Surface Warfare

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  1. During a shore power lineup, what system is secured?
    SSTG
  2. During fixed combat flight operations, which of the following would be the most common.....
    F/A-18
  3. During night time UNREP, what is used to illuminate the flags on the P&D line?
    Chemical Lights
  4. During UNREP, Who is in charge and what color hat do they wear?
    Rig Captain / yellow hat
  5. During UNREP, what ship flies the Golf flag?
    Delivery ship
  6. During what shipboard FPCON is the saluting of Officers secured?
    Delta
  7. Endurance loading of subsistence is based on the total food consumed during what period?
    35-45 days
  8. Enlisted distribution verification reports have how many sections?
    12
  9. Freeboard is a term that represents what?
    Vertical distance from the flight deck to the waterline
  10. Frequency is measured by what unit?
    Hertz
  11. Good Conduct awards are awarded how often for honorable service?
    3
  12. How far from land must the ship be to discharge CHT?
    3 NM
  13. How far from land must the ship be to discharge trash?
    12 NM
  14. How is a strobe light for man overboard turned on?
    By flipping it upside down
  15. How long does a basic reaction force have to respond to a threat?
    5 mins.
  16. The engineering log is a legal document that is held onboard for how long?
    3 years
  17. What is the first step in responding to electrical shock?
    Secure the power
  18. The FWD most mooring line is known as what?
    Bow headline
  19. The headquarters for the 6th Fleet is located where?
    Naples, Italy
  20. The headquarters for 7th Fleet is located where?
    Yokosuka, Japan
  21. The process of estimating one's present position by predicting course and speed from a know.....
    Piloting
  22. The senior security force member who supervises the pier is known as what?
    Chief of the Guard
  23. The ship's ring laser gyros are most closely associated with what?
    WSN-7
  24. The standard organization and regulations manual of the US Navy (SORM), can be found under.....
    OPNAVINST 3120.32C
  25. The SUPPO's principal assistant for readiness would have oversight in all of the following.....
    S-2
  26. The SUPPO's principal assistant for services would have oversight in all of the following.....
    S-6
  27. The use of viruses to weaken or kill the enemy is known as what?
    Biological warfare
  28. What is used to treat stored water, freeing them from biological contaminates?
    Hypochlorinators / Brominator
  29. What alarm is not located on the ship's control console?
    Biological
  30. What are the 3 main material conditions of readiness?
    X, Y, Z
  31. What chemical is used to disinfect potable water hoses?
    Chlorine
  32. What code word do you use to let everyone know that there is an intruder on the line?
    Gingerbread
  33. What color are the piping systems carrying refrigerant
    Dark purple
  34. What color is the port running light?
    Red
  35. What color is the starboard running light?
    Green
  36. What colors are found on the Oscar flag?
    Yellow / Red
  37. What communication frequency is SATCOMM associated with?
    EHF
  38. What CONREP station would you use to send fuel?
    21
  39. What data link is multiple frequency, used for data/voice, and is virtually unjammable?
    16
  40. What day shape is displayed during fixed-wing flight operations?
    Ball-Diamond-Ball
  41. What day shape would the ship haul up if it ran aground?
    Ball-Ball-Ball
  42. What deck/level is damage control central located on?
    4
  43. What device is used for celestial navigation?
    Sextant
  44. What engineering division works most closely with the ship's oxygen and nitrogen producing.....
    A-division
  45. What document lists equipment components, repair parts, special tools, OSI and consumables?
    COSAL
  46. What does C2W stand for?
    Command and Control Warfare
  47. What does NPMTT stand for?
    Nuclear Power Mobile Training Team
  48. What does the color red indicate during flight deck operations?
    The ship is not ready for flight operations
  49. What enlisted rate must be stationed in the degaussing switchboard room during operation.....
    EM
  50. What enlisted rate would most likely work with the ship's collection, holding, and transfer.....
    HT
  51. What fire suppression systems are used for catapults?
    Steam smothering
  52. What flag indicates small boat recall?
    Quebec
  53. What flag represents man overboard?
    Oscar
  54. What flag represents personnel working aloft?
    Kilo
  55. What flight deck crew uniform color is most closely associated with arresting gear?
    Green
  56. What flight deck status indicates clearance to launch aircraft within 2 minutes!
    Amber deck
  57. How long should pier-side potable water hoses be flushed for prior to disinfection?
    15 - 30 seconds
  58. What FPCON is set when a more predictable terrorist threat exists, but installations are not.....
    Bravo
  59. What has the most effect on sound speed below 1,000 feet?
    Pressure
  60. What is a Mk-79?
    Pencil flare
  61. What is another name for the AS-3771 antenna?
    Stubby
  62. What is another term for RODMETER?
    PITSWORD
  63. What is designed to ensure that all switchboards remain energized if an SSTG is lost?
    Ring Bus
  64. What is it called when you have clutter on radar due to reflection of signals by the sea?
    Sea return
  65. What is it called when you have higher concentration of salt in the water that will cause a.....
    Salinity
  66. What is the abbreviation for a fleet ocean tug?
    ATG
  67. What is the nickname for the AN/SLQ-25A?
    Nixie
  68. What is the announcing system on the main deck called?
    1MC
  69. What is the approximate designed displacement of the Truman?
    93,500 long tons
  70. What is the approximate horsepower rating of an electric fire pump?
    125 HP
  71. What is the basic steam cycle?
    Generation, work, condensation, feed
  72. What is the capacity of a reserve AFFF tank?
    3,500 gallons
  73. What is the capacity of the LP steam drain collecting tank?
    800 gallons
  74. What is the capacity of the RAM launcher?
    21 missiles
  75. What is the distance between ships for passing honors?
    600 yards
  76. What is the hoisting weight of the RHIB?
    5,600 lbs.
  77. What is the hull designation of a nuclear destroyer?
    DLGN
  78. What is the last support device for the shaft before the propeller?
    Strut bearing
  79. What is the maximum altitude of a pencil flare?
    650 feet (Mk 80 signal)
  80. What is the maximum distilling capacity of one distilling unit?
    100,000 gallons
  81. What is the maximum draft of the ship?
    40 feet
  82. What is the maximum number of task forces authorized in a fleet?
    10
  83. What is the maximum personnel occupancy of the RHIB?
    15
  84. What is the maximum rudder a helmsman can use to maintain course while traveling at 15.....
    10 degrees
  85. What is the minimum operating pressure of the fire main?
    125 PSI
  86. What is the minimum operating temperature of the hydraulic oil in the steering units?
    90 degrees
  87. What is the navigational beam at the water line?
    133 feet
  88. What is the outermost threat zone?
    Assessment
  89. What is the overall capacity of the MSSS tank?
    250 gallons
  90. What is the primary air search radar for CDC?
    SPS-48
  91. What is the primary means for man overboard recovery?
    Helicopter
  92. What is the purpose of list control?
    To change the level of the flight deck port/starboard
  93. What is the purpose of MAM?
    Replace modules used to troubleshoot equipment
  94. What is the purpose of the Combat Systems Operational Sequencing System?
    To maintain the highest possible levels of readiness
  95. What is the purpose of the sewage holding tank aeration system?
    To facilitate the growth of bacteria
  96. What is the range of the SPS-48?
    220 NM
  97. What is the range of the SPS-49?
    100 NM
  98. What is the size of the CIWS round?
    20mm
  99. What is the temperature of LOX?
    -297 degrees Fahrenheit
  100. What is used as a substitute for day shapes during night time?
    Red / white lights
  101. What is used to exchange real time tactical data among ships, aircraft, and shore based units.....
    Data links
  102. What is used to indicate radio circuit assignments, frequencies, equipment allocation, and.....
    Communications status board
  103. What line gives the distance between ships during an UNREP?
    P&D line
  104. What line provides distance between ships during UNREP?
    P&D line
  105. What links the high speed of the turbine to the low speed of the shaft?
    Reduction gear
  106. What mode of CHT do we operate in while we are 0-3 NM from shore?
    Transit
  107. What order indicates that the helmsman should move the rudder to an equal but opposite.....
    "Shift rudder"
  108. What order is a requirement for the helmsman to announce the ship's heading at that time?
    "Mark your head"
  109. What phase of the refrigeration cycle does cooling of the refrigerant occur?
    Compression
  110. How long does a secondary reaction force have to respond to a threat?
    10 minutes
  111. How long does the reserve force have to respond to a threat?
    20 minutes
  112. How long does the salvo alarm sound for when an NSSMS launch is imminent?
    15 seconds
  113. During flight operations, who determines the desired list?
    Air Boss
  114. 1 gallon of LOX expanded into gas form equals what volume?
    93.11 cubic feet
  115. A burst which occurs below 100,000 feet and the fireball does not touch the ground is called what?
    Air burst
  116. A common characteristic of terrorism is what?
    Oriented to select a target to get the most media coverage
  117. A Crash & Salvage member would wear what color jersey?
    Red
  118. A Culinary Specialist would most likely be found in what division?
    S-2
  119. A hand-wheel associated with LP air is painted what color?
    Tan
  120. A hand-wheel associated with hydraulic oil is what color?
    Orange
  121. A pesticide would be considered what category of hazardous material?
    Toxic
  122. A pipe bomb is an example of what?
    Improvised Explosive Device (IED)
  123. What is a rate of motion that is expressed in knots or nautical miles per hour?
    Speed
  124. A sailor who is TAD from their parent division who provides services to staterooms would be in what division?
    S-5
  125. A sailor who is TAD and assigned to work in the scullery of the CPO mess would work in what division?
    S-11
  126. A symptom of second degree burn is what?
    Blistering
  127. A terrorist group that operates as an agent of a government, and who receives substantial.....
    State-directed
  128. ADP is what division?
    CS3
  129. After what order is the helmsman to call out the current heading and make the necessary.....
    "Steady as she goes"
  130. All of the following are on the "never out" list except what?
    Novocain for dental procedures
  131. All of the following are safety precautions while entering a magazine except?
    Obtain permission from the OHO
  132. An accidental-delayed ignition of the primer, igniter, or propelling charge is known as what?
    Hang fire
  133. AOE is an example of what type of ship?
    Fast combat support ship
  134. At what approximate speed is there not enough flow over the rudders to provide steerage?
    5 knots
  135. At what distance from shore is discharge of plastic permitted?
    Never
  136. At what MOPP level is the MCU/2 series first carried?
    MOPP level 2
  137. At what shipboard FPCON are personnel reminded to remain within the skin of the ship?
    FPCON Delta
  138. At what shipboard FPCON is the smoking lamp put out?
    FPCON Charlie
  139. Auxiliary Conn is basically located where?
    The Bridge
  140. Bleach is an example of what category of hazardous material?
    Oxidizer
  141. Catapult steam accumulators are generally located where?
    03 level
  142. Celestial navigation enables one to fix their position by using what?
    Stars and planets
  143. Chemical substances which cause adverse reactions when placed in direct contact are.....
    Incompatible
  144. CONREP station #5 is used for what?
    Receiving fuel
  145. CONREP station #9 is typically used for what?
    Transferring cargo
  146. What does the abbreviation LPAV stand for?
    Low Pressure Air Valve
  147. What does swing circle mean?
    The anchor chain plus the length of the ship
  148. What discharge is an example of grey water discharge?
    Scullery
  149. How loud is the salvo alarm?
    85 DB
  150. How many A/C plants are onboard?
    10
  151. How many bells would the President receive when arriving?
    8
  152. How many blades are on our propellers?
    5
  153. How many divisions are in Reactor Department?
    8
  154. How many fire pumps supply water to the fire main?
    22
  155. How many gallons of AFFF concentrate are on each AFFF station?
    600
  156. How many CIWS mounts are onboard?
    2
  157. How many motor-driven fire pumps provide pressure to the fire main?
    18
  158. How many oxygen and nitrogen producing plants are onboard?
    2
  159. How many high pressure air compressors are located in 1MMR & 2MMR?
    2
  160. How many potable water pumps are there in 1MMR & 2MMR?
    2
  161. How many potable water tanks are located under 1MMR?
    11
  162. How many reactors are onboard and where are they located?
    2 reactors

    1 in #1RAR and 1 in #2RAR
  163. How many reefers are located in #1 A/C machinery room?
    2
  164. How many rudders do we have?
    2
  165. How many targets can the RAM launcher engage at any one time?
    21
  166. How often is an EVDR published?
    Monthly
  167. How tall is one of our rudders?
    29 feet
  168. HST's 4 EDGs are located in how many spaces?
    2
  169. HST's 4 EDGs are located in how many spaces?
    2
  170. If a flag or pennant is positioned approximately 2/3 of the way from the top is could.....
    At the dip
  171. If intelligence indicates that an attack is being planned on a specific installation, what.....
    Charlie
  172. In how long should a "flash" message be sent?
    Within 10 minutes
  173. In order to lock a shaft, the ship's speed must be what?
    Below 15 knots
  174. In port, what comprises the fire party?
    In-port Emergency Team (IET)
  175. In port, who is overall in charge of the ship in the absence of the commanding officer?
    Command Duty Officer (CDO)
  176. In regards to the ship's 4160 volt electrical system, what controls, monitors and distributes.....
    Switchboard
  177. What is meant by the term "hot run", in regards to torpedoes?
    Accidental ignition
  178. In what FPCON does possible terrorist activity with no indications exist?
    Alpha
  179. In what FPCON is there no threat or terrorist activity?
    Normal
  180. In what phase of terrorist operations are the odds usually in their favor about 90% of the time.....
    Actions on the objective
  181. In what space is A/C #9 located?
    6-44-0-E
  182. In what threat zone are contacts classified as either threats or non-threats?
    Warning
  183. In which of the following applications is nitrogen not used onboard?
    Navigation
  184. In what space is an SPA-25G not located?
    DCC
  185. INFOSEC is what division?
    CS2
  186. Intelligence and surveillance would be considered what number phase of terrorist operations?
    Phase 2
  187. List control pumps operate at what rate?
    1,800 GPM
  188. Navy ships' self defense is grouped into what 2 categories?
    Guns and missiles
  189. OPNAVINST 5510.1 series is known as what?
    NAVOSH program manual
  190. Point on the centerline about which the ship turns when the rudder is put over is called what?
    Pivot point
  191. Red-over-white-over-red navigational lighting configuration indicates what?
    Engaged in special operations
  192. Secondary conn is basically located where?
    DCC
  193. Sewage discharge connections are generally located where?
    Main deck, starboard side
  194. Sonobouy failure would most likely result in what?
    Inability to locate submarines
  195. Synthetic lines are stronger than natural fiber lines by what percent?
    2.5 %
  196. Terrorist operations are broken down in how many phases?
    7
  197. The acronym CMEO represents what program?
    Command Managed Equal Opportunity
  198. The Antiterrorism Training Team wears what color ball cap?
    Tan
  199. The Chief Reactor stands watch where?
    RAR
  200. The collection of information on a large number of potential targets would be considered.....
    1
  201. The color of the detachable link at 60 fathoms is what?
    Red
  202. The degaussing switchboard is generally located where?
    Port side, 3rd deck, mid-ship
  203. The DTG is expressed by how many digits and what do the first 2 represent?
    8 digits;

    The first 2 represent the day of the month
  204. The EVDR is a permanent record of an activity's what?
    Enlisted personnel account
  205. What removes oil contaminated water from a space, bilge, or tank?
    Oily waste water pump
  206. What repair locker would respond to a class "C" fire in Load Center 12?
    DCRS 2
  207. What sound powered circuit does the lee helm use?
    1JV
  208. What station assists CDC in communicating with other units via HF/UHF/EHF satellites, and.....
    Radio Central
  209. What station assists CDC in the identification of contacts within visual range, and in.....
    Signal bridge
  210. What Supply division works most closely with hazardous material?
    S-8A
  211. What term describes the distance a ship moves perpendicular to its original course when.....
    Transfer angle
  212. What term describes the distance gained to the right or left of the original course after a.....
    Tactical diameter
  213. What toxic gas is associated with CHT?
    H2S
  214. What toxic gas is most associated with the ship's sewage system?
    Hydrogen Sulfide
  215. What training team is not under the direction of the XO?
    ATTT
  216. What two subordinate numbered fleets compose the U.S. Navy's Pacific fleet?
    3rd and 7th
  217. What type of compressed gas is associated with the refrigeration units?
    Refrigerant
  218. What type of missile does the NSSMS use?
    RIM-7
  219. What type of radiation is most dangerous?
    Neutron
  220. What type of refrigerant is used in the A/C units?
    R-236F/A
  221. What type of refrigeration units do we have onboard?
    7 ton York, 6-cylinder
  222. What type of ships are multi-mission surface combatants?
    DDG
  223. What voltage is electrically generated onboard?
    4160 volts
  224. What was the first nuclear power aircraft carrier?
    USS Enterprise
  225. What was the first nuclear powered surface ship?
    USS Long Beach
  226. What was the first nuclear powered vessel?
    USS Nautilus
  227. What was the name of the first aircraft carrier?
    USS Langley
  228. What was the name of the first nuclear powered destroyer?
    USS Bainbridge
  229. What weapon is used to send a line from ship to pier or ship to ship?
    M-14 rifle
  230. What words are stenciled in white, 2" letters on the train warning circle?
    "Danger Area"
  231. What would a fire that produced ash be classified as?
    Class "A"
  232. What would a fire that produced black smoke be classified as?
    Class "B"
  233. A hand-wheel associated with lube oil is painted what color?
    Striped black & yellow
  234. When a terrorist incident occurs, what FPCON should be set immediately?
    Delta
  235. When was the attack on Pearl Harbor?
    December 7, 1941
  236. Where are .50 caliber mounts typically located?
    Weather decks
  237. Where are the list control pumps located?
    Shaft Alley 4A
  238. Where does a sentry get their authority?
    US Navy Regulations
  239. Where does the BMOW stand watch underway?
    Bridge
  240. Where is Deck House 1 located?
    Frame 113, port side
  241. Where are the SLQ-25 cable reels located?
    Fantail
  242. Where would you locate an inflatable shaft seal on?
    Stern tube
  243. Which Fleet Commander is responsible for the Atlantic Fleet?
    2nd Fleet Commander
  244. What A/C plant component stores liquid refrigerant?
    Receiver
  245. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a safety stand down?
    Devote time for safety training, awareness, and to enhance the command
  246. Does the Antiterrorism Officer stand watch in CDC?
    No
  247. What factor has the most effect on the upper 1,000 feet of the ocean during.....
    Temperature
  248. Is an LSD a dock landing ship?
    No
  249. What is the two way data link from the ship to the aircraft?
    4A
  250. What is not a component of the smart carrier upgrade?
    CHT
  251. Is RE division part of Engineering Department?
    No
  252. Is RZ division part of Reactor Department?
    No
  253. Does the SLQ-32 have the Identify Friend or Foe (IFF) function?
    No
  254. Is the monetary category motivational for a terrorist?
    No
  255. Is "Manage" one of the ORM steps?
    No
  256. What is the proper order for taking visual bearings?
    Beam, Bow, Stern
  257. What is the replacement circuit?
    X8J
  258. What radar system provides range, bearing, and height or elevation data?
    SPS-48
  259. What ship is most ideally suited for anti-submarine warfare, and protection.....
    FFG
  260. What part of the A/C plant is the prime mover of refrigerant?
    Compressor
  261. Which radar is the primary sensor for the NSSMS?
    SPQ-9B
  262. Which repair locker has the most unit lockers?
    Repair 3
  263. Which repair lockers are designated as propulsion plant repair lockers?
    Repair 4 & 5
  264. What sound-powered circuit is the Captain's battle circuit?
    JA circuit
  265. Who determines the list while underway and engaged in flight operations?
    Bridge
  266. Who is the father of Naval nuclear power?
    Hyman Rickover
  267. How many shaft alleys are there onboard?
    12
  268. Who must give approval to dump any cryogenic liquid over the side in an emergency?
    CO
  269. What was the first Navy ship named after an enlisted man?
    USS Osmond Ingram
  270. Is a National 21-gun salute fired at a funeral for a Rear Admiral or above?
    No
  271. Gun salutes are fired at what intervals?
    5 seconds
  272. What battle was fought when 2 fleets never saw each other, and was fought entirely.....
    Battle of Coral Sea
  273. Who maintains the ship's COSAL?
    MSC
  274. Repairables constitutes approximately what percentage of the afloat inventory?
    80%
  275. Endurance loading of subsistence is based on the total food consumed for what period of time?
    35-45 days
  276. How is the Basic Daily Food Allowance (BDFA) calculated?
    20% breakfast, 40% lunch, 40% dinner
  277. Lines that are 1 3/4" or smaller are known as what?
    Small stuff
  278. Any line that is over 5" in circumference is called what?
    Hawser
  279. A taper steel tool used for separating strands of wire rope and splicing is known as what?
    Marlinespike
  280. What is the normal speed for replenishment?
    12-16 knots
  281. How far apart are the flags on the P&D line?
    20 ft.
  282. Who is overall responsible for the overall supervision of all enlisted watch stations in CDC?
    CDC Watch Supervisor (CDCWS)
  283. What is a polar coordinate navigation system that provides an aircraft with range, bearing, altitude.....
    Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)
  284. What frequency is High Frequency (HF)?
    3-30 MHz
  285. What is the frequency for Very High Frequency (VHF)?
    30-300 MHz
  286. What is the frequency for Ultra High Frequency (UHF)?
    300 MHz - 3 GHz
  287. How long are the CHT tanks designed to hold liquids?
    12 hours
  288. What does CHT stand for?
    Collection, Holding, and Transfer
  289. What does HST discharge CHT from?
    Main deck risers and 4th deck discharge valves
  290. How many tanks does the CHT system have?
    2 CHT tanks and 1 MSSS tank
  291. How many gallons is a CHT tank designed to hold?
    Approximately 50,000 gallons
  292. How many gallons is the MSSS tank designed to hold?
    250 gallons
  293. What is the purpose of the aeration in the CHT system?
    Facilitate the growth of bacteria
  294. Where are the main deck CHT discharge risers onboard HST?
    2 starboard and 2 port
  295. What does H2S stand for?
    Hydrogen Sulfide
  296. What are the 3 modes of CHT?
    In-port, transit, and at-sea
  297. In what 2 modes is all grey water and black water diverted to the CHT tank?
    In-port and transit
  298. In what mode is all grey water and black water diverted directly over the side?
    At-sea
  299. How many nautical miles must HST be from shore before CHT can be diverted directly over the side of the ship?
    3 NM
  300. How many total EDDY pumps are there?
    4
  301. What does CHENG stand for?
    Chief Engineer
  302. What does MPA stand for?
    Main Propulsion Assistant
  303. What does EOOW stand for?
    Engineering Officer of the Watch
  304. What does EDO stand for?
    Engineering Duty Officer
  305. Who is in charge of fire equipment, safety walk through, fire parties, and repair locker training?
    Fire Marshall
  306. Who is responsible for checking tanks and voids for oxygen/toxic gases prior to entering?
    Gas-Free Engineer
  307. What does EOSS stand for?
    Engineering Operational Sequencing System
  308. What does ABT stand for?
    Automatic Bus Transfer
  309. What does MBT stand for?
    Manual Bus Transfer
  310. How many refrigeration plants are onboard?
    5
  311. How many air conditioning plants are onboard?
    10
  312. What are the prime movers for the steering pumps?
    Steering motors
  313. What is the purpose of degaussing?
    Reducing the effects of a ship's magnetic field
  314. How many emergency diesel generators are onboard?
    4
  315. What enlisted rate must be stationed in the emergency diesel room during operation?
    EN
  316. How many distilling plants are located onboard the HST?
    4
  317. The reboilers are located in what compartments?
    1a and 4b shaft alley
  318. How many gun salutes does a Vice Admiral receive?
    15
  319. What kind of ship is an LHA?
    Amphibious assault ship
  320. How many gun salutes does a Rear Admiral (upper half) receive?
    13
  321. The HST anchor is from what ship?
    USS Forrestal
  322. The HST chain is from what ship?
    USS Saratoga
  323. How is the RHIB boat lowered in the water?
    Gravity
  324. How is the RHIB boat raised out of the water?
    Electrical power
  325. What CONREP station only receives fuel?
    5
  326. What CONREP station only sends fuel?
    21
  327. The CNO would receive how many gun salutes?
    19
  328. The Anti-Terrorism Training Team wears what color hat?
    Tan
  329. All non-essential personnel are reminded to stay inside the skin of the ship when what FPCON is set?
    FPCON Charlie
  330. How many side boys would the General of the Air Force get for official visits onboard?
    8
  331. Is the 1JV a maneuvering and docking circuit?
    Yes
  332. Is the JF a flag over circuit?
    Yes
  333. How many nautical miles out can you discharge paint?
    0
  334. The Harpoon missile is a low altitude cruise missile used against what targets?
    Surface targets
  335. What is used to plot the person's position so that the ship can maneuver to pick them up?
    Dead Reckoning Tracer
  336. How far apart are the knots on man ropes (monkey lines)?
    13"
  337. To lay a line in long, flat bites alongside one another is called what?
    Fake
  338. What aircraft is used to seek and destroy enemy submarines and also provide logistical support for the battle.....
    S-3 Viking
  339. What is the Marine Corps principle assault helicopter?
    UH-46 Sea Knight
  340. What rotary-wing aircraft is the most widely used for combat operations?
    UH-1 Huey
  341. What is found on the end of a turnbuckle and is passed over a link of chain?
    Pelican hook
  342. What is used to take the strain off the hoses while they are hooked to the riser on deck?
    Riding lines
  343. Besides the safety observer, who also wears a white hat?
    Corpsman
  344. What is also referred to as the "alligator"?
    Link 11
  345. What is used for moving damaged aircraft from the landing area and catwalks?
    "Tilly"
  346. What is an instrument for measuring atmospheric pressure?
    Barometer
  347. Who is responsible for the readiness and employment of all visual and electronic exterior communication equipment.....
    Communications Officer
  348. What plot is maintained on hydrographic charts of suitable size?
    Strategic plot
  349. What is used to list the various degree of readiness of equipment throughout the ship?
    Equipment status board
  350. What provides Naval Special Warfare support, including long-range seal interdiction/extraction and tactical.....
    PC
  351. A hand-wheel associated with sewage is painted what color?
    Gold
  352. How many turbine-driven fire pumps are onboard?
    4
  353. What zone is where security forces can automatically fire upon un-cleared personnel, vehicles, or craft.....
    Threat zone
  354. What force is comprised of personnel temporarily assigned to security division for 1 year, only when in port?
    Inport Security Force (ISF)
  355. Who has overall command and control of NSF/ISF security force, has security forces weapon release authorization.....
    ATTWO
  356. What came to us directly from the British Navy that expresses mutual respect and pride in the military service?
    Hand salute
  357. What was the Navy's most notable Atlantic action, which was the largest amphibious operation in history?
    Battle of Normandy
  358. Who may declare an emergency and call out the military reserves or even order the armed forces into military.....
    President
  359. Who serves as the senior enlisted representative of the Navy and is assigned to the immediate office of the CNO?
    MCPON
  360. Which Fleet Commander is responsible for the Indian Ocean?
    5th Fleet Commander
  361. Who assists the CO in matters concerning morale, welfare, and recreation for the crew?
    CMC
  362. What is used for voice tactical and administrative communications by ships and aircraft?
    Radiotelephones
  363. What is used to search and track targets in surface mode?
    Phalanx Thermal Imager
  364. When activated, what device relays information by radio, which may be active, passive, or special purpose?
    Sonobuoys
  365. What aircraft has a fighter mission radius of 400 NM and an attack mission radius of 575 NM?
    F/A-18
  366. What provides early warning of approaching air attacks, track identify, and report air contacts detected in.....
    Picket ships
  367. What kind of fuel do the reactors onboard use?
    Enriched Uranium-235
  368. Who was the first enlisted man killed in action during World War 1?
    Osmond Ingram
  369. What command's primary mission is to provide immediate sealift capability in an emergency?
    Military Sealift Command (MSC)
  370. What is used as a reference for beneficiary data, should the service member die while on active or reserve duty.....
    Page 2 of service record
  371. What is a large pipe that an anchor chain runs through and is where the anchor is stowed?
    Hawes pipe
  372. How many gun salutes would an Admiral receive?
    17
  373. What is an outline of how to improve a problem at a command or to make a situation better?
    Plan of action and milestones
  374. What provides a convenient and reliable source for personnel to obtain articles considered necessary for their.....
    Ship store afloat
  375. What is used to mark the position where the person entered the water, located on all weather decks.
    Life ring / buoy
  376. Who is responsible for the positive control of fighter aircraft / attack aircraft assigned to him or her?
    Air intercept controller
  377. What device compensates for minor rolls and separation of ships during UNREP?
    Anti-slack device
  378. What is used to indicate that the ship is ready in all respects for flight operations?
    Green deck
  379. Who is responsible for chocking and chaining aircraft?
    Plane handlers
  380. Who is responsible for brake riding aircraft and conducting inspections?
    Plane captain
  381. What AIMD division maintains the ship's yellow gear?
    IM-4
  382. What is placed in strategic locations around the ship to provide maximum "arcs of fire"?
    .50 caliber mounts
  383. What weapon provides close in defense against small boats and low-flying, slow air contacts?
    .50 caliber guns
  384. How many Mk-46 torpedoes can an MH-60R carry?
    4
  385. What officer assumes tactical control of assigned units operating against a specific submarine?
    Scene of action commander
  386. What is used for manual control of speed indicators when a rod meter is not used?
    Dummy log
  387. What is located in pump room #2 and contains magnetic coil that, when energized, creates a magnetic field in.....
    Rod meter
  388. Who has overall command and control over ship's weapons release?
    Tactical Action Officer (TAO)
  389. How many rudders are on board?
    2
  390. What is the distance between boats for passing honors?
    400 yards
  391. What sound-powered phone circuit does the lookout use?
    JL
  392. What can only be discharged in cases of emergency with CO and TYCOM approval?
    CHT
  393. How many oil spill containment and cleanup kits is the ship required to maintain?
    1
  394. What is an accidental-delayed ignition of a primer?
    Hang fire
  395. What type of ship is an LST?
    Tank landing ship
  396. What is a 4-seat aircraft that employs tactical electronic warfare?
    EA-6B Prowler
  397. What was brought into service to transport crew faster to shore for amphibious operations?
    LCAC
  398. What is used to join 2 lines of the same size without changing the circumference of the line?
    Long splive
  399. What device used on the deck takes turns of line or wire around to heave in line or wire?
    Capstan
  400. What is used to haul in and pay out on a capstan?
    Wildcat
  401. What flag is displayed when the ship is anchored?
    None
  402. What flag is displayed when there is a person working aloft or over the side?
    Kilo flag
  403. What absentee pennant is displayed in the CO's absence?
    3rd pennant
  404. What could reasonably be expected to cause grave damage to national security?
    Top Secret
  405. What event is graded on the evaluation of a ship's ability to conduct combat missions, support functions.....
    Final Evaluation Problem (FEP)
  406. What type of distilling plants does the HST use?
    Low pressure, flash type, 6-stage
  407. What is used to energize vital loads when steam is not available to operate SSTGs?
    Emergency diesel generators
  408. How many gun salutes are fired to honor the Head of Foreign States?
    21
  409. Who, in port, has overall supervision of the engineering department and is in charge of the inport fire party?
    EDO
  410. What absorbs the axial thrust transmitted through the shaft from the propeller and transfers it to the hull?
    Main thrust bearing
  411. What uses mechanical energy from the main engines and propels the ship through the water?
    Propeller
  412. What is located in the stern tube and prevents water from entering the ship?
    Shaft seal
  413. What connects 2 or more switchboards so generators can be operated in parallel?
    Bus ties
  414. What is used to turn the rudders onboard?
    Steering pumps
  415. What is used as a local control from after steering?
    Trick wheel
  416. What is acquiring the minimum essential logistic support to begin combat operations?
    Attainability
  417. What is ensuring that the logistic infrastructure prevails in spite of degradation and damage?
    Survivability
  418. What is providing logistic support for the duration of the operation?
    Sustainability
  419. Who arranges and coordinates all ship's work, drills and exercises?
    XO
  420. Who organizes, train and supports the Command Retention Team?
    CCC
  421. What provides offensive and defensive weapons capability during battle conditions?
    Weapons control
  422. What provides capability for offensive and defensive actions during emergency situations?
    Primary flight control
  423. Who is responsible for the detection, tracking, and identification of sub-surface targets?
    Undersea Warfare Coordinator
  424. Who detects, enters, and tracks surface radar contacts?
    Radar operator
  425. What aircraft can track 600+ air and surface targets in a 250 NM radius?
    E-2 Hawkeye
  426. What quick-strike aircraft utilizes vertical short take-off and landing technology?
    AV-8 Harrier
  427. Pilots utilize what radar, nicknamed "Bullseye",  to monitor their own final approach?
    SPN-41
  428. What regulates compressor discharge pressure by regulating the amount of water leaving the condenser?
    Water-regulating valve
  429. What system onboard would you find an EDDY pump?
    CHT system
  430. How many kilowatts is the SSTG rated at?
    8,000 KW
  431. Who has overall command and control of NSF/ISF security forces?
    ATTWO
  432. Who has overall responsibility for the ship in the absence of the CO?
    CDO
  433. What provides guidance in regards to when the use of force or deadly force is authorized?
    Standard Rules Of Engagement (SROE)
  434. What force has 6 patrol personnel assigned to security zones that will respond to a threat and are set a.....
    Basic Reaction Force
  435. What force has a 6 person respond team that will respond to a threat within 10 minutes?
    Secondary Reaction Force
  436. Who has a 20 minutes response time with 6 or more personnel ready to assist as directed?
    Reserve Force
  437. What level is possible terrorist activity with no indications?
    Alpha
  438. What level is when an incident has occurred or intel indicates imminent terrorist action against specific locations?
    Delta
  439. What zone is the innermost layer of defense in depth?
    Threat
  440. What is the offensive measure taken to prevent, deter and respond to terrorism?
    Counterterrorism
  441. What groups are dedicated to the overthrow of an established order and replacing it with a new political or.....
    Revolutionary
  442. How many 3000 hp tugs are required to pull the HST?
    None
  443. What are lines that secure a craft to a pier, wharf or quay?
    Mooring lines
  444. What is the horizontal distance of hawse pipe to navigational radar antenna?
    250 yards
  445. What is the height of the signal bridge above the waterline?
    109 feet
  446. What is an instrument for determining the distance to an object of known height by measuring the vertical.....
    Stadimeter
  447. What is the great circle of the earth perpendicular to the polar axis?
    Equator
  448. What is an intersection of the earth and a plane that does not pass through the center?
    Small circle
  449. What music is played onboard HST for an official visit from the Vice President of the United States?
    "Hail Columbia"
  450. The Commandant of the Marine Corps would receive how many gun salutes?
    19
  451. Does an oil spill containment and cleanup kits contain Dawn liquid soap?
    No
  452. What is located both strategically and physically inside the back of the various switchboard cabinets?
    Disconnect links
  453. What is a safety device that protects various electrical loads from over-current and short circuits?
    Circuit breakers
  454. Which type of Navy ship is not required to maintain a minimum of 1 hazardous material spill response kit?
    Submarine
  455. How are paints and minerals disposed of while in port?
    HAZMAT dumpster
  456. When handling bromide cartridges, are plastic bags required?
    No
  457. Do shoes need to be removed prior to entering a magazine?
    No
  458. What security classification could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security?
    Secret
  459. What is authority that an individual is eligible for access to classified information of a specific classification.....
    Clearance
  460. What is the ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information?
    Access
  461. What is designed from aluminum and a short distance transporter?
    Minor Landing Craft (LCM)
  462. These ships are designed from aluminum and a short distance transporter?
    MCM and MHC
  463. What ship is fitted with bow doors and a bow ramp that gives access to a tank deck?
    LST
  464. What ship transports bulk petroleum and lubricants from depots to underway battle groups?
    T-AO
  465. What is a modified oil-filled supply boat design built to merchant marine specification, and can support a 20 man.....
    ATF-Fleet tug
  466. What shows what alarms or lights are out or alarms that sound?
    Telltale panel
  467. What watch station maintains a constant watch on all radar contacts along with CDC personnel?
    Conning Officer
  468. What personnel wear a white hard hat with a red cross that are ready to provide first aid when necessary?
    Corpsman
  469. What is used in low visibility while it's dark and to show where personnel are?
    Chemical lights
  470. What is used to raise or lower loads on a RAS rig?
    Cargo drop reel
  471. Who is the ship's damage control officer?
    CHENG
  472. Who is the principal assistant to the CHENG and is responsible for HST's damage control equipment.....
    DCA
  473. Who provides primary response to an emergency on the flight deck?
    Crash and salvage team
  474. What team embarks the ship during deployment, reports to the weapons officer and are responsible for ensuring the safety of ordnance if reported a compromised status?
    EOD
  475. How many battle dressing stations are onboard?
    6
  476. Who administers first aid in the absence of medical personnel and transports injured personnel to battle dressing.....
    Stretcher bearer

Card Set Information

Author:
aviationordie
ID:
257139
Filename:
Surface Warfare
Updated:
2017-05-29 16:12:36
Tags:
Surface Warfare
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Description:
Surface Warfare
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