ITIL Service Management Foundation

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DPucciarelli
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ITIL Service Management Foundation
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2014-01-22 08:27:10
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  1. Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?

    A. Process owner
    B. Change manager
    C. Service manager
    D. Process practitioner
    Answer: D. Process practitioner
  2. Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
    A. Service level management
    B. IT operations management
    C. Capacity management
    D. Incident management
    Answer: B. IT operations management
  3. Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?

    A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
    B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
    C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
    D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
    Answer: B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
  4. At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new servicebe defined?

    A. Service design: Design the processes
    B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
    C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
    D. Service operation: IT operations management
    Answer: A. Service design: Design the processes
  5. Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

    A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
    B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
    C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
    D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
    Answer: A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
  6. Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
    A. To identify patterns of business activity
    B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
    C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
    D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
    Answer: B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
  7. The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four Ps?
    A. People, process, partners, performance
    B. Performance, process, products, plans
    C. People, process, products, partners
    D. People, products, plans, partners
    Answer: C. People, process, products, partners
  8. Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?

    A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
    B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
    C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
    D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
    Answer: D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
  9. Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

    A. Incident and financial management
    B. Change and release and deployment management
    C. Incident and event management
    D. Knowledge and service level management
    Answer: C. Incident and event management
  10. Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

    A. Change proposal
    B. Change policy
    C. Service request
    D. Risk register
    Answer: A. Change proposal
  11. Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
    1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
    2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both of the above
    D. Neither of the above
    Answer: B. 2 only
  12. Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
    A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
    B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
    C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
    D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
    Answer: C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
  13. Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?

    A. Roles
    B. Inputs and outputs
    C. Functions
    D. Metrics
    Answer: C. Functions
  14. Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
    A. Service level management
    B. Service catalogue management
    C. Demand management
    D. Service transition
    Answer: B. Service catalogue management
  15. A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

    A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
    B. Perform an activity
    C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
    D. Manage an activity
    Answer: C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
  16. Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

    1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
    2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
    3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
    4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  17. Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

    A. Components
    B. Processes
    C. The end-to-end service
    D. Customer satisfaction
    Answer: A. Components
  18. Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

    A. Capacity management
    B. Incident management
    C. Service level management
    D. Financial management
    Answer: A. Capacity management
  19. Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service life cycle?

    A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
    B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
    C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
    D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
    Answer: A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
  20. What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

    A. Outcome
    B. Incident
    C. Change
    D. Problem
    Answer: A. Outcome
  21. Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
    A. Change management
    B. Service portfolio management
    C. Supplier management
    D. Continual service improvement
    Answer: C. Supplier management
  22. Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

    1. Local service desk
    2. Virtual service desk
    3. IT help desk
    4. Follow the sun

    A. 1, 2 and 4 only
    B. 2, 3 and 4 only
    C. 1, 3 and 4 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3 only
    Answer: A. 1, 2 and 4 only
  23. What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

    A. Informational, scheduled, normal
    B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
    C. Informational, warning, exception
    D. Warning, reactive, proactive
    Answer: C. Informational, warning, exception
  24. What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

    A. Employers
    B. Stakeholders
    C. Regulators
    D. Accreditors
    Answer: B. Stakeholders
  25. Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

    1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
    2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
    3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B. 2 and 3 only
  26. What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

    A. Technical management
    B. Emergency change advisory board
    C. Urgent change board
    D. Urgent change authority
    Answer: B. Emergency change advisory board
  27. Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

    A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
    B. To provide training and certification in project management
    C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
    D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
    Answer: B. To provide training and certification in project management
  28. Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?

    1. Those planned to be delivered
    2. Those being delivered
    3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: B. All of the above
  29. The BEST description of an incident is:

    A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
    B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
    C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
    D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
    Answer: B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
  30. Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
    A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;Continually improve
    B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
    C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
    D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
    Answer: D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Didwe get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
  31. When can a known error record be raised?

    1. At any time it would be useful to do so
    2. After a workaround has been found

    A. 2 only
    B. 1 only
    C. Neither of the above
    D. Both of the above
    Answer: D. Both of the above
  32. What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

    A. The change authorization board
    B. The change advisory board
    C. The change implementer
    D. The change manager
    Answer: B. The change advisory board
  33. Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

    A. Continual service improvement
    B. Change management
    C. Service level management
    D. Availability management
    Answer: C. Service level management
  34. What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

    A. The value of a service
    B. Governance
    C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
    D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
    Answer: A. The value of a service
  35. Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

    A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
    B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
    C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
    D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
    Answer: B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
  36. Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

    A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
    B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
    C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
    D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
    Answer: B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
  37. Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

    A. Measurement, methods and metrics
    B. Service design package
    C. Service portfolio design
    D. Process definitions
    Answer: B. Service design package
  38. What should a service always deliver to customers?

    A. Applications
    B. Infrastructure
    C. Value
    D. Resources
    Answer: C. Value
  39. Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?

    A. Service catalog management
    B. Service asset and configuration management
    C. Change management
    D. Information security management
    Answer: D. Information security management
  40. Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

    A. IT services and components
    B. IT services and business processes
    C. Components and business processes
    D. IT services, components and business processes
    Answer: A. IT services and components
  41. What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

    A. Configuration baseline
    B. Project baseline
    C. Change baseline
    D. Asset baseline
    Answer: A. Configuration baseline
  42. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

    A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
    B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
    C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
    D. To detect security events and make sense of them
    Answer: B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
  43. Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

    1. ITIL is vendor neutral
    2. It does not prescribe actions
    3. ITIL represents best practice

    A. All of the above
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: A. All of the above
  44. Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

    A. The Deming Cycle
    B. The continual service improvement approach
    C. The seven-step improvement process
    D. The service lifecycle
    Answer: A. The Deming Cycle
  45. The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. Continual service improvement
    B. Service strategy
    C. Service design
    D. Service transition
    Answer: B. Service strategy
  46. Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general inquiries from users?

    A. Service level management
    B. Service portfolio management
    C. Request fulfillment
    D. Demand management
    Answer: C. Request fulfillment
  47. Which of the following BEST describes partners' in the phrase people, processes, products and partners"?

    A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
    B. Customers
    C. Internal departments
    D. The facilities management function
    Answer: A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
  48. Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?

    A. The service level management
    B. The IT service continuity management
    C. The service catalogue management
    D. The supplier management
    Answer: D. The supplier management
  49. The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management?

    A. Data
    B. Information
    C. Knowledge
    D. Governance
    Answer: C. Knowledge
  50. Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the implementation of a new service?

    A. A service option
    B. A service transition package (STP)
    C. A service design package (SDP)
    D. A service charter
    Answer: C. A service design package (SDP)
  51. Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?

    1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
    2. Description of the goods or service provided
    3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  52. Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

    A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management
    B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
    C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management
    D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment
    Answer: A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management
  53. Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

    A. Reduced total cost of ownership
    B. Improved quality of service
    C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
    D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
    Answer: D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
  54. Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have replaced?

    A. Availability management
    B. Capacity management
    C. Service portfolio management
    D. Service catalogue management
    Answer: C. Service portfolio management
  55. Consider the following list:

    1. Change authority
    2. Change manager
    3. Change advisory board (CAB)

    Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

    A. Job descriptions
    B. Functions
    C. Teams
    D. Roles, people or groups
    Answer: D. Roles, people or groups
  56. Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?

    A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
    B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
    C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction
    D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement
    Answer: A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident
  57. Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data center?

    A. Technical management
    B. Service desk
    C. Application management
    D. Facilities management
    Answer: D. Facilities management
  58. Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?

    A. RACI model
    B. Incident model
    C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
    D. The Deming Cycle
    Answer: A. RACI model
  59. Which process will regularly analyse incident data to identify discernible trends?

    A. Service level management
    B. Problem management
    C. Change management
    D. Event management
    Answer: B. Problem management
  60. Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?

    A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers
    B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail
    C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement
    D. A service not directly used by the business
    Answer: A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers
  61. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?

    A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
    B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole,operating together for a common purpose
    C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
    D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
    Answer: A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
  62. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

    A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents
    B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
    C. To restore service to a user
    D. To eliminate recurring incidents
    Answer: C. To restore service to a user
  63. Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?

    A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement
    B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
    C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
    D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available
    Answer: C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it
  64. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?

    A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design
    B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service components
    C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate
    D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
    Answer: A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design
  65. Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

    A. Implementing service and process improvements
    B. Reviewing measurements and metrics
    C. Creating a baseline
    D. Defining measurable targets
    Answer: D. Defining measurable targets
  66. Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

    A. Definitive media library (DML)
    B. Configuration management system (CMS)
    C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
    D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
    Answer: B. Configuration management system (CMS)
  67. The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?

    A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks
    B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
    C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital
    D. Training of all staff and investment of capital
    Answer: B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk
  68. Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?

    A. Standards
    B. Technology
    C. Academic research
    D. Internal experience
    Answer: B. Technology
  69. Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include Partners,People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?

    A. Profit
    B. Preparation
    C. Products
    D. Potential
    Answer: C. Products
  70. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?

    A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue
    B. The design of new or changed services
    C. The design of market spaces
    D. The design of the technology architectures
    Answer: C. The design of market spaces
  71. Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

    A. A service level agreement (SLA)
    B. A request for change (RFC)
    C. The service portfolio
    D. A service description
    Answer: A. A service level agreement (SLA)
  72. Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?

    1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customer's successful
    2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
    3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages

    A. All of the above
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: C. 1 and 2 only
  73. What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

    A. Informational, scheduled, normal
    B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
    C. Informational, warning, exception
    D. Warning, reactive, proactive
    Answer: C. Informational, warning, exception
  74. A process owner is responsible for which of the following?

    1. Defining the process strategy
    2. Assisting with process design
    3. Improving the process
    4. Performing all activities involved in a process

    A. 2, 3 and 4 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1, 2 and 3 only
    D. 1, 2 and 4 only
    Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 only
  75. Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

    A. Capacity management
    B. Governance
    C. Service design
    D. Service level management
    Answer: B. Governance
  76. Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?

    1. The services
    2. The architectures
    3. The configuration items
    4. The processes

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. 1, 3 and 4 only
    C. 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  77. Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?

    A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
    B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
    C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
    D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
    Answer: D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
  78. Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

    A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources
    B. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions
    C. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes
    D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes
    Answer: D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes
  79. What are underpinning contracts used to document?

    A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider
    B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers
    C. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customer
    D. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams
    Answer: B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers
  80. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements again sttargets?

    A. Operational level agreement (OLA)
    B. Capacity plan
    C. Service level agreement (SLA)
    D. SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)
    Answer: D. SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)
  81. Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

    A. The IT director
    B. The process owner
    C. The service owner
    D. The customer
    Answer: B. The process owner
  82. Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

    A. Knowledge management
    B. Release and deployment management
    C. Service asset and configuration management
    D. Service level management
    Answer: B. Release and deployment management
  83. Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?

    1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
    2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet

    A. Both of the above
    B. 1 only
    C. 2 only
    D. Neither of the above
    Answer: A. Both of the above
  84. Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?

    A. The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)
    B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
    C. All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider
    D. All incidents reported to the service desk
    Answer: B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
  85. Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

    A. Service Strategy
    B. Continual Service Improvement
    C. Service Operation
    D. Service Design
    Answer: B. Continual Service Improvement
  86. Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs?

    A. Availability management
    B. Capacity management
    C. Design coordination
    D. Release management
    Answer: C. Design coordination
  87. What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

    A. Employers
    B. Stakeholders
    C. Regulators
    D. Accreditors
    Answer: B. Stakeholders
  88. What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after?

    1. What is the vision?
    2. Where are we now?
    3. Where do we want to be?

    4. How do we get there?
    5. Did we get there?
    6. ?

    A. What is the return on investment (ROI)?
    B. How much did it cost?
    C. How do we keep the momentum going?
    D. What is the value on investment (VOI)?
    Answer: C. How do we keep the momentum going?
  89. Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

    A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)
    B. Amongt the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
    C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
    D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
    Answer: C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
  90. Which of the following BEST describes a problem?

    A. An issue reported by a user
    B. The cause of two or more incidents
    C. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business
    D. The cause of one or more incidents
    Answer: D. The cause of one or more incidents
  91. Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?

    A. Internal
    B. External
    C. Service desk
    D. Shared services unit
    Answer: C. Service desk
  92. Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

    A. Incidents can only be reported by users
    B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service
    C. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidents
    D. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems
    Answer: B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service
  93. Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

    A. Incident management
    B. Access management
    C. Change management
    D. Request fulfillment
    Answer: B. Access management
  94. What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

    A. Business services
    B. Component services
    C. Supporting services
    D. Customer services
    Answer: C. Supporting services
  95. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?

    1. Data mining and workflow
    2. Measurement and reporting
    3. Release and deployment
    4. Process design

    A. 2, 3 and 4 only
    B. 1, 3 and 4 only
    C. 1, 2 and 3 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  96. How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

    A. As many as necessary to complete the activity
    B. Only one - the process owner
    C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor
    D. Only one - the process architect
    Answer: B. Only one - the process owner
  97. The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?

    A. A change
    B. A change model
    C. A change request
    D. A change advisory board
    Answer: A. A change
  98. Where should the following information be stored?

    1. The experience of staff
    2. Records of user behavior
    3. Supplier's abilities and requirements
    4. User skill levels

    A. The forward schedule of change
    B. The service portfolio
    C. A configuration management database (CMDB)
    D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)
    Answer: D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)
  99. Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?

    1. The approach is pre-authorized
    2. The risk is usually low and well understood
    3. Details of the change will be recorded
    4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfillment process

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  100. Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management
    B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
    C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event management
    D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and event management
    Answer: A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management
  101. With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

    A. Incident management
    B. Service asset and configuration management
    C. Capacity management
    D. IT service continuity management
    Answer: A. Incident management
  102. What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

    A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
    B. Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider
    C. Reports should be produced weekly
    D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services
    Answer: A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
  103. Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

    A. Functions
    B. Maturity and cost
    C. The end-to-end service
    D. Infrastructure availability
    Answer: C. The end-to-end service
  104. Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management?

    A. To prevent problems and resultant incidents
    B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle
    C. To restore service to a user
    D. To eliminate recurring incidents
    Answer: C. To restore service to a user
  105. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

    A. Demand management
    B. Incident management
    C. Release and deployment management
    D. Request fulfillment
    Answer: D. Request fulfillment
  106. Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

    A. Technical management
    B. IT operations management
    C. Request fulfillment
    D. Applications management
    Answer: B. IT operations management
  107. Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?

    1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
    2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
    3. Restoring service
    4. Implementing all standard changes

    A. All of the above
    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 4 only
    D. 3 and 4 only
    Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  108. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

    A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
    B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
    C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
    D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
    Answer: D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
  109. Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

    A. Do
    B. Perform
    C. Implement
    D. Measure
    Answer: A. Do
  110. What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?

    A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality
    B. Strategic, tactical and operational
    C. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
    D. Technology, process and service
    Answer: D. Technology, process and service
  111. Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?

    1. Customers
    2. Users

    A. All of the above
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: A. All of the above
  112. From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

    A. User
    B. Customer
    C. Supplier
    D. Administrator
    Answer: B. Customer
  113. Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

    A. Request fulfillment
    B. Service portfolio management
    C. Service desk
    D. IT finance
    Answer: A. Request fulfillment
  114. Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

    A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
    B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
    C. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
    D. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers
    Answer: B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
  115. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

    A. Knowledge
    B. Information
    C. Wisdom
    D. Data
    Answer: C. Wisdom
  116. Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

    A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
    B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
    C. To create and populate a service catalogue
    D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
    Answer: D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
  117. Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

    A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be located
    B. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
    C. Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be
    D. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application
    Answer: B. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
  118. What is a RACI model used for?

    A. Performance analysis
    B. Recording configuration items
    C. Monitoring services
    D. Defining roles and responsibilities
    Answer: D. Defining roles and responsibilities
  119. The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

    A. Before the change is approved
    B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
    C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
    D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
    Answer: A. Before the change is approved
  120. Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

    A. Only changes that introduce new services
    B. It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity
    C. Only changes to business critical systems
    D. Any change that the organization believes could benefit
    Answer: D. Any change that the organization believes could benefit
  121. What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

    A. Service catalogue management
    B. Service portfolio management
    C. Service desk
    D. Business relationship management
    Answer: D. Business relationship management
  122. Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

    A. To ensure the impact of changes are understood
    B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
    C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
    D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
    Answer: D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
  123. What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

    A. Strategic customers
    B. External customers
    C. Valued customers
    D. Internal customers
    Answer: D. Internal customers
  124. Access management is closely related to which other process?

    A. Capacity management only
    B. 3rd line support
    C. Information security management
    D. Change management
    Answer: C. Information security management
  125. In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management,information security management, and supplier management?

    A. Service strategy
    B. Service design
    C. Service transition
    D. Service operation
    Answer: B. Service design
  126. Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

    A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)activities
    B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
    C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
    D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
    Answer: A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)activities
  127. A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a work around has been found. Is this a valid approach?

    A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
    B. No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged
    C. No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
    D. No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service
    Answer: A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
  128. Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?

    1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
    2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
    3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

    A. All of the above
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: A. All of the above
  129. Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?

    1. Things that were done correctly
    2. Things that were done incorrectly
    3. How to prevent recurrence
    4. What could be done better in the future

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  130. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

    A. Describes the topography of the hardware
    B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
    C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
    D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
    Answer: B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
  131. Which of the following are sources of best practice?

    1. Academic research
    2. Internal experience
    3. Industry practices

    A. All of the above
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: A. All of the above
  132. Which of these should a change model include?

    1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
    2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
    3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
    4. Complaints procedures

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. 2 and 4 only
    Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  133. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

    A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
    B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
    C. Eliminating recurring incidents
    D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
    Answer: D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
  134. Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?

    1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
    2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both of the above
    D. Neither of the above
    Answer: C. Both of the above
  135. Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?

    1. Enabling
    2. Core
    3. Enhancing
    4. Computer

    A. 1, 3 and 4 only
    B. 2, 3 and 4 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. 1, 2 and 3 only
    Answer: D. 1, 2 and 3 only
  136. In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

    A. The service level agreement (SLA)
    B. The problem record
    C. The availability management information system
    D. The IT service plan
    Answer: B. The problem record
  137. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

    A. It is measurable
    B. It delivers specific results
    C. It responds to specific events
    D. It structure an organization
    Answer: D. It structure an organization
  138. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transaction stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. To ensure that a service managed and operated accordance with constraints specified during design
    B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
    C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
    D. To plan the resources required to manage a release
    Answer: B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
  139. Which of the following BEST describes technical management?

    A. A function responsibilities for facilities management and building control systems
    B. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers
    C. Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function
    D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT
    Answer: D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT
  140. Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume ofITIL?

    A. Local
    B. Centralized
    C. Outsourced
    D. Virtual
    Answer: C. Outsourced
  141. What is the primary focus of the business management?

    A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology
    B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
    C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live,operational IT services
    D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion
    Answer: D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion
  142. Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks which could seriously affect IT services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?

    A. Change management
    B. IT service continuity management
    C. Financial management for IT services
    D. Service catalog management
    Answer: B. IT service continuity management
  143. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?

    A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
    B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
    C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
    D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting
    Answer: A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
  144. Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

    A. Service asset and configuration management
    B. Event management
    C. Service catalogue management
    D. Problem management
    Answer: B. Event management
  145. Which one of the following do major incidents require?

    A. Separate procedures
    B. Less urgency
    C. Longer timescales
    D. Less documentation
    Answer: A. Separate procedures
  146. What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
    B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
    C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
    D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    Answer: D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers
  147. In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operations contribution?

    A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
    B. Measures for optimization are identified
    C. Service value is modeled
    D. Service value is visible to customers
    Answer: D. Service value is visible to customers
  148. Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

    A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)
    B. Customer and user satisfaction
    C. Service requirements and warranty
    D. Resources and capabilities
    Answer: D. Resources and capabilities
  149. Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?

    A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
    B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) arestored and protected
    C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
    D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
    Answer: B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) arestored and protected
  150. Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

    A. Service level agreements (SLAs)
    B. Third-party contracts
    C. The service portfolio
    D. Operational level agreements (OLAs)
    Answer: B. Third-party contracts
  151. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design
    B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
    C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
    D. To plan the resources required to manage a release
    Answer: B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
  152. Which of the following are managed by facilities management?

    1. Hardware within a data center or computer room
    2. Applications
    3. Power and cooling equipment
    4. Recovery sites

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1, 3 and 4 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    Answer: C. 1, 3 and 4 only
  153. Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

    A. Service design
    B. Service transition
    C. Continual service improvement
    D. Service operation
    Answer: A. Service design
  154. Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?

    1. Design and modeling
    2. Reporting
    3. Pattern recognition and analysis
    4. Detection and monitoring

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. 1, 3 and 4 only
    C. 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  155. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

    A. The availability of a service or component
    B. The level of risk that affects a service or process
    C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
    D. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order
    Answer: C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
  156. Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?

    A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
    B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
    C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolio
    D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue
    Answer: B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
  157. Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

    A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
    B. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
    C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
    D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
    Answer: D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
  158. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

    A. The configuration management system is part of the known error database
    B. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system
    C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system
    D. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database
    Answer: C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system
  159. Implementation of ITIL service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?

    A. People, process, partners, performance
    B. Performance, process, products, problems
    C. People, process, products, partners
    D. People, products, perspective, partners
    Answer: C. People, process, products, partners
  160. Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?

    1. Design of the service metrics
    2. Business continuity strategy
    3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
    4. Risk assessment

    A. 1, 2 and 4 only
    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    C. 2, 3 and 4 only
    D. 1, 3 and 4 only
    Answer: C. 2, 3 and 4 only
  161. What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

    A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
    B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
    C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
    D. A document that describes business services to operational staff
    Answer: A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
  162. Which one of the following generates demand for services?

    A. Infrastructure trends
    B. Patterns of business activity (PBA)
    C. Cost of providing support
    D. Service level agreements (SLA)
    Answer: B. Patterns of business activity (PBA)
  163. Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?

    A. To negotiate service levels for new services
    B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
    C. To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities
    D. To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue
    Answer: B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
  164. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

    A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
    B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
    C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
    D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem
    Answer: A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
  165. Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
    B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
    C. To design and build processes which will meet business needs
    D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers
    Answer: D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers
  166. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?

    A. An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found
    B. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
    C. An incident logged by a senior manager
    D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business
    Answer: D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business
  167. Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

    1. Monitoring system availability
    2. Designing availability into a proposed solution

    A. None of the above
    B. Both of the above
    C. 1 only
    D. 2 only
    Answer: D. 2 only
  168. Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

    A. Intrusion detection
    B. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data center
    C. Recording service desk staff absence
    D. Monitoring the status of configuration items
    Answer: C. Recording service desk staff absence
  169. The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?

    A. Customer level
    B. Service level
    C. Corporate level
    D. Configuration level
    Answer: D. Configuration level
  170. Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?

    A. Supplier management and service level management
    B. Supplier management and change management
    C. Availability management and service level management
    D. Supplier management and availability management
    Answer: A. Supplier management and service level management
  171. Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?

    A. Service level management
    B. Change management
    C. Incident management
    D. Service asset and configuration management
    Answer: D. Service asset and configuration management
  172. Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?
    A. Act
    B. Plan
    C. Do
    D. Co-ordinate
    Answer: D. Co-ordinate
  173. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?

    A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
    B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
    C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
    D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer
    Answer: D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer
  174. Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?

    1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
    2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
    3. Defining how value is created

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. 3 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  175. In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

    1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
    2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

    A. Both of the above
    B. Neither of the above
    C. Option 1 only
    D. Option 2 only
    Answer: A. Both of the above
  176. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

    A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
    B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
    C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
    D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service
    Answer: D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service
  177. Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?

    A. Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildings
    B. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations
    C. Managing access to the service desk
    D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services
    Answer: D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services
  178. Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management
    B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
    C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event management
    D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and eventmanagement
    Answer: A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management
  179. Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?

    1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
    2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
    3. Restoring service
    4. Implementing all standard changes

    A. All of the above
    B. 1, 2 and 3 only
    C. 2 and 4 only
    D. 3 and 4 only
    Answer: B. 1, 2 and 3 only
  180. Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

    A. The change management process owner
    B. The change advisory board (CAB)
    C. The service owner
    D. The continual service improvement manager
    Answer: A. The change management process owner
  181. Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management?

    1. Identification of configuration items (CIs)
    2. Recording relationships between CIs
    3. Recording and control of virtual CIs
    4. Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management

    A. 1, 2 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. 3 and 4 only
    Answer: A. 1, 2 and 3 only
  182. Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

    A. Service operation
    B. Service transition
    C. Continual service improvement
    D. Service strategy
    Answer: C. Continual service improvement
  183. Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

    A. Where are we now?
    B. Where do we want to be?
    C. How do we get there?
    D. Did we get there?
    Answer: B. Where do we want to be?
  184. Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?

    A. Service level management
    B. Financial management
    C. Demand management
    D. Risk management
    Answer: B. Financial management
  185. Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

    A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
    B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
    C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
    D. An SLA for a service with no customers
    Answer: A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
  186. Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?

    A. Standards
    B. Technology
    C. Academic research
    D. Internal experience
    Answer: B. Technology
  187. What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

    A. Strategic service
    B. Delivered service
    C. Internal service
    D. External service
    Answer: C. Internal service
  188. What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?

    A. Service management
    B. Incident management
    C. Resource management
    D. Service support
    Answer: A. Service management
  189. From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?

    A. The user
    B. The customer
    C. The supplier
    D. The administrator
    Answer: B. The customer
  190. Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

    A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
    B. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
    C. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
    D. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail
    Answer: A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
  191. Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?

    A. Change management
    B. Capacity management
    C. Service transition planning and support
    D. Release management
    Answer: C. Service transition planning and support
  192. Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?

    A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle
    B. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into them
    C. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycle
    D. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment
    Answer: A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle
  193. Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?

    A. Service transition planning and support
    B. Design coordination
    C. Service level management
    D. Change management
    Answer: B. Design coordination
  194. Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?

    1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
    2. Identifying improvement opportunities
    3. Appointing people to required roles

    A. All of the above
    B. 1 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: A. All of the above
  195. Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?

    A. Process practitioner
    B. Process manager
    C. Service manager
    D. Change manager
    Answer: B. Process manager
  196. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

    1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
    2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

    A. Both of the above
    B. 1 only
    C. Neither of the above
    D. 2 only
    Answer: B. 1 only
  197. Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?

    1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
    2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome

    A. 1 only
    B. Both of the above
    C. 2 only
    D. Neither of the above
    Answer: B. Both of the above
  198. Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

    A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
    B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk
    C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
    D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
    Answer: B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk
  199. Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of under pinning contracts?

    A. Change management
    B. Service catalogue management
    C. Supplier management
    D. Release and deployment management
    Answer: C. Supplier management
  200. Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?

    1. Service pipeline
    2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)
    3. Service catalogue

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
  201. A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?

    1. A new IT service
    2. A major change to an IT service
    3. An emergency change to an IT service
    4. An IT service retirement

    A. 2, 3 and 4 only
    B. 1, 2 and 4 only
    C. None of the above
    D. All of the above
    Answer: B. 1, 2 and 4 only
  202. Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?

    1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
    2. Reduced cost to design new services
    3. Result in higher volume of successful changes

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1 and 3 only
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C. 1 and 3 only
  203. Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?

    1. Capacity management
    2. Request fulfillment
    3. Demand management
    4. Incident management

    A. All of the above
    B. 3 and 4 only
    C. 2 and 4 only
    D. 2 only
    Answer: C. 2 and 4 only
  204. Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?

    A. Planning how to recover the cost of a change
    B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful
    C. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change
    D. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change
    Answer: B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful
  205. Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

    A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
    B. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be logged
    C. All incidents must be fully logged
    D. The service desk decide which incidents to log
    Answer: C. All incidents must be fully logged
  206. Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?

    A. Categorization
    B. Detection
    C. Prioritization
    D. Escalation
    Answer: A. Categorization
  207. Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

    A. Service level management
    B. Problem management
    C. Change management
    D. Event management
    Answer: B. Problem management
  208. What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

    A. Informational, scheduled, normal
    B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
    C. Informational, warning, exception
    D. Warning, reactive, proactive
    Answer: C. Informational, warning, exception
  209. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

    A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
    B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place
    C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
    D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
    Answer:There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
  210. Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?

    A. A capacity database
    B. A definitive media library
    C. A request for change
    D. A known error database
    Answer: D. A known error database
  211. Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?

    A. Naming and numbering conventions
    B. Entry and exit criteria of the release into testing
    C. Roles and responsibilities for the release
    D. The risk register for the release
    Answer: D. The risk register for the release
  212. Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

    A. The five ITIL volumes are concise
    B. It is not tied to any particular vendor platform
    C. It tells service providers exactly how to be successful
    D. It is designed to be used to manage projects
    Answer: B. It is not tied to any particular vendor platform
  213. What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is available?

    A. A service object
    B. An incident
    C. A change
    D. A known error
    Answer: D. A known error
  214. Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?

    A. Budgeting and charging
    B. Accounting and charging
    C. Budgeting and accounting
    D. Costing and charging
    Answer: C. Budgeting and accounting
  215. What is the primary focus of business capacity management?

    A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology
    B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
    C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live,operational IT services
    D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion
    Answer: D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion
  216. Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?

    A. The service portfolio includes ail services except those managed by third parties
    B. It is an integral part of the service catalogue
    C. It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service deployments
    D. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle
    Answer: D. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle
  217. Which of the following statements describes the objectives of service asset and configuration management?

    1. To identify, control, report and verify service assets and configuration items (CIs)
    2. To account for, manage and protect the integrity of service assets and configuration items
    3. To establish and maintain an accurate and complete configuration management system
    4. To document all security controls together with their operation and maintenance

    A. 1 and 2 only
    B. 1, 2, and 3 only
    C. 1, 3 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: A. 1 and 2 only
  218. Which stage of the change management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

    A. Remediation planning
    B. Categorization
    C. Prioritization
    D. Review and close
    Answer: A. Remediation planning
  219. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

    A. Change management
    B. Service transition
    C. Service strategy
    D. Service design
    Answer: D. Service design
  220. Which of these recommendations is best practice for service level management?

    1. Include legal terminology in service level agreements (SLAs)
    2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA

    A. 1 only
    B. 2only
    C. Both of the above
    Answer: D. Neither of the above
  221. Which of the following statement about the service owner is INCORRECT?

    A. Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
    B. Contributes to continual improvement affecting the service they own
    C. Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which support the service they own
    D. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
    Answer: A. Carries out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
  222. Which Functions are included in IT operations management?

    A. Network management and application management
    B. Technical management and change management
    C. IT operations control and facilities management
    D. Facilities management and release management
    Answer: C. IT operations control and facilities management
  223. Which process would seek to understand levels of customer satisfaction and communicate what action plans have been put in place to deal with dissatisfaction?

    A. Availability management
    B. Capacity management
    C. Business relationship management
    D. Service catalogue management
    Answer: C. Business relationship management
  224. The definitive media library is the responsibility of:

    A. Facilities management
    B. Access management
    C. Request fulfillment
    D. Service asset and configuration management
    Answer: D. Service asset and configuration management
  225. What are the three service provider business models?

    A. Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore party
    B. Internal service operations provider, external service operations provider, shared service unit
    C. Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3rd party
    D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit
    Answer: D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit
  226. Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

    A. Only changes that introduce new services are included
    B. All changes are mandated to be included
    C. Only changes to business critical systems are included
    D. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included
    Answer: D. Any changes that would benefit the organization are included
  227. Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board(CAB)?

    1. Details of failed changes
    2. Updates to the change schedule
    3. Reviews of completed changes

    A. All of the above
    B. 1 and 2 only
    C. 2 and 3 only
    D. 1 and 3 only
    Answer: A. All of the above
  228. Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?

    1. Core
    2. Enabling
    3. Special

    A. 1 and 3 only
    B. All of the above
    C. 1 and 2 only
    D. 2 and 3 only
    Answer: C. 1 and 2 only
  229. What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?

    A. Serviceability
    B. Availability
    C. Capacity
    D. Continuity
    Answer: B. Availability
  230. Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?

    1. Incident model
    2. Known error record

    A. 1 only
    B. 2 only
    C. Both of the above
    D. Neither of the above
    Answer: C. Both of the above
  231. Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?

    1. Communication between data center shifts
    2. Communication related to changes
    3. Performance reporting
    4. Routine operational communication

    A. 1 only

    B. 2 and 3 only
    C. 1, 2 and 4 only
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above
  232. Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?

    A. CSI register
    B. Known error database
    C. Capacity management information system
    D. Configuration management database
    Answer: A. CSI register
  233. Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

    A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
    B. Urgency should be based on impact and priority
    C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority
    D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
    Answer: D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
  234. Event management, problem management, access management and request fulfillment are part of which stage of the service lifecycle?

    A. Service strategy
    B. Service transition
    C. Service operation
    D. Continual service improvement
    Answer: C. Service operation
  235. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

    A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
    B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
    C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
    D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
    Answer: B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
  236. Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

    A. They are units of organizations
    B. They are measurable
    C. They deliver specific results
    D. They respond to specific events
    Answer: A. They are units of organizations
  237. Which process has the following objective “Establish new or changed services into supported environments within the predicted cost, time and resource estimates”?

    A. Service strategy
    B. Service transition planning and support
    C. Service level management
    D. Change management
    Answer: B. Service transition planning and support
  238. What are customers of an IT service provider who purchase services in terms of a legally binding contract known as?

    A. Strategic customers
    B. External customers
    C. Valued customers
    D. Internal customers
    Answer: B. External customers

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