Instruments 2

1. What is the key to successful instrument flight?

2. Name two major items used during preflight planning.

3. What is the name used for the phase of flight where the aircraft is maneuvered from takeoff to the enroute structure, operating area, or back to the takeoff airfield?

4. What maneuver would you expect to fly if it was necessary to await further clearance from air traffic control?

5. True or false? An enroute descent is a published maneuver used to transition from high altitude enroute cruise to instrument final approach.

6. What are the key differences between a precision and non-precision instrument final approach?

7. To safely complete a transition from an instrument approach to a visual landing you must know:

1. The ITO is a composite visual and instrument takeoff. (B/1/1)(T/F)
True False

2. Select the situation where you would perform an ITO. (B/1/2)

3. After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to ______ due to the potential of spatial disorientation. (B/1/3)

4. The gear is raised when the altimeter alone indicates a positive rate of climb. (B/1/4)

5. Where would you normally look for a published departure? (B/2/1)

6. The symbol of the black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center means that you will need to use nonstandard weather takeoff minimums on departure in your T-6A. (B/2/2)

10. If your aircraft is given a different altitude by ATC than that depicted on the DP, consider the DP cancelled. (B/2/6)

11. Flying a DP, a controller gives you a heading that takes you off the DP/DP TRANSITION and does not provide any additional information. You should _______. (B/2/7)

1. The takeoff attitude for an ITO is ______.

2. During an ITO, retract the gear and flaps with a positive climb indication on the ______.

3. When will the procedures and techniques used in an ITO help maintain your situational awareness?

4. To ensure you are ready for an IFR departure, what should you have?

5. Which item is NOT provided by a DP?

6. An instrument departure is a maneuver used to safely take the aircraft to the ______.

7. A departure that has a published route and altitude restriction is called a ______.

8. A controller issues a clearance to “climb and maintain” or “maintain” an altitude different than on a DP. You continue to fly the DP route and ______.

1. ATC will only issue an in-flight clearance if requested by the pilot. (B/1/1)

2. When receiving a new in-flight clearance, you should read back any ______ the controller gives you.(B/1/2)

3. In a nonstandard holding pattern, all turns are made to the right. (B/2/1)

4. Which set of holding instructions applies to the holding patternshown? (B/2/2)

5. Holding can be accomplished at ______. (B/2/3)

6. Using the 70° method, what type of holding pattern entry is shown here? (B/2/4)

7. Which of the following IS NOT an AIM holding entry procedure? (B/2/5)

8. You are established in a VOR holding pattern at 13,000 feet MSL. How long should the second inbound leg be? (B/2/6)

1. What type of clearance should you expect if you have major changes to your flight plan enroute?

2. When you are reading back a clearance to ATC, you should read back ______.

3. What FLIP planning document contains specific information on maximum holding airspeeds, holding patterns, and how controllers will issue holding instructions?

4. When are you considered established in the holding pattern?

5. You were given clearance to hold enroute at an unpublished holding fix and the controller did not specify the direction of turn. What type of holding pattern will you fly and when would you begin to slow to holding airspeed?

6. When do you begin timing outbound in a VOR holding pattern?

7. Which of the following defines a nonstandard holding pattern?

8. For an AIM teardrop entry, turn ______ to a heading for a ______° teardrop entry on the holding side.

1. After liftoff during an ITO, you should be committed to attitude instrument flying procedures due to the potential for ______. (B/1/1)

2. Before retracting gear and flaps, you should have indications of positive rate of climb on the ______. (B/1/2)

3. Which DP types should be flown to the maximum extent possible? (B/1/3)

4. ______ensure obstacle clearance at airfields which have published instrument approaches but no published instrument departures? (B/1/4)

5. True or false? AETC pilots are required to read back all in-flight clearance information. (C/1/1)

6. Holding fixes may be defined ______. (C/2/1)

7. What are the three AIM holding entry procedures? (C/2/2)

1. How fast do you transition to instrument references during an instrument takeoff (ITO)? What is the pitch attitude for an ITO?

2. What are the only USAF methods of instrument departures?

3. The maximum length of an inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 feet MSL is ______.

4. What is the only difference in entry procedures for a nonstandard versus standard holding pattern?

1. When performing an enroute descent you should specify the type of approach you desire. (B/1/1)

2. Performing a pilot discretion descent allows the pilot to ______. (B/1/2)

3. You are in a 4° descent angle and your airspeed is at .4 Mach. What is your VSI rate of descent? (B/1/3)

4. Instrument penetration approaches are found in FLIP ______. (B/2/1)

7. What is the penetration airspeed in the T-6A? (B/2/4)

8. If no penetration turn altitude is depicted on the approach plate, when will you begin your turn inbound on a non-DME teardrop penetration? (B/2/5)

9. You are cleared for a non-DME teardrop VOR penetration but are 3000 feet below the published IAFaltitude. How long will you time outbound before descending? (B/2/6)

10. When flying a radial approach, as you pass the IAF ______. (B/2/7)

11. When flying high altitude radial/arc penetrations, you should calculate and use normal lead points tocomplete required course/arc intercepts. (B/2/8)

1. What section of the approach plate provides a side view preview for the altitude restrictions?

2. The non-DME teardrop approach is usually associated with a ______ approach.

3. When flying a non-DME teardrop approach, you are required to maintain a pitch attitude ______below the level flight picture for the penetration airspeed to ensure you remain within protected airspace.

4. When flying a radial approach if your heading is within ______ of the outbound penetration course,you are not required to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the course.

5. If you have a 3° descent gradient, how much altitude have you lost in 1 nautical mile?

6. When flying a radial/arc approach, ______ you may begin your descent to the next applicable altitude restriction.

8. You are 40 miles from Junction at FL310 at .5 Mach and are required to cross Junction at 15,000.How will you determine your descent gradient?

9. Assume you are flying the HI VOR/DME or TACAN RWY 34L at Midland INTL.Using the 60-1 rule, what descent gradient would be required from the IAF at 14,000 feet to be at 6500 feet by CRANE?

10. By which point should you complete configuring the aircraft for final approach?

1. If you are using a feeder facility to an IAF and are cleared for the approach, you are considered established on the approach. (B/1/1)

2. What airspeed do you maintain prior to configuring when flying a low altitude approach in the T-6A? (B/1/2)

5. The “barb” on a procedure turn means that your turn is made opposite the maneuvering side. (B/2/3)
True False

6. When executing a 45/180 procedure turn maneuver, turn on the maneuvering side 45° away from the outbound course, time for ______ minute(s), then turn 180° in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course. (B/2/4)

7. When would you not execute a procedure turn? (B/2/5)

9. Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach, if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course you do not have to overfly the IAF and may use normal lead points to intercept the published course. (B/3/2)

10. The term “NoPT” means that you will ______. (B/3/3)

11. Which of the following are ways to recognize a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depiction? (B/4/1)

13. Prior to initiating a descent on the inbound leg of a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn, you must be established on the inbound course. (B/4/3)

1. Low altitude approaches enable the aircraft to transition from instrument flight conditions to a visual landing while providing ______.

2. Which of the following are considered course reversal approaches?

3. When executing a low altitude approach in the T-6A you should maintain maneuvering speed of ______ prior to reaching the IAF.

4. The barbed symbol depicted in a procedure turn approach means that the turn ______.

5. In a procedure turn, what procedures are used to determine the direction of turn for intercepting the outbound course when first crossing the low altitude IAF?

7. If DME is available, what method would you use to stay within the “Remain Within” distance on a procedure turn approach?

8. Procedure tracks utilize _______ to depict the flight path between IAF and FAF.

9. What altitude can you descend to if you are using a feeder facility and are cleared for the approach?

10. You have commenced a holding in lieu of a procedure turn approach. How many orbits in holding are you expected to make?

1. You are 70 NM from the Palacios VORTAC at FL180 and 240 KTAS. You are instructed to descendto cross the Palacios VORTAC at 4000 feet MSL. What should your descent gradient be? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)? (B/1/1)

2. At a groundspeed of 4NM per minute and a descent gradient of 3°, what is the VSI rate of descent? (B/1/2)

3. Prior to the IAF you should complete a W-HOLDS check. What do the letters in W-HOLDS stand for? (B/2/1)

4. If starting a non-DME teardrop approach from below the published IAF altitude, you must fly outbound ______ for every ______ feet below the IAF altitude before initiating the descent. (B/2/2)

5. What are the two categories of low altitude instrument approach procedures (IAPs)? (C/1/1)

6. What are the two types of low-altitude course reversal approaches? (C/1/2)

7. What are the three common types of low-altitude procedure track approaches? (C/1/3)

9. How is a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach procedure? (C/2/1)

10. When flying a procedure turn you must complete the course reversal turn on the _______. (C/2/2)

11. When can you descend to the FAF altitude? (C/2/3)

12. When will a procedure turn approach not be flown? (C/2/4)

13. The term “NoPT” at an IAF on an instrument approach means ______. (C/3/1)

14. Approaching the IAF for a procedure track approach you may use normal turn lead points if your heading is within ______ of the procedure track course. (C/3/2)

15. How is a holding pattern in lieu of a procedure turn depicted on an instrument approach plate? (C/4/1)

2. True or false? When flying a low altitude procedure turn approach you may begin the turn inbound at any point.

3. When flying a procedure turn approach, if you elect to fly a teardrop entry, the teardrop course must be within how many degrees of the procedure turn course?

4. How are segments of procedure track approaches depicted?

5. You have been cleared the VOR/DME RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport. How many turns are you expected to complete in holding?

6. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardropinstrument penetration?

7. You are cleared for an enroute descent at “pilot’s discretion” from FL 190 to 7000 feet MSL. Can youtemporarily level off at 11,000 feet?

8. What descent angle and VSI do you need to descend at 210 KTAS from 15,000 feet MSL to 3000 feet MSL in 30 NM (no wind)?

9. If flying a non-DME teardrop approach with no published turn altitude, initiate the inbound turn whenthe aircraft is ______.

1. Precision approaches are distinguished from nonprecision approaches by the addition of ______ information. (B/1/1)

2. The glideslope helps maintain the proper approach angle, which is normally between ______. (B/1/2)

8. For many nonprecision approaches, you will need to establish a descent rate of about ______ to reach MDA prior to VDP. (C/1/2)

9. If the runway is not in sight when you reach VDP, you must execute a missed approach. (C/1/3)

10. Selecting ______ on the EHSI during a GPS approach will display the IAF(s), FAF, and MAP along with the course lines connecting them. (C/2/1)

11. In the approach active mode, the active leg of a GPS approach is indicated on the EHSI by a ______ between waypoints. (C/2/2)

14. A localizer transmitter will provide course guidance and glideslope information for an approach. (C/3/2)

1. Which marker beacon is normally located at the FAF or glideslope intercept point?

2. In a VOR approach in which the VOR station serves as the FAF, the approach course will be ______.

3. On the GPS display, a waypoint identifier followed by a lower case “m” designates ______.

4. An ILS is flown down to a point where you must either establish visual reference with the runway and continue to landing, or execute a missed approach. This point is called the ______.

5. On a localizer backcourse approach, you must set ______ in the EHSI.

6. In most VOR approaches, you will use either ______ to indicate arrival at the FAF.

7. To calculate VDP, you should divide the height of the MDA above the touchdown zone (HAT) by the desired approach angle times ______.

8. DME HOLD will not display on the EHSI when ______ is selected as the primary nav sensor.

9. During ILS final approach, control inputs should be minimized to prevent over controlling. You should limit pitch adjustments to 2° or less and heading corrections to ______or less.

1. Minimum Vector Altitude (MVA) may be lower than the published MEA or MOCA. (B/1/1)

2. With the airfield weather station reporting 2 miles visibility, what is the minimum distance from the FAF and the maximum intercept angle the controller can use to set up aircraft for final approach course intercept? (B/1/2)

5. What three radio calls are you required to repeat back to the controller when operating in the radarpattern? (B/1/5)

6. When flying in the radar pattern, maintain ______ KIAS in a clean configuration while on radardownwind. (B/1/6)

7. Using the technique discussed earlier, if you were flying in the radar pattern and instructed to turnright from heading 360 to heading 045, what angle of bank would you use? (B/1/7)

9. What is the criteria you must meet in order to land from an ASR approach? (C/1/2)

11. On PAR final approach, use bank equal to the number of degrees to be turned not to exceed standard rate (C/2/2)

12. If on PAR final, you accidentally drift off assigned heading, what is the proper action to take? (C/2/3)

13. Decision Altitude on a PAR is determined by ______. (C/2/4)

14. When you reach final approach on a no-gyro ASR or PAR, you must automatically transition to using half-standard rate turns. (C/3/1)

1. MVAs are established at ______ feet above the highest obstacle within the sector, ______ in mountainous terrain.

2. Traffic advisories are a mandatory service provided by controllers to aircraft operating in the radar pattern.

3. Where can you locate an airfield’s radar approach minimums?

4. Aircraft malfunction reports are ______.

5. In the T-6A, it is mandatory to configure the aircraft on base leg of the radar pattern.

6. An ASR is a ______approach.

7. When flying an ASR approach, the MAP is defined by ______.

8. To execute a missed approach while circling to land from an ASR, turn initially towards the ______.

9. A PAR approach starts when ______.

10. T-6A final approach airspeed on a PAR approach is ______ KIAS.

11. When flying no-gyro vectors and approach, you must acknowledge the “start/stop turn” controller directives until ______.

1. At some airports, HIRL lights turn yellow ______ feet from the departure end. (B/1/1)

2. All approach lighting systems have ______ lights. (B/1/2)

3. Where can you find graphic descriptions of the configurations of various approach lighting systems? (B/1/3)

6. Which of the following is NOT a method used to define the missed approach point for a nonprecision, nonradar approach? (C/1/1)

7. When transitioning from instrument to visual references, look for the landing environment ______. (C/1/2)

8. Full flaps are required when beginning the visual descent to the runway after an instrument approach. (C/1/4)

9. Bright approach lights suddenly appearing on final approach can give an impression of being below glidepath. (C/2/1)

10. Flying an approach to a narrow runway may give the impression of being below glidepath on final. ( C/2/2)

11. The airport elevation is ______. (D/1/1)

12. Where can you find published circling approach restrictions for a particular airfield? (D/1/2)

13. Which of the following aircraft categories has the largest obstruction clearance radius? (D/1/3)

14. Which of the following is an INCORRECT circling clearance? (D/2/1)

15. You may lower full (LDG) flaps on a circling approach ______. (D/2/2)

16. A sidestep maneuver is a procedure in which you fly a published instrument approach to one runway, then perform ______ transition to land on an alternate runway. (D/3/1)

17. Unless specified on the approach plate, a climb gradient of ______ feet/NM is required to ensure obstacle clearance during the published missed approach. (E/1/1)

18. What is the first step to perform a missed approach? (E/1/2)

19. Execute a ______ if you have started a visual descent from an instrument approach and you cannot safely land the aircraft. (E/1/3)

1. Which lighting system can be used as a HIRL, MIRL, and LIRL system?

2. The numbers on runway remaining markers represent amount of runway remaining in ______.

3. The missed approach point is depicted on the approach plate at ______.

4. When transitioning from instruments on an instrument final approach, begin looking for visual references ______.

5. If you transition from the MDA to a visual descent to the runway at the FAF your aim point should probably be ______.

6. Flying an approach to a runway wider than normally experienced can give the illusion of being below the glidepath.

7. What airspeed should you maintain when using TO flaps during the visual final following an instrument approach?

8. The circling MDA and weather minimums to be used are for the runway to which the instrument approach is being flown.

9. Staying within the aircraft’s obstruction clearance radius ensures ______ feet obstacle clearance during a circling approach?

10. Which of the following is an example of a correct circling clearance?

11. When performing a circling maneuver, plan your turn to base to permit a ______ NM final.

12. Climbout instructions supersede published missed approach instructions and constitute an ATC clearance.

13. The pitch attitude for the initial climb on a missed approach is ______ nose-high reference on the EADI.

14. Execute a missed approach from the circling maneuver when you ______.

1. Is an ILS approach a precision or nonprecision approach? (B/1/1)

2. Based on the marker beacon indication shown (OM), approximately where is the aircraft along the ILS approach path? (B/1/2)

3. What are the “6 Ts” you can use as a memory aid to accomplish required items at the FAF? (B/2/1)

4. Flying a GPS approach with Super Nav 5 mode selected, how is the FAF identified on the GPS display? (B/3/1)

6. While being radar vectored to final, attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately _____. (C/1/1)

7. If IMC conditions are likely to be encountered, when will missed approach instructions for a radar approach normally be issued? (C/1/2)

8. If ceiling is less than 500 feet above the MVA and visibility is less than 3 miles, the aircraft will bevectored to intercept the final approach course at least ______ from the FAF at a maximum intercept angle of _____ degrees. (C/1/3)

9. You are flying an ASR approach and the radar controller is providing recommended altitudes onfinal. These recommended altitudes approximate the ______ glidepath and will cease at the ______.(C/2/1)

10. How do you know you are at the MAP on an ASR approach? (C/2/2)

11. You are at DA on a PAR approach when _____. (C/2/3)

12. Typical runway lighting consists of a row of ______ lights on each side of the runway, ______ lights identifying the runway threshold, and ______ lights at the departure end. (D/1/1)

13. Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) are flashing white lights used to ______. (D/1/2)

15. Which runway minimums do you use when flying a circling approach? (D/2/1)

16. How much obstacle clearance is provided when circling at the published MDA? (D/2/2)

17. When flying a circling maneuver, is it permissible to fly at an altitude ABOVE the circling MDA? (D/2/3)

18. If you are executing climbout instructions and the departure end of the runway is in sight, delay any turn until ______. (D/3/1)

19. When executing a missed approach from a circling maneuver begin a _____. (D/3/2)

3. About ______ nose-low and ______ torque will maintain approach speed and a descent rate of 800 - 1000 fpm.

4. You have been cleared the GPS RWY 5 approach at Cochran Airport and instructed to enter holding at VIENNA. What mode must you select for the GPS before entering holding?

5. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the track line to the FAF on the EHSI will turn ______.

7. You are flying an ILS approach. You are past the localizer FAF and above the localizer MDA. Yougo two dots below the ILS glidepath. Do you have to go missed approach?

9. You are going to fly a VOR approach to Runway 13 and circle to Runway 22. Which circling minimums do you use to fly the approach, the minimums for Runway 13 or the minimums for Runway 22?

10. Radar controllers provide obstacle clearance using _____.

11. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____.

12. You would get a graphic depiction of the landing environment for a particular airfield _____.

13. When can you begin a descent from MDA during a circling maneuver?

14. When do you have to go missed approach from the MAP?

3. What is the meaning of a black inverted triangle with a “T” in the center? (B/1/3)

4. You are flying a published departure and are vectored off the departure routing. Do you need to meet subsequent published altitude restrictions? (B/1/4)

5. You are flying radar vectors and realize that you cannot meet an altitude restriction given by the controller. What do you do? (B/1/5)

7. What is the direction of turn and inbound leg length for a nonstandard holding pattern at 14,000 feet MSL? (C/1/2)

8. What are the three types of high altitude approaches? (C/2/1)

9. You are 50 NM from the Stonewall VORTAC at FL220 at 240 KTAS. The controller tells you to descend to cross the Stonewall VORTAC at 7000 feet MSL. What descent gradient do you use? What is the resulting VSI if you maintain airspeed (assume no wind)? (C/3/1)

10. What airspeed do you maintain when performing a low altitude approach (prior to configuring)? What is the recommended rate of descent during a low altitude approach? (D/1/1)

11. When will a procedure turn approach not be flown? (D/1/2)

12. What is the difference between a procedure turn and a procedure track? (D/1/3)

14. When flying an ILS approach, what action should you take at the glideslope intercept point? (E/1/2)

17. You are enroute to a GPS approach that is loaded and selected. At 30 NM, the CDI scale automatically switches to _____. (E/3/1)

18. At 2 NM from the FAF, the GPS automatically switches to the _____ when all conditions are satisfied. (E/3/2)

19. When the GPS transitions to the approach active mode, the CDI scale begins to change from the ±1 NM approach scale to a ______ final approach scale. (E/3/3)

20. When you cross the FAF on a GPS approach, the ______ on the EHSI will ______. (E/3/4)

21. What course do you set in the EHSI to fly a backcourse localizer? (E/4/1)

22. What are the airspeeds and configurations for downwind, base, and final on a radar approach? (F/1/1)

23. When flying in the radar environment, attempt contact with the controlling agency if notransmissions are received for ______ while being vectored, ______ on ASR final, and ______ onPAR final. (F/1/2)

24. When being vectored to an ASR final approach, somewhere in the radar pattern the radar controller will specify ______. (F/1/3)

25. A PAR approach starts when the aircraft is in range of the precision radar and _____. (F/1/4)

26. Controllers will normally expect an aircraft on no-gyro vectors to use _____ bank turns in the pattern and _____ bank turns on final. (F/1/5)

27. On final for a no-gyro ASR, begin using half-standard rate turns _____. (F/1/6)

28. What is the missed approach point for an instrument approach? (G/1/1)

29. When transitioning to visual references during an actual instrument final approach, a good technique is to start peeking outside ______. (G/1/2)

30. If a runway has centerline lights, the lights are ______ from the threshold to the 3000 feet remaining point, ______ until 1000 feet of runway remaining, and are ______ the last 1000 feet of runway remaining. (G/1/3)

32. You experience a bird strike departing Abilene Regional. You do a controllability check anddetermine the minimum controllable airspeed is 110 KIAS so you must maintain 130 KIAS until final approach. The only recovery option is the VOR or GPS-A approach at Abilene. What category approach minimums should you use? (G/2/2)

33. What are climbout instructions? (G/3/1)

34. When can you make the first turn when executing climbout instructions? (G/3/2)

35. You are flying a circling maneuver and lose visual references. In what direction do you make aclimbing turn during the missed approach? (G/3/3)

4. When can you descend from the turn completion altitude on a non-DME high altitude, teardropinstrument penetration?

6. When do you begin timing outbound on a procedure turn?

7. You are cleared for the approach at 3000 feet MSL. When can you descend in the holding pattern?

10. How much bank should you use to make corrections on a radar final approach?

11. What is the T-6A configuration and airspeed for an instrument final approach at the FAF? What are the descent rates for nonprecision and precision final approaches?

13. What should you do to safely transition to land from the MDA if you are past the VDP with visualglidepath indicators giving you an above glidepath indication?