viral infections
  47. The largest of the normal WBC's is
  48. what is the term used for bacteria that cause disease
  49. the difference between anaerobes and aerobes is that anaerobes need oxygen to reproduce

    True or False
  50. what is the term used to define bacteria that are round in shape
  51. what is the term used to define bacteria that are Rod Shaped
  52. What is the term used to describe bacteria that are Spiral/corkscrew shaped
  53. What does RPR stand for
    Rapid Plasma Reagin
  54. What is the name of defensive proteins that are produced from the reaction of antigens
  55. What is the average urine output and normal range
    • 600-2000 a day 
    • average is 1500
  56. what is another name of Potassium hydroxide
  57. in the gram's stain, what is the primary stain
    crystal violet
  58. Gram positive bacteria stain what color
    deep blue or purple
  59. which bacteria cause gonorrhea
    neisseria gonorrhoeae
  60. which bacteria cause tetanus
    Clostridium tetani
  61. what is the term used for a substance that, when introduced into an individual's body, is recognized as a foreign to the body, and causes a detectable reaction
  62. the RPR is a specific test to diagnose syphilis 

    True or False
    False it is a non specific test
  63. the RPR test to screen for syphilis is best used with what type of specimen
  64. if the monospot is negative, the patient does not have infectious mononucleosis

    True or False
  65. which of the following chemical preparations is frequently used to detect fungi

    A.) Hydrogen Sulfoxide
    B.) Hydrogen Peroxide
    C.) Potassium Hydroxide
    D.) Potassium Sulfate
    C.) Potassium Hydroxide (KOH)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. The best urine specimen for screening purposes is what type
    First Morning Void
  67. What is the desired urine sample volume for routine testing
    12 ml
  68. what urine color is most related with the presence of phenols
    olive green to brown-black
  69. what does a CAST in a urine specimin under high power mean
    a form of kidney disorder
  70. if a urine specimen is refrigerated what must you do before testing it
    return it to room temperature
  71. what tool is used to measure specific gravity
    index refractometer
  72. what is the minimum % of ships company that must be on file and enrolled in the WWB
  73. what does a WBC above 50000 indicate
    acute infection ( Critical Result)
  74. hemoglobin concentration below 7 indicate
    severe anemia ( Critical Result)
  75. bacteria present in a gram stain from direct patient smears is considered
    a critical result
  76. what does WBB stand for
    Walking Blood Bank
  77. which of the following colors would be considered abnormal in a urine sample

    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. what urine color is most related with the presence of blood
  79. what urine color is most related with the presence of Bile
    Yellow or Green
  80. what urine color is most related with a patient being treated with Pyridium
    Dark Orange
  81. a report on urine clarity is valid regardless of standing time

    True or False
    False it must be fresh
  82. the specific gravity of a liquid is the weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of what
    Distilled Water
  83. normal specific gravity for routine urinalysis is within what range
    1.015 - 1.030
  84. the addition of one drop of 2 % acetic acid to urine sediment will disintegrate what type of cells
    Red Blood Cells
  85. what cell is not normally found in urine
    Red Blood cells
  86. which critical result is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes
    glucose and ketones both present in urine
  87. what operational program may be used on some operational platforms to treat critical patients in a mass casualty situation when delay of blood products would cause a critical delay
    WBB Walking Blood Bank
  88. what does the gram positive bacteria streptococcus pneumoniae cause and its shape
    Pneumonia, cocci
  89. what does the gram positive bacteria staphylococcus aureus cause and its shape
    septicemia, endocarditis, Impetaco - cocci
  90. what are some gram negitive cocci
    • Neisseria Gonorrheae
    • neisseria meningitis
  91. what does the bacilli gram positive bacteria corynebacterium diphtheriae cuase
  92. what does the bacilli gram positive bacteria clostridum perfringens (WELCHII) cuase
    Gas Gangrene
  93. what does the bacilli gram positive bacteria clostridum tetani cause
  94. what does the bacilli gram positive bacteria clostridum Botulinum Cause
  95. What does the bacilli Gram Negative Bacteria yersinia(Pasteurella) Pestis cuase
    Bubonic Plague
  96. What does the bacilli Gram Negative Bacteria Brucella Abourtus Cause
  97. What does the bacilli Gram Negative Bacteria Bordetella Pertussis cuase
    Whooping Cough
  98. what form is the laboratory display chit
    SF 545
  99. what are the two principle methods for obtaining a blood sample.
    • Venipuncture method
    • and capillary method
  100. what piece of the illumination system on a microscope controls the amount of light and angle of light rays that will pass to the specimen and lens, this affects the overall resolution
    Iris Diaphragm
Card Set:
2014-01-12 04:29:39

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