Instruments 2

Card Set Information

Instruments 2
2014-01-28 20:45:46

15-02 Chennault
Show Answers:

  1. 1. What is the key to successful instrument flight?
    1. Thorough preflight planning
  2. 2. Name two major items used during preflight planning.
    2. Flight Information Publications (FLIP); Notices to Airman (NOTAMs)
  3. 3. What is the name used for the phase of flight where the aircraft is maneuvered from takeoff to the enroute structure, operating area, or back to the takeoff airfield?
    3. Instrument departure
  4. 4. What maneuver would you expect to fly if it was necessary to await further clearance from air traffic control?
    4. Holding
  5. 5. True or false? An enroute descent is a published maneuver used to transition from high altitude enroute cruise to instrument final approach.
    5. False. An enroute descent is a non-published procedure that may be flown via controller instructions or using NAVAIDs.
  6. 6. What are the key differences between a precision and non-precision instrument final approach?
    a. A precision approach provides both course and glidepath information and ends at a point called Decision Altitude (DA).

    b. A non-precision approach provides course information only and ends at a point called the Missed Approach Point (MAP).
  7. 7. To safely complete a transition from an instrument approach to a visual landing you must know:
    a. What constitutes the landing environment

    b. Appropriate techniques for transitioning from instrument to visual flight

    c. Impact of visual illusions during transition to landing and how to combat them
  8. 1. The ITO is a composite visual and instrument takeoff. (B/1/1)(T/F)
  9. 2. Select the situation where you would perform an ITO. (B/1/2)
    • a. Toward or over water
    • b. Night takeoffs
    • c. Desert areas

    d. All of the above
  10. 3. After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to ______ due to the potential of spatial disorientation. (B/1/3)
    c. attitude instrument flying procedures
  11. 4. The gear is raised when the altimeter alone indicates a positive rate of climb. (B/1/4)
    b. False
  12. 5. Where would you normally look for a published departure? (B/2/1)
    a. In the FLIP Terminal High and/or Low Altitude book that covers the state where the departure airfield’s located
  13. 6. The symbol of the black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center means that you will need to use nonstandard weather takeoff minimums on departure in your T-6A. (B/2/2)
    b. False
  14. 10. If your aircraft is given a different altitude by ATC than that depicted on the DP, consider the DP cancelled. (B/2/6)
    b. False
  15. 11. Flying a DP, a controller gives you a heading that takes you off the DP/DP TRANSITION and does not provide any additional information. You should _______. (B/2/7)
    b. consider the DP cancelled
  16. 1. The takeoff attitude for an ITO is ______.
    a. a normal takeoff based on visual cues with transition to instruments at the same rate as loss of visual cues
  17. 2. During an ITO, retract the gear and flaps with a positive climb indication on the ______.
    c. VSI and altimeter
  18. 3. When will the procedures and techniques used in an ITO help maintain your situational awareness?
    • a. At night
    • b. Over water
    • c. Desert areas

    d. All of the above
  19. 4. To ensure you are ready for an IFR departure, what should you have?
    • a. Current publications
    • b. Departure procedures
    • c. An ATC clearance and an understanding of the departure

    d. All of the above
  20. 5. Which item is NOT provided by a DP?
    c. Radar vectors
  21. 6. An instrument departure is a maneuver used to safely take the aircraft to the ______.
    c. next phase of flight
  22. 7. A departure that has a published route and altitude restriction is called a ______.
    b. Departure Procedure
  23. 8. A controller issues a clearance to “climb and maintain” or “maintain” an altitude different than on a DP. You continue to fly the DP route and ______.
    b. disregard all of the remaining DP altitude restrictions
  24. 1. ATC will only issue an in-flight clearance if requested by the pilot. (B/1/1)
    b. False
  25. 2. When receiving a new in-flight clearance, you should read back any ______ the controller gives you.(B/1/2)
    • b. altimeter settings
    • c. altitude and/or heading assignments
    • d. B and C
  26. 3. In a nonstandard holding pattern, all turns are made to the right. (B/2/1)
    b. False
  27. 4. Which set of holding instructions applies to the holding patternshown? (B/2/2)
    a. Hold north on the SAT 180 radial, 30 DME, five mile legs.
  28. 5. Holding can be accomplished at ______. (B/2/3)
    • a. a VOR
    • b. a VORTAC
    • c. an intersection

    d. all of the above
  29. 6. Using the 70° method, what type of holding pattern entry is shown here? (B/2/4)
    c. Direct entry
  30. 7. Which of the following IS NOT an AIM holding entry procedure? (B/2/5)
    b. Standard entry
  31. 8. You are established in a VOR holding pattern at 13,000 feet MSL. How long should the second inbound leg be? (B/2/6)
    c. 1 minute
  32. 1. What type of clearance should you expect if you have major changes to your flight plan enroute?
    a. A new ATC clearance
  33. 2. When you are reading back a clearance to ATC, you should read back ______.
    • a. altitudes
    • b. altitude restrictions
    • c. headings

    d. all of the above
  34. 3. What FLIP planning document contains specific information on maximum holding airspeeds, holding patterns, and how controllers will issue holding instructions?
    c. FLIP General Planning
  35. 4. When are you considered established in the holding pattern?
    d. Upon initial passage of the holding fix
  36. 5. You were given clearance to hold enroute at an unpublished holding fix and the controller did not specify the direction of turn. What type of holding pattern will you fly and when would you begin to slow to holding airspeed?
    b. Standard and three minutes prior to the fix
  37. 6. When do you begin timing outbound in a VOR holding pattern?
    d. Over or abeam the holding fix but if unable to determine the abeam position when wings-level outbound
  38. 7. Which of the following defines a nonstandard holding pattern?
    d. The holding pattern consists of left-hand turns.
  39. 8. For an AIM teardrop entry, turn ______ to a heading for a ______° teardrop entry on the holding side.
    a. outbound; 30
  40. 1. After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to attitude instrument flying procedures due to the potential for ______. (B/1/1)
    1. spatial disorientation
  41. 2. Before retracting gear and flaps, you should have indications of positive rate of climb on the ______. (B/1/2)
    2. VSI and altimeter
  42. 3. Which DP types should be flown to the maximum extent possible? (B/1/3)
    a. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)

    b. Obstacle Departures (ODPs)
  43. 4. ______ensure obstacle clearance at airfields which have published instrument approaches but no published instrument departures? (B/1/4)
    4. Diverse departures
  44. 5. True or false? AETC pilots are required to read back all in-flight clearance information. (C/1/1)
    5. False. AETC Pilots are only required to read back numbers. Read back additional clearance information for clarification as necessary.
  45. 6. Holding fixes may be defined ______. (C/2/1)
    • 6.
    • a. directly over a NAVAID (VOR/NDB)
    • b. using a radial and DME from a NAVAID
    • c. at a GPS Waypoint
    • d. at a published intersection
  46. 7. What are the three AIM holding entry procedures? (C/2/2)
    • 7.
    • a. Parallel
    • b. Teardrop
    • c. Direct
  47. 1. How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the pitch attitude for an ITO?
    a. Transition at the rate outside references become unreliable.

    b. Rotate to 7-10° nose high at 85 KIAS
  48. 2. What are the only USAF methods of instrument departures?
    • a. Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
    • b. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
    • c. ATC Departure Instructions
    • d. Diverse Departure
    • e. Special MAJCOM Certification
  49. 3. The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______.
    3. 1.5 minutes
  50. 4. What is the only difference in entry procedures for a nonstandard versus standard holding pattern?
    4. Entry turns are made in the opposite direction.
  51. 1. When performing an enroute descent you should specify the type of approach you desire. (B/1/1)
    a. True
  52. 2. Performing a pilot discretion descent allows the pilot to ______. (B/1/2)
    • a. start the descent when the pilot chooses
    • b. use any rate of descent
    • c. level off at an intermediate altitude

    d. do all of the above
  53. 3. You are in a 4° descent angle and your airspeed is at .4 Mach. What is your VSI rate of descent? (B/1/3)
    d. 1600 fpm
  54. 4. Instrument penetration approaches are found in FLIP ______. (B/2/1)
    a. Terminal High Altitude books
  55. 7. What is the penetration airspeed in the T-6A? (B/2/4)
    d. 200 KIAS
  56. 8. If no penetration turn altitude is depicted on the approach plate, when will you begin your turn inbound on a non-DME teardrop penetration? (B/2/5)
    c. At an altitude halfway between IAF and FAF altitude
  57. 9. You are cleared for a non-DME teardrop VOR penetration but are 3000 feet below the published IAFaltitude. How long will you time outbound before descending? (B/2/6)
    c. 45 seconds
  58. 10. When flying a radial approach, as you pass the IAF ______. (B/2/7)
    d. turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the approach course
  59. 11. When flying high altitude radial/arc penetrations, you should calculate and use normal lead points tocomplete required course/arc intercepts. (B/2/8)
    a. True
  60. 1. What section of the approach plate provides a side view preview for the altitude restrictions?
    a. Profile view
  61. 2. The non-DME teardrop approach is usually associated with a ______ approach.
    b. VOR
  62. 3. When flying a non-DME teardrop approach, you are required to maintain a pitch attitude ______below the level flight picture for the penetration airspeed to ensure you remain within protected airspace.
    c. 8°-10°
  63. 4. When flying a radial approach if your heading is within ______ of the outbound penetration course,you are not required to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the course.
    c. 90°
  64. 5. If you have a 3° descent gradient, how much altitude have you lost in 1 nautical mile?
    b. 300 feet
  65. 6. When flying a radial/arc approach, ______ you may begin your descent to the next applicable altitude restriction.
    a. once a lead point is reached AND a turn to the next approach segment is initiated
  66. 8. You are 40 miles from Junction at FL310 at .5 Mach and are required to cross Junction at 15,000.How will you determine your descent gradient?
    d. Divide the altitude you have to lose in hundreds of feet (160) by the number of miles you have togo (40). This provides your descent gradient in degrees (4).
  67. 9. Assume you are flying the HI VOR/DME or TACAN RWY 34L at Midland INTL.Using the 60-1 rule, what descent gradient would be required from the IAF at 14,000 feet to be at 6500 feet by CRANE?
    d. Approximately 10° nose-low
  68. 10. By which point should you complete configuring the aircraft for final approach?
    Final approach fix
  69. 1. If you are using a feeder facility to an IAF and are cleared for the approach, you are considered established on the approach. (B/1/1)
    a. True
  70. 2. What airspeed do you maintain prior to configuring when flying a low altitude approach in the T-6A? (B/1/2)
    b. 120 - 150 KIAS
  71. 5. The “barb” on a procedure turn means that your turn is made opposite the maneuvering side. (B/2/3)
  72. 6. When executing a 45/180 procedure turn maneuver, turn on the maneuvering side 45° away from the outbound course, time for ______ minute(s), then turn 180° in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course. (B/2/4)
    a. one
  73. 7. When would you not execute a procedure turn? (B/2/5)
    d. ATC has cleared you for a straight-in approach.
  74. 9. Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach, if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course you do not have to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the published course. (B/3/2)
    d. 90°
  75. 10. The term “NoPT” means that you will ______. (B/3/3)
    c. not fly a procedure turn approach
  76. 11. Which of the following are ways to recognize a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depiction? (B/4/1)
    • b. The outbound and inbound courses are shown with two dark arrows in the profile view
    • c. A normal holding pattern with a bold black line in the plan view

    d. Both B and C
  77. 13. Prior to initiating a descent on the inbound leg of a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn, you must be established on the inbound course. (B/4/3)
    a. True
  78. 1. Low altitude approaches enable the aircraft to transition from instrument flight conditions to a visual landing while providing ______.
    a. terrain clearance and separation from other IFR aircraft
  79. 2. Which of the following are considered course reversal approaches?
    • a. Procedure turn approaches
    • c. Holding in lieu of a procedure turn (HILO PT) approaches
  80. 3. When executing a low altitude approach in the T-6A you should maintain maneuvering speed of ______ prior to reaching the IAF.
    c. 120 – 150
  81. 4. The barbed symbol depicted in a procedure turn approach means that the turn ______.
    c. is made on the side indicated by the barb
  82. 5. In a procedure turn, what procedures are used to determine the direction of turn for intercepting the outbound course when first crossing the low altitude IAF?
    a. Use normal entry holding techniques (AIM or 70°) to determine the direction of turn.
  83. 7. If DME is available, what method would you use to stay within the “Remain Within” distance on a procedure turn approach?
    c. Use DME with timing as a backup
  84. 8. Procedure tracks utilize _______ to depict the flight path between IAF and FAF.
    • a. arcs
    • b. radials
    • c. headings

    d. all of the above
  85. 9. What altitude can you descend to if you are using a feeder facility and are cleared for the approach?
    a. You can descend to the altitude depicted on the feeder route
  86. 10. You have commenced a holding in lieu of a procedure turn approach. How many orbits in holding are you expected to make?
    a. One
  87. 1. You are 70 NM from the Palacios VORTAC at FL180 and 240 KTAS. You are instructed to descendto cross the Palacios VORTAC at 4000 feet MSL. What should your descent gradient be? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)? (B/1/1)
    a. Descent gradient = 140/70 = 2º (200 ft/NM)

    b. VSI = 200 X (240/60) = 200 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 800 fpm descent
  88. 2. At a groundspeed of 4NM per minute and a descent gradient of 3°, what is the VSI rate of descent? (B/1/2)
    • a. VSI = angle (NM/min X 100)
    • b. VSI = 3 X (4 NM/min X 100)
    • c. VSI = 3 X 400
    • d. VSI = 1200 fpm
  89. 3. Prior to the IAF you should complete a W-HOLDS check. What do the letters in W-HOLDS stand for? (B/2/1)
    • a. Weather: ensure reported weather meets command minimums for commencing the approach
    • b. Holding clearance: if directed to hold, ensure clearance and holding pattern is understood and NAVAIDS properly set
    • c. Obtain approach clearance: if approach clearance has not been issued, query the controller
    • d. Letdown plate review: check minimum and emergency safe altitudes, frequencies, descent rates, approach minimums, missed approach instructions, and the aerodrome sketch
    • e. Descent check: ensure descent check is completed
    • f. Speed as required: slow to holding or approach speed
  90. 4. If starting a non-DME teardrop approach from below the published IAF altitude, you must fly outbound ______ for every ______ feet below the IAF altitude before initiating the descent. (B/2/2)
    4. 15 seconds; 1000
  91. 5. What are the two categories of low altitude instrument approach procedures (IAPs)? (C/1/1)
    5. Course reversals, Procedure tracks
  92. 6. What are the two types of low-altitude course reversal approaches? (C/1/2)
    6. Procedure turn, Holding in lieu of procedure turn
  93. 7. What are the three common types of low-altitude procedure track approaches? (C/1/3)
    7. Straight-In, Arcing , Teardrop
  94. 9. How is a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach procedure? (C/2/1)
    • a. By a “barb” symbol
    • b. Barb indicates “maneuvering” side
  95. 10. When flying a procedure turn you must complete the course reversal turn on the _______. (C/2/2)
    10. maneuvering side
  96. 11. When can you descend to the FAF altitude? (C/2/3)
    11. When established on the inbound segment of the approach
  97. 12. When will a procedure turn approach not be flown? (C/2/4)
    • a. ATC clears you for a Straight-in approach.
    • b. Flying approach via “NoPT” routing.
    • c. Established in holding, cleared the approach, and holding course is same as procedure turn course.
    • d. ATC Radar vectors you to final.
    • e. Cleared by ATC for Timed approach.

    f. Memory Aid: “SNERT
  98. 13. The term “NoPT” at an IAF on an instrument approach means ______. (C/3/1)
    13. you are expected to fly the depicted NoPt routing, not the procedure turn
  99. 14. Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach you may use normal turn lead points if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course. (C/3/2)
    14. 90°
  100. 15. How is a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach plate? (C/4/1)
    a. Plan view: same as a normal holding pattern but with bold black lines

    b. Profile view: outbound and inbound course arrows shown
  101. 2. True or false? When flying a low altitude procedure turn approach you may begin the turn inbound at any point.
    2. True. However, you cannot exceed remain within distance.
  102. 3. When flying a procedure turn approach, if you elect to fly a teardrop entry, the teardrop course must be within how many degrees of the procedure turn course?
    3. 30°
  103. 4. How are segments of procedure track approaches depicted?
    4. By heavy black lines with arrowheads showing intended aircraft ground track.
  104. 5. You have been cleared the VOR/DME RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport. How many turns are you expected to complete in holding?
    5. One turn. If additional turns are required to lose excess altitude you must coordinate with ATC first.
  105. 6. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardropinstrument penetration?
    6. When established on the inbound segment of the approach.
  106. 7. You are cleared for an enroute descent at “pilot’s discretion” from FL 190 to 7000 feet MSL. Can youtemporarily level off at 11,000 feet?
    7. Yes, you may level off at an intermediate altitude, but once you leave that altitude youcannot return to it.
  107. 8. What descent angle and VSI do you need to descend at 210 KTAS from 15,000 feet MSL to 3000 feet MSL in 30 NM (no wind)?
    • 8.
    • a. Descent Angle
    • b. 120/30 = 4°
    • c. VSI
    • d. 3.5 NM/min X 400 feet/NM = 1400 fpm
  108. 9. If flying a non-DME teardrop approach with no published turn altitude, initiate the inbound turn whenthe aircraft is ______.
    9. halfway between the IAF and FAF altitudes
  109. 1. Precision approaches are distinguished from nonprecision approaches by the addition of ______ information. (B/1/1)
    d. glideslope
  110. 2. The glideslope helps maintain the proper approach angle, which is normally between ______. (B/1/2)
    b. 2.5 and 3°
  111. 8. For many nonprecision approaches, you will need to establish a descent rate of about ______ to reach MDA prior to VDP. (C/1/2)
    c. 800 to 1000 fpm
  112. 9. If the runway is not in sight when you reach VDP, you must execute a missed approach. (C/1/3)
    b. False
  113. 10. Selecting ______ on the EHSI during a GPS approach will display the IAF(s), FAF, and MAP along with the course lines connecting them. (C/2/1)
    b. MAP mode
  114. 11. In the approach active mode, the active leg of a GPS approach is indicated on the EHSI by a ______ between waypoints. (C/2/2)
    d. green line
  115. 14. A localizer transmitter will provide course guidance and glideslope information for an approach. (C/3/2)
    b. False
  116. 1. Which marker beacon is normally located at the FAF or glideslope intercept point?
    c. Outer marker (OM)
  117. 2. In a VOR approach in which the VOR station serves as the FAF, the approach course will be ______.
    b. outbound on the designated radial
  118. 3. On the GPS display, a waypoint identifier followed by a lower case “m” designates ______.
    b. the missed approach point
  119. 4. An ILS is flown down to a point where you must either establish visual reference with the runway and continue to landing, or execute a missed approach. This point is called the ______.
    d. decision altitude (DA)
  120. 5. On a localizer backcourse approach, you must set ______ in the EHSI.
    a. the published front course in the course selector window
  121. 6. In most VOR approaches, you will use either ______ to indicate arrival at the FAF.
    d. DME or station passage
  122. 7. To calculate VDP, you should divide the height of the MDA above the touchdown zone (HAT) by the desired approach angle times ______.
    a. 100
  123. 8. DME HOLD will not display on the EHSI when ______ is selected as the primary nav sensor.
    b. GPS
  124. 9. During ILS final approach, control inputs should be minimized to prevent over controlling. You should limit pitch adjustments to 2° or less and heading corrections to ______or less.
    a. 5°
  125. 1. Minimum Vector Altitude (MVA) may be lower than the published MEA or MOCA. (B/1/1)
    a. True
  126. 2. With the airfield weather station reporting 2 miles visibility, what is the minimum distance from the FAF and the maximum intercept angle the controller can use to set up aircraft for final approach course intercept? (B/1/2)
    b. 3 miles and 30°
  127. 5. What three radio calls are you required to repeat back to the controller when operating in the radarpattern? (B/1/5)
    d. Assigned headings, altitude, altimeter settings
  128. 6. When flying in the radar pattern, maintain ______ KIAS in a clean configuration while on radardownwind. (B/1/6)
    c. 150-200
  129. 7. Using the technique discussed earlier, if you were flying in the radar pattern and instructed to turnright from heading 360 to heading 045, what angle of bank would you use? (B/1/7)
    b. 30°
  130. 9. What is the criteria you must meet in order to land from an ASR approach? (C/1/2)
    • a. Runway environment in sight
    • b. Aircraft in a position to make a safe landing
  131. 11. On PAR final approach, use bank equal to the number of degrees to be turned not to exceed standard rate (C/2/2)
    b. False
  132. 12. If on PAR final, you accidentally drift off assigned heading, what is the proper action to take? (C/2/3)
    c. Immediately correct back to the last assigned heading.
  133. 13. Decision Altitude on a PAR is determined by ______. (C/2/4)
    • a. the barometric altimeter reading
    • b. when advised by the controller “at decision altitude”

    c. A or B, whichever occurs first
  134. 14. When you reach final approach on a no-gyro ASR or PAR, you must automatically transition to using half-standard rate turns. (C/3/1)
    b. False
  135. 1. MVAs are established at ______ feet above the highest obstacle within the sector, ______ in mountainous terrain.
    b. 1000; 2000
  136. 2. Traffic advisories are a mandatory service provided by controllers to aircraft operating in the radar pattern.
    b. False
  137. 3. Where can you locate an airfield’s radar approach minimums?
    c. In the front of the Instrument Approach book
  138. 4. Aircraft malfunction reports are ______.
    c. mandatory
  139. 5. In the T-6A, it is mandatory to configure the aircraft on base leg of the radar pattern.
    b. False
  140. 6. An ASR is a ______approach.
    b. nonprecision
  141. 7. When flying an ASR approach, the MAP is defined by ______.
    d. the controller
  142. 8. To execute a missed approach while circling to land from an ASR, turn initially towards the ______.
    c. landing runway
  143. 9. A PAR approach starts when ______.
    • a. the aircraft is in range of the precision radar
    • b. contact has been established with the final controller
  144. 10. T-6A final approach airspeed on a PAR approach is ______ KIAS.
    c. 110
  145. 11. When flying no-gyro vectors and approach, you must acknowledge the “start/stop turn” controller directives until ______.
    a. told “do not acknowledge further transmissions”
  146. 1. At some airports, HIRL lights turn yellow ______ feet from the departure end. (B/1/1)
    b. 2000
  147. 2. All approach lighting systems have ______ lights. (B/1/2)
    d. white
  148. 3. Where can you find graphic descriptions of the configurations of various approach lighting systems? (B/1/3)
    a. Flight Information Handbook
  149. 6. Which of the following is NOT a method used to define the missed approach point for a nonprecision, nonradar approach? (C/1/1)
    d. Decision altitude (DA)
  150. 7. When transitioning from instrument to visual references, look for the landing environment ______. (C/1/2)
    c. in the direction determined by relationship of the final course vector and visual references identified in the airport sketch
  151. 8. Full flaps are required when beginning the visual descent to the runway after an instrument approach. (C/1/4)
    b. False
  152. 9. Bright approach lights suddenly appearing on final approach can give an impression of being below glidepath. (C/2/1)
    b. False
  153. 10. Flying an approach to a narrow runway may give the impression of being below glidepath on final. ( C/2/2)
    b. False
  154. 11. The airport elevation is ______. (D/1/1)
    b. the MSL altitude of the highest point of an airport’s usable runways
  155. 12. Where can you find published circling approach restrictions for a particular airfield? (D/1/2)
    c. Instrument Approach Procedure for the airfield
  156. 13. Which of the following aircraft categories has the largest obstruction clearance radius? (D/1/3)
    e. Category E
  157. 14. Which of the following is an INCORRECT circling clearance? (D/2/1)
    c. Texan 24, circle east of Runway 17 for a left downwind to Runway 35
  158. 15. You may lower full (LDG) flaps on a circling approach ______. (D/2/2)
    d. once you begin a normal descent to the runway
  159. 16. A sidestep maneuver is a procedure in which you fly a published instrument approach to one runway, then perform ______ transition to land on an alternate runway. (D/3/1)
    b. a visual
  160. 17. Unless specified on the approach plate, a climb gradient of ______ feet/NM is required to ensure obstacle clearance during the published missed approach. (E/1/1)
    c. 200
  161. 18. What is the first step to perform a missed approach? (E/1/2)
    d. Advance the PCL to MAX
  162. 19. Execute a ______ if you have started a visual descent from an instrument approach and you cannot safely land the aircraft. (E/1/3)
    b. go-around/waveoff
  163. 1. Which lighting system can be used as a HIRL, MIRL, and LIRL system?
    d. Three step HIRL
  164. 2. The numbers on runway remaining markers represent amount of runway remaining in ______.
    a. thousands of feet
  165. 3. The missed approach point is depicted on the approach plate at ______.
    • a. the end of the course arrow in the airport sketch
    • b. the end of the solid black final course line in the planform view
  166. 4. When transitioning from instruments on an instrument final approach, begin looking for visual references ______.
    d. as you approach the MSL altitude for the reported ceiling
  167. 5. If you transition from the MDA to a visual descent to the runway at the FAF your aim point should probably be ______.
    a. further down the runway than for a normal contact landing
  168. 6. Flying an approach to a runway wider than normally experienced can give the illusion of being below the glidepath.
    a. True
  169. 7. What airspeed should you maintain when using TO flaps during the visual final following an instrument approach?
    b. 105 KIAS
  170. 8. The circling MDA and weather minimums to be used are for the runway to which the instrument approach is being flown.
    a. True
  171. 9. Staying within the aircraft’s obstruction clearance radius ensures ______ feet obstacle clearance during a circling approach?
    b. 300
  172. 10. Which of the following is an example of a correct circling clearance?
    b. Texan 22, circle southeast of airport for a left downwind to Runway 22
  173. 11. When performing a circling maneuver, plan your turn to base to permit a ______ NM final.
    a. ¼ - ½
  174. 12. Climbout instructions supersede published missed approach instructions and constitute an ATC clearance.
    a. True
  175. 13. The pitch attitude for the initial climb on a missed approach is ______ nose-high reference on the EADI.
    b. 10-15°
  176. 14. Execute a missed approach from the circling maneuver when you ______.
    c. lose sight of sufficient landing environment references to remain oriented and complete the circling maneuver
  177. 1. Is an ILS approach a precision or nonprecision approach? (B/1/1)
  178. 2. Based on the marker beacon indication shown (OM), approximately where is the aircraft along the ILS approach path? (B/1/2)
    Final Approach Fix
  179. 3. What are the “6 Ts” you can use as a memory aid to accomplish required items at the FAF? (B/2/1)
    • a. Time for the approach/backup approach
    • b. Turn the aircraft to intercept final approach course.
    • c. Throttle (PCL) set to establish descent.
    • d. Twist in final approach course on EHSI.
    • e. Track final approach course inbound.
    • f. Talk (report FAF and call gear down as required)
  180. 4. Flying a GPS approach with Super Nav 5 mode selected, how is the FAF identified on the GPS display? (B/3/1)
    • a. IAF: “-I”
    • b. FAF: “-f”
    • c. MAP: “-m”
    • d. MAP holding fix: “-h”
  181. 6. While being radar vectored to final, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately _____. (C/1/1)
    1 minute
  182. 7. If IMC conditions are likely to be encountered, when will missed approach instructions for a radar approach normally be issued? (C/1/2)
    7. On radar downwind or base leg
  183. 8. If ceiling is less than 500 feet above the MVA and visibility is less than 3 miles, the aircraft will bevectored to intercept the final approach course at least ______ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of _____ degrees. (C/1/3)
    8. 3 miles; 30
  184. 9. You are flying an ASR approach and the radar controller is providing recommended altitudes onfinal. These recommended altitudes approximate the ______ glidepath and will cease at the ______.(C/2/1)
    9. PAR; minimum descent altitude
  185. 10. How do you know you are at the MAP on an ASR approach? (C/2/2)
    10. You will be told by the controller.
  186. 11. You are at DA on a PAR approach when _____. (C/2/3)
    11. you reach published DA on the aircraft’s altimeter or the controller states “At Decision Height”, whichever occurs first
  187. 12. Typical runway lighting consists of a row of ______ lights on each side of the runway, ______ lights identifying the runway threshold, and ______ lights at the departure end. (D/1/1)
    12. white; green; red
  188. 13. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are flashing white lights used to ______. (D/1/2)
    13. mark the approach end of the runway
  189. 15. Which runway minimums do you use when flying a circling approach? (D/2/1)
    15. Use the circling minimums and MDA for the runway the approach is flown to. DO NOT use minimums for runway of intended landing.
  190. 16. How much obstacle clearance is provided when circling at the published MDA? (D/2/2)
    16. 300 feet when remaining within the obstructing clearance area for your category of aircraft.
  191. 17. When flying a circling maneuver, is it permissible to fly at an altitude ABOVE the circling MDA? (D/2/3)
    17. Yes. Weather permitting you may accomplish the circle maneuver above the published MDA up to normal VFR traffic pattern altitude.
  192. 18. If you are executing climbout instructions and the departure end of the runway is in sight, delay any turn until ______. (D/3/1)
    18. past the departure end of the runway and 400 feet AGL
  193. 19. When executing a missed approach from a circling maneuver begin a _____. (D/3/2)
    19. climbing turn in the last known direction of the landing runway until established on the missed approach procedure/climbout instructions as appropriate
  194. 3. About ______ nose-low and ______ torque will maintain approach speed and a descent rate of 800 - 1000 fpm.
    3. 1°; 16%
  195. 4. You have been cleared the GPS RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport and instructed to enter holding at VIENNA. What mode must you select for the GPS before entering holding?
    4. OBS mode. You must select OBS mode whenever you are flying a GPS approach and you are given radar vectors, performing a procedure turn, or holding.
  196. 5. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the track line to the FAF on the EHSI will turn ______.
    5. green
  197. 7. You are flying an ILS approach. You are past the localizer FAF and above the localizer MDA. Yougo two dots below the ILS glidepath. Do you have to go missed approach?
    a. No, you may descend to the localizer MDA and transition to a localizer-only approach.

    b. If you recapture the glideslope prior to the localizer MDA, you may continue the ILS approach.
  198. 9. You are going to fly a VOR approach to Runway 13 and circle to Runway 22. Which circling minimums do you use to fly the approach, the minimums for Runway 13 or the minimums for Runway 22?
    9. Runway 13 minimums
  199. 10. Radar controllers provide obstacle clearance using _____.
    10. Minimum Vectoring Altitudes (MVA)
  200. 11. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____.
    11. only when directed by the controller
  201. 12. You would get a graphic depiction of the landing environment for a particular airfield _____.
    12. from the airport sketch on an instrument approach plate for that airfield
  202. 13. When can you begin a descent from MDA during a circling maneuver?
    a. When you are in a position to make a normal descent to landing

    b. You may start the descent from base or final depending on the situation
  203. 14. When do you have to go missed approach from the MAP?
    • a. Landing environment not in sight
    • b. Not in a position to make a safe landing
    • c. Directed by the controller
  204. 3. What is the meaning of a black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center? (B/1/3)
    • IFR takeoff minimums and/or departure procedures are published
    • a. Information in front of IAP
    • b. Nonstandard mins do not apply to military
    • c. Nonstandard departure procedures do apply
  205. 4. You are flying a published departure and are vectored off the departure routing. Do you need to meet subsequent published altitude restrictions? (B/1/4)
    No. Consider the published departure clearance cancelled and follow the controller’s instructions.
  206. 5. You are flying radar vectors and realize that you cannot meet an altitude restriction given by the controller. What do you do? (B/1/5)
    Notify the controller that you cannot meet the altitude restriction
  207. 7. What is the direction of turn and inbound leg length for a nonstandard holding pattern at 14,000 feet MSL? (C/1/2)
    Left turns, maximum length of inbound leg is one minute

    • a. Standard pattern - right turns
    • b. Maximum inbound leg length above 14,000 feet MSL is 1.5 minutes
  208. 8. What are the three types of high altitude approaches? (C/2/1)
    • a. Teardrop (DME or Non-DME)
    • b. Radial
    • c. Radial/arc
  209. 9. You are 50 NM from the Stonewall VORTAC at FL220 at 240 KTAS. The controller tells you to descend to cross the Stonewall VORTAC at 7000 feet MSL. What descent gradient do you use? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)? (C/3/1)
    a. Pitch Angle = 150/50 = 3° (300 ft/NM)

    b. VSI = 300 X (240/60) = 300 ft/NM X 4 NM/min = 1200 fpm descent
  210. 10. What airspeed do you maintain when performing a low altitude approach (prior to configuring)? What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach? (D/1/1)
    • a. 120 – 150 KIAS
    • b. 500 – 2000 fpm
  211. 11. When will a procedure turn approach not be flown? (D/1/2)
    f. Memory Aid: “SNERT”

    • a. Straight-in approach
    • b. “NoPT” routing
    • c. Established in holding cleared the approach, and holding course is same as procedure turn course
    • d. ATC Radar vectors you to final
    • e. Cleared by ATC for Timed approach
  212. 12. What is the difference between a procedure turn and a procedure track? (D/1/3)
    a. A procedure track requires a specific flight path

    • b. Procedure tracks may employ:
    • 1) Arcs
    • 2) Radials
    • 3) Courses
    • 4) Turns
    • 5) Ground tracks
  213. 14. When flying an ILS approach, what action should you take at the glideslope intercept point? (E/1/2)
    Reduce power to approximately 22% and lower the nose to “line-on-line” on the EADI.
  214. 17. You are enroute to a GPS approach that is loaded and selected. At 30 NM, the CDI scale automatically switches to _____. (E/3/1)
    ± 1 NM
  215. 18. At 2 NM from the FAF, the GPS automatically switches to the _____ when all conditions are satisfied. (E/3/2)
    approach active mode
  216. 19. When the GPS transitions to the approach active mode, the CDI scale begins to change from the ±1 NM approach scale to a ______ final approach scale. (E/3/3)
    ± 0.3 NM
  217. 20. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the ______ on the EHSI will ______. (E/3/4)
    track line; turn green
  218. 21. What course do you set in the EHSI to fly a backcourse localizer? (E/4/1)
    Published localizer front course
  219. 22. What are the airspeeds and configurations for downwind, base, and final on a radar approach? (F/1/1)
    • a. Downwind
    • 1) 150 - 200 KIAS
    • 2) Clean

    • b. Base
    • 1) 120 - 150 KIAS
    • 2) Gear and flaps as required

    • c. Final
    • 1) 100 - 120 KIAS
    • 2) Gear – Down
    • 3) Flaps - As Required
  220. 23. When flying in the radar environment, attempt contact with the controlling agency if notransmissions are received for ______ while being vectored, ______ on ASR final, and ______ onPAR final. (F/1/2)
    • a. 1 minute
    • b. 15 seconds
    • c. 5 seconds
  221. 24. When being vectored to an ASR final approach, somewhere in the radar pattern the radar controller will specify ______. (F/1/3)
    • a. Runway to which approach will be conducted
    • b. MDA
    • c. Missed approach point
  222. 25. A PAR approach starts when the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and _____. (F/1/4)
    contact is established with the final controller
  223. 26. Controllers will normally expect an aircraft on no-gyro vectors to use _____ bank turns in the pattern and _____ bank turns on final. (F/1/5)
    standard rate; half-standard rate
  224. 27. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____. (F/1/6)
    only when directed by the controller
  225. 28. What is the missed approach point for an instrument approach? (G/1/1)
    The latest point where the decision is made to land. The instrument approach final ends at either DA (precision) or the MAP (non-precision).
  226. 29. When transitioning to visual references during an actual instrument final approach, a good technique is to start peeking outside ______. (G/1/2)
    when you get within 100-200 feet above the reported weather ceiling
  227. 30. If a runway has centerline lights, the lights are ______ from the threshold to the 3000 feet remaining point, ______ until 1000 feet of runway remaining, and are ______ the last 1000 feet of runway remaining. (G/1/3)
    white; alternate white and red; red
  228. 32. You experience a bird strike departing Abilene Regional. You do a controllability check anddetermine the minimum controllable airspeed is 110 KIAS so you must maintain 130 KIAS until final approach. The only recovery option is the VOR or GPS-A approach at Abilene. What category approach minimums should you use? (G/2/2)
    Since your minimum circling airspeed in this scenario is 130 KIAS, you must use the Category C minimums.
  229. 33. What are climbout instructions? (G/3/1)
    • a. Instructions issued by the controller when flying multiple approaches
    • b. Constitute an ATC clearance
    • c. Supersede published missed approach instructions
  230. 34. When can you make the first turn when executing climbout instructions? (G/3/2)
    • a. Make first turn when:
    • 1) Past departure end of runway (if visible) and 400 feet AGL
    • 2) 400 feet AGL otherwise
  231. 35. You are flying a circling maneuver and lose visual references. In what direction do you make aclimbing turn during the missed approach? (G/3/3)
    • Toward the landing runway
    • a. Initiate this turn as soon as the initial climb is established for the missed approach
  232. 4. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardropinstrument penetration?
    4. When established on the inbound segment of the approach
  233. 6. When do you begin timing outbound on a procedure turn?
    • a. Outbound abeam IAF
    • b. Wings-level outbound if you cannot determine abeam
  234. 7. You are cleared for the approach at 3000 feet MSL. When can you descend in the holding pattern?
    After crossing the IAF (holding fix)
  235. 10. How much bank should you use to make corrections on a radar final approach?
    Bank angle equal to the number of degrees to be turned, not to exceed half standard rate
  236. 11. What is the T-6A configuration and airspeed for an instrument final approach at the FAF? What are the descent rates for nonprecision and precision final approaches?
    • a. At the FAF:
    • 1) Gear-down
    • 2) Flaps-TO
    • 3) 110 KIAS

    • b. Descent rates on final:
    • 1) Nonprecision 800 – 1000 fpm
    • 2) Precision 400 – 600 fpm
  237. 13. What should you do to safely transition to land from the MDA if you are past the VDP with visualglidepath indicators giving you an above glidepath indication?
    Accept a long landing. Do not attempt to capture the on-glidepath visual indication by making a large increase in your descent rate.