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  1. 1. Instructions or procedures prefaced by the word ________ are mandatory.
  2. 2. The C-17A max design zero fuel weight is _________.
  3. 3. To override the #2 or #3 hydraulic aux. pumps for an auto shutdown due to low quantity or overheat,_________.
    Press and hold appropriate Aux pump switch for 5 seconds.
  4. 4. An automatic shutdown override switchlight provides a means to override all APU ECU automatic shutdown signals except _________.
    indicated fire or overspeed
  5. 5. When the APU alert start feature is used, there will be no _______ until the battery bus is powered.
    fire detection or protection
  6. 6. When the warning horn makes the tone of a squeal it indicates what warning situation?
    APU Fire Warning
  7. 7. The Battery Direct Bus, the Battery Bus, the AC and DC Emergency Buses, and the AC and DC Transfer Buses comprise the ______.
    emergency power system
  8. 8. The After Takeoff/Climb Checklist is normally accomplished after slat retraction on takeoff or when leaving the low altitude environment and transitioning to the enroute structure. This checklist may be omitted for:
    • immediate returns and flights of 30 minutes or less
    • low level entry/airdrop within 30 minutes
  9. 9. To preclude damage to the landing gear, accomplish no more than ______ consecutive landings without a cooling period. A cooling period consists of, flying with the gear retracted for at least 20 minutes or with the gear extended for at least 10 minutes before the next landing.
  10. 10. If the APU is started and the AVAIL light does not illuminate, the ____ must be cycled from ON to RESET to ON.
    APU PWR switch
  11. 11. The Maximum Payload for the C-17 is 170,900 pounds; however for specific aircraft, Maximum Payload is______________.
    Zero Fuel Weight minus Operating Weight.
  12. 12. The AUX pump reservoir sump is provided as a backup fluid supply for the number _________ system AUX pump for the cargo door and ramp when isolated from its primary system.
  13. 13. There are _________ smoke detectors located on the aircraft.
  14. 14. Control panels for the ramp blowdown system are located at the __________.
    Forward Loadmaster Station; Aft Loadmaster Station, Left Side
  15. 15. A WAP message, CREW OXY LOW will be displayed when quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below __________ +/- 5 psi.
  16. 16. Oxygen is supplied to the 48 centerline seat passenger masks via two flexible hoses. Each hose can supply oxygen to a maximum of _________ seat modules (six seats per module).
  17. 17. Following an intentional cabin depressurization above 10,000 feet, the cabin must be repressurized to less than ________ feet to reset the regulators. If the regulators are not reset, subsequent flight above 9,000 feet cabin altitude may deploy the passenger oxygen masks.
  18. 18. Below _______ feet cabin altitude, each emergency oxygen regulator SURGE MODE lever/three position toggle switch must be positioned to MAN ON/MANUAL ON to provide passenger oxygen.
  19. 19. The passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any altitude with the -1 emergency oxygen regulator by positioning the SURGE MODE lever to the MAN ON position and rotating the spring loaded surge knob _____ and holding momentarily (approximately ___ seconds) to open the passenger oxygen mask containers and start the flow of oxygen.
    clockwise; 6
  20. 20. If either the pilot’s or loadmaster’s FED ARM switch is in ARM, all four FEDS hatches can be deployed from either the ________________________ initiator handles.
    maintenance/ditching hatch or the forward loadmaster station
  21. 21. Portable hand fire extinguishers are provided in the following areas; ___ in the Cockpit, ___in the Crew rest area, and ___ in the Cargo compartment.
    2; 1; 6
  22. 22. If unable to leave the area after using the handheld fire extinguishers, ___________.
    breath 100 percent oxygen as necessary
  23. 23. There are ________ Emergency Escape Breathing Devices (EEBD) installed in the aircraft.
  24. 24. The EEBD is a _______-minute self-contained, disposable breathing unit with a maximum operating altitude of ________.
    15; 41,000
  25. 25. One crash axe is located on the aft side, right EPC and one at the _______ chop out location.
    right forward
  26. 26. When an aircraft engine is at idle thrust, the engine intake danger area is ________.
    9 feet
  27. 27. During the Interior Safety Inspection - Power Off, failure to fully install safety switch pins or place CMDSWOW MAINT ORIDE switch to NORM could result in _________.
    an unintended jettison of payloads
  28. 28. If the aircraft is powered by batteries alone and the pilot’s CNC indicates OFF, radio communication is possible using the ________ radio with the VHF/UHF Backup Control panel.
    COM 1
  29. 29. The loadmaster advises the medical crew director that seat belts are required _________.
    immediately prior to takeoff
  30. 30. The purge valve on the flight crew quick don mask should be in the ________ position except during preflight and when oxygen is in use where smoke or fumes are not present and goggles are not required.
  31. 31. During in-flight operation of the troop doors, deploy the air deflector between ______ and ______ degrees before opening the first door.
    10; 15
  32. 32. When on/offloading vehicles, do not deflate vehicle pneumatic tires _________.
    below the tires rated inflation pressure
  33. 33. Use caution when positioning pallets/platforms into ADS pallet position No. 1 that exceeds _______ inches in height measured from the surface of the pallet/platform.
  34. 34. Should delay in winching occur on the incline of the cargo ramp, use _________ to secure the item.
    chain type tiedown equipment
  35. 35. Equipment mounted on a single axle disconnected from its prime mover and loaded with its tongue resting on the aircraft floor or ramp, _____________.
    must be drained, but not purged
  36. 36. When the vehicle is parked on the cargo floor and parking brakes are inoperative, ___________.
    install a minimum of two chains and two tiedown devices, one forward and one aft
  37. 37. Supplemental restraint is not required when logistic locks are verified as locked using direct visual inspection of lock slide markings.
  38. 38. When loading pallets with a bare tine forklift, one set of inner roller channels may be removed from the ramp toes if the pallet weight does not exceed _______ pounds.
  39. 39. There are ________ clearly marked chop out areas in the C-17.
  40. 40. Except where prohibited by specific procedures, open circuit breakers ________ in the event that the electrical condition was transient in nature.
    may be reset once
  41. 41. If both left and right side FEDS Shielded Mild Detonating Cord (SMDC) lines are inoperative (AA-EM w/o TCTO 1549), limit persons on board to a maximum of _____when mission segments involve overwater flight.
  42. 42. The signal for ground evacuation is _________.
    1 long sustained ring of the alarm bell
  43. 43. The signal for prepare for ditching or crash landing is ________.
    6 short rings of the alarm bell
  44. 44. The signal for prepare to bailout is ________.
    3 short rings of the alarm bell
  45. 45. All odors not identifiable by the flight crew shall be considered toxic. Immediately __________________.
    use 100% oxygen, ventilate the aircraft, and land as soon as practical.
  46. 46. There are _______ emergency exits provided for ground evacuation.
  47. 47. Following a ditching emergency, as a minimum, the loadmaster will provide ______________.
    a flashlight and first aid kit
  48. 48. For passengers, the primary source of oxygen for a smoke/fumes environment is the ________.
  49. 49. If a fire is being fed by oxygen from an oxygen system, consider turning off the __________ until the fire is suppressed.
    manual shutoff valves
  50. 50. Selective freefall of any landing gear can be accomplished by activating the release handles only for those gear that are not extended. When lowering both main gear on one side, lower ______________.
    the forward gear first
  51. 51. Prior to a wheels up landing, the ______________ will be opened.
    Cockpit Access Door, Troop Doors and Cargo Door
  52. 52. If the aircraft is under control and time permits, the order of preference for bailout exits are ____________.
    cargo door and ramp, and the troop doors
  53. 53. For all bailouts at 14,000 feet or above, pull the ___________; for bailouts below 14,000 feet, pull the______
    automatic rip cord release; parachute ripcord T-handle
  54. 54. Salvo type jettisoning, releasing all pallets, platforms and containers at once, is recommended for both ADS and Logistic rails
  55. 55. The maximum vertical height of a load to be jettisoned is ________ inches measured from the ______ of the pallet/platform.
    118; top
  56. 56. The loadmaster will don and connect a restraint harness or parachute prior to opening the troop doors, or the cargo door and ramp from the aft loadmaster station. Connect the restraint harness to any tiedown ring at or forward of FS _________.
  57. 57. During cargo jettison, ensure all selected lock annunciators are ___________ before stating "LOCKSRELEASED".
  58. 58. During a ditching, do not activate the __________ prior to the aircraft coming to a rest.
    FEDS hatches
  59. 59. The ground evacuation checklist is not complete until _________ .
    a personnel count is established
  60. 60. During the Ramp Blowdown deployment sequence, if the RAMP switch is moved to the ________position, the deployment sequence will stop.
  61. 61. If a fire should break out during loading operations, the first items that should be offloaded are _______.
    flammable and/or explosive materials
  62. 62. The maximum airspeed when opening the troop doors or cargo door and ramp is _______.
    250 KCAS
  63. 63. The cargo ramp shall not be unlatched in flight when the payload on the ramp exceeds _________ pounds, except during jettison conditions.
  64. 64. Highlights an essential operating procedure, practice, condition, statement etc., which if not strictly observed could result in injury to or death of personnel or long term health hazards are __________.
  65. 65. Without [STRUT IMP]; in the event the stabilizer strut system fails to operate properly, do not recycle the STAB STRUTS switch. Immediately __________.
    remove hydraulic power and notify maintenance
  66. 66. Without [STRUT IMP]; when retracting and stowing the stabilizer struts, prior to pulling the DOOR solenoid valve handle and rotating it clockwise to the CLOSED position, ensure both struts are fully retracted in the vertical position.
  67. 67. Do not use _________ cargo compartment lighting in flight. PA system speakers/volume will be deactivated during any condition that activates the cargo compartment lights because of sidewall oxygen system deployment. The speakers/volume must be manually reactivated to make PA announcements.
  68. 68. If an E/R FSP is installed on a non-E/R aircraft, the E/R pump switchlights will illuminate when pressed, but no aircraft system function will occur.
  69. 69. With ambient temperatures are at or below -9 °C (15 °F), the AUX pumps may not initially generate full pressure. If system pressure does not rise to at least 3500 psi within 30 seconds of selecting the pump to AUTO, select the pump to off, wait 30 seconds and proceed as follows.1. Select the AUX pump to AUTO for 30 seconds, then off for 30 seconds.2. Repeat ___________ or until system pressure indicates at least3500 psi.
    for a maximum of 10 cycles
  70. 70. If the landing gear control panel or landing gear control handle indicates unsafe (RED), conduct a visual inspection of the affected gear to confirm damage or proper alignment of red fluorescent band on down lock links. _________________________.
    If all gear are down and locked, disregard unsafe indications
  71. 71. If a centerline seat assembly cannot be secured with ____ serviceable floor attachment fittings, that seat module shall not be installed.
  72. 72. In the same lateral row, when using 6 MB-2 tiedown devices in an unsymmetrical pattern the amount of vertical restraint is limited to ______ pounds per ring.
  73. 73. Install/stow ramp toe quick release pins with lanyard attaching ring/hole facing __________. Failure to comply may cause damage to the aircraft.
  74. 74. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than ________ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartments D, F and G.
  75. 75. Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than ________ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartment E.
  76. 76. When using ramp toe approach shoring the minimum shoring width shall be ________ inches or tire width, whichever is greater.
  77. 77. The maximum vehicle weight of a tracked vehicle with articulated suspension loaded in E compartment is___.
  78. 78. Tracked vehicles with articulated suspension and with wheel weights exceeding ____ lbs (average) must be loaded within 8 inches of aircraft centerline
  79. 79. Tunner loader furnished bridge plates shall not be used when loading/offloading rolling stock from a K-loader with the ramp toes installed.
  80. 80. Hazardous cargo considered jettisonable ____________ be positioned forward of non-jettisonable cargo, except when its size, weight, and location will permit jettison by hand.
    shall not
  81. 81. _____ highlight essential operating procedure, practice, condition or statement, etc which if not strictly observed could result in damage to, or destruction of equipment or loss of mission effectiveness.
  82. 82. The cargo compartment loading heights vary between _________ inches.
    148, 158, and 162
  83. 83. Do not connect exhausts from low temperature materials to the _______ side vents or exhausts from operating engines to the __________ side vents. Connection of a low temperature exhaust to a vent contaminated with oil or grease may cause an explosion.
  84. 84. When cargo projects aft of the end of the logistics rails (FS ____), ensure the ramp toes do not contact the cargo while being raised to the vertical position.
  85. 85. When pedestal shoring is used under the Ramp Ground Support Pad for special loads, the shoring shall be a minimum of ________ inches long and __________ inches wide.
  86. 86. The aft end of the ramp toes shall not be supported when in the _________ position.
  87. 87. There are provisions for a total of ____ aeromedical litter positions.
  88. 88. The rated capacity of the snatch blocks is ________.
    20,000 lbs
  89. 89. When winching and the direction of pull is changed, the sheave ________.
    must be manually realigned to the new direction
  90. 90. When four snatch blocks are required the 7,500 pound cable pull may be increased to _______ under the winches increased load capability.
    9,000 pounds
  91. 91. The primary method for controlling cargo winching operations is ___________.
    the Remote Winch Controller (RWC)
  92. 92. The maximum load allowed on the bridge plates is _______ pounds per plate or a ________ pound axle using both plates.
    7,500; 15,000
  93. 93. There are ______ therapeutic oxygen outlets located on the right side cargo compartment sidewall, and______ therapeutic oxygen outlets located on the left side of the cargo compartment.
    five / zero
  94. 94. Palletized seat assemblies may be loaded in the logistic rails when transported as cargo. Passengers will not occupy palletized seats in the logistic rails.
  95. 95. On a dolly mounted engine, tiedown devices shall be attached through lifting/tiedown eyes on the engine adapter.
  96. 96. On aeromedical evacuation missions with litter or ambulatory patients, the ramp is restricted __________.
    to a maximum of two pallets in the ADS rails or centerline floor loaded items
  97. 97. All netted pallets loaded into either rail system __________ built up to ensure lateral projections beyond the vertical stacking line do not exist.
    shall be
  98. 98. Pallets or pallet trains up to ________lbs per pallet may be loaded into the logistics rail system provided at least two locks, one left and one right are engaged in each pallet.
  99. 99. The in-flight ramp loadable height capability varies between ______ at the ramp hinge to______ inches at the end of the ramp.
    156, 116
  100. 100. Spotters are required to observe clearances and to prevent contact with the wing box structure when loading cargo higher than_____ inches forward of FS_____.
    148; 937
  101. 101. When loading ISU containers that are 90 inches or higher into the logistic rails on the aircraft ramp,________________.
    ramp toes with rollers and guide rails shall be installed
  102. 102. The primary method of loading pallets into the ADS and logistic rail system is using the ramp toes.
  103. 103. Due to limited maneuvering space, pallet rotation shall be closely supervised. Failure to comply could result in personnel injury or damage to the__________.
  104. 104. Required restraint for cargo on the pallet/pallet train shall be provided using nets, tiedown straps, or chains. When supplemental restraint is required, additional tiedowns may be attached to the pallet or cargo floor.
  105. 105. Straps and chains shall not be mixed to restrain cargo in the same direction. However, 10,000 and 25,000pound rated devices with the appropriate chains may be used for a given direction of restraint.
  106. 106. Netted two pallet trains that exceed _____ shall be restrained to the cargo floor.
    20,710 pounds
  107. 107. Pallets or pallet trains up to 7,800 pounds per pallet may be loaded into the ADS rail/lock system when
    at least two ADS locks (one left and one right) are engaged in each pallet.
  108. 108. Forklift operation ____________ performed inside the aircraft provided all Section IV loading/offloading limitations and forklift limitations are not exceeded.
    may be
  109. 109. When using the ramp as a lifting aid, the stabilizer struts should be deployed for weights above _________pounds.
  110. 110. Ensure cargo is restrained in __________ prior to raising and closing the ramp when cargo is positioned on the ramp for flight. Failure to comply could result in damage to the aircraft and cargo.
    both directions
  111. 111. If increasing or decreasing the ramp angle prevents positive control of an item of cargo, __________ prior to raising or lowering the ramp.
    restraint will be applied
  112. 112. When properly installed on a single pallet, the nets provide all necessary restraint for cargo loads up to________ pounds when the height of stacked cargo does not exceed 96 inches.
  113. 113. The maximum wheel load on each ramp toe in the low position is __________ pounds.
  114. 114. The maximum pallet/platform weight on two ramp toes is _____ pounds except for 18-foot type VI platforms which may be increased to 14,500 pounds.
  115. 115. The maximum single axle load on the toes in the low position is ________ pounds.
  116. 116. Replace the cargo winch cable if ________ or more broken wires per strand inch or _________ or more broken wires per cable inch are found.
    4; 7
  117. 117. Cargo on a single pallet regardless of size __________.
    will meet all restraint requirements
  118. 118. Vehicles with transmissions that are not equipped with a neutral position shall be loaded/offloaded using the cargo winch.
  119. 119. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked to 96 inches shall not exceed________ pounds.
  120. 120. Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked above 96 inches (not to exceed 100inches) shall not exceed __________ pounds.
  121. 121. All vehicle winching must be closely monitored by a crew of at least _______ personnel.
  122. 122. The maximum cargo weight that may be loaded left or right of the aircraft centerline is _______ pounds, provided all other aircraft limitations are complied with.
  123. 123. When low profile cargo does not permit the use of side nets, the top net may be used by itself provided the cargo weight does not exceed __________ pounds and cargo height does not exceed ________ inches from the pallet surface.
    2,500; 45
  124. 124. While offloading rolling stock with the cargo winch, if continuous tension cannot be maintained while transiting the ramp hinge; ensure ramp remains ___________ when cargo is on the ramp or traversing the ramp hinge.
    below coplanar
  125. 125. When plywood barriers and chain bridles are installed for forward restraint on palletized cargo, pallets that exceed ________ inches in height will have a minimum of _______ bridle(s) installed and the minimum thickness for the barrier will be _______ inches.
    30; 2; 3/4
  126. 126. If ________ stowage pins are not engaged on _________side of each toe stowed on the cargo door, that toe may come loose during flight.
    lower; both left and right
  127. 127. Each palletized seat assembly shall be secured for _____ using two ADS locks on each side.
    9 G’s
  128. 128. When loading pallets that exceed a height of 100 inches, monitor overhead clearances between the top ofpallets and aircraft structure. When positioning MHE in preparation for loading 463L pallets into thelogistic rail system, contact with the aircraft _____ shall be considered.
  129. 129. When vehicle gross weight exceeds _______, a 25,000 lb. chain shall be used to attach the cable/snatchblock to the load.
    23,000 lbs.
  130. 130. A strap or chain gate provides restraint in ___________ direction(s.)
    only one
  131. 131. A chain bridle provides restraint in __________ direction(s.)
    more than one
  132. 132. The maximum number of empty 463L pallets that may be stacked for airlift, excluding the base supportpallet is _________.
  133. 133. During palletized cargo loading (non –winching), the minimum distance between the aircraft ramp and K-loader is ___ inches.
  134. 134. Tiedown devices connected to cargo that spans from the main cargo floor to the ramp shall be____________ prior to opening the ramp.
  135. 135. The minimum thickness of rolling shoring shall be _______ inch(es).
  136. 136. With the ramp toes in the high position, the required overlap between the ramp toe contact pads and the floor of the loader is _________ inches.
  137. 137. In the high position the ramp toes should be at an angle which causes the aft end of the toe to be above coplanar position with the ramp floor.
  138. 138. When using a tiedown strap to secure a ramp toe on the cargo door, route the strap around the stowage rack and secure the strap to the rack.
  139. 139. Each tiedown ring can accommodate a maximum of ________ CGU-1/B tiedown straps for any directional pull calculations.
  140. 140. When attaching multiple chains/devices to one tiedown ring, the ring____________________.
    cannot be used for both forward and aft restraint
  141. 141. Crewmembers occupying a crew station will have an oxygen mask connected and readily available for use from _____.
    before engine start until engine shutdown.
  142. 142. Calculate crew and passenger oxygen requirements based on flight at _____ from the ETP to the nearest suitable recovery base.
    FL 250
  143. 143. To ensure good CRM when there is a multiple loadmaster requirement, the primary loadmaster will_____________________________.
    assume overall responsibility for completion of all checklists
  144. 144. Crewmembers may travel as MEP for a maximum of ___ hours.
  145. 145. When children under the age of ___ are accepted as passengers, their sponsor has the option to either hold the child or place him/her in a DOT approved ICS.
  146. 146. With the exception of cruise flight, conversation below 18,000‘ MSL will be limited to mission, departure, or approach essential items. Sterile cockpit procedures also apply during:
    taxi, low level, and air refueling operations
  147. 147. Examples of non-mission related material that is prohibited for use by any crewmember at a primary duty position or acting as a primary crewmember are; _______________________.
    All of the above
  148. 148. MEP crewmembers will not retain custody of ammunition on an aircraft.
  149. 149. PHOENIX RAVEN(s) will only be armed in-flight on specifically designated missions identified on the mission "frag" as "RAVEN in-flight arming required".
  150. 150. An entry will be placed in AFTO 781A when the aircraft is _____________________.
    • operated on a Semi-Prepared Runway
    • flown over water, under 1,000 feet above sea level for longer than 30 minutes
  151. 151. When crews are directed to carry weapons, as a minimum __________________.
    one pilot and one loadmaster will be armed
  152. 152. When wearing the ACDE, Atropine and 2 PAM Chloride auto injectors will be kept in the _____ ACDE pocket. If the integrated survival vest/body armor is worn, the Atropine and 2 PAM Chloride auto injectors may be kept in the ____________ flight suit pocket.
    upper left, lower right
  153. 153. Contaminated engine covers, safety pins and chocks will not be placed in the aircraft unless _____.
    sealed in clean plastic bags and properly marked
  154. 154. The aircraft loadmaster may deviate from load plans to facilitate ease of onload or offload of cargo, accommodate additional passengers, and to alleviate unnecessary aircraft reconfiguration without submitting documentation.
  155. 155. The loadmaster is the on-scene expert for load planning and accepting cargo for airlift. Some loads are not specifically detailed in applicable directives and require the loadmaster to use his or her best judgment, based on _____________, to determine the best and safest method of loading the cargo.
    all the above     (training, experience, knowledge)
  156. 156. When the load consists of palletized netted cargo or cargo secured with straps, a ______ inch space will be maintained between the cargo and the nearest forward litter, occupied seat or nuclear cargo.
  157. 157. Duty loadmasters will accomplish ____________ prior to conducting loading operations.
    all of the above     (an Interior Safety Inspection, a basic aircraft pre-flight, all appropriate loading preparation checklists)
  158. 158. Weapons are considered loaded if a magazine or clip is installed in the weapon. This applies even though the clip or magazine is empty.
  159. 159. Personnel performing duties required to be mobile in the cargo compartment during airdrop, low level operations, or threat environments will wear protective headgear.
  160. 160. During ERO's , vehicles and all personnel exiting via the cargo ramp will proceed directly aft of the aircraft at least ________ feet before turning and at least _________ feet before stopping.
    25; 200
  161. 161. On operational missions, ______________ may authorize combat offloads when conditions warrant.
    the controlling MAJCOM/A3/DO or DIRMOBFOR
  162. 162. The maximum altitude for emergency airlift of personnel will not exceed flight level __________.
  163. 163. Reduced light EROs must be accomplished with red/NVIS (overt) lighting in the cargo compartment sufficient to permit MHE drivers to see marshaller‘s signals and safely position MHE. NVGs ________ be used for positioning MHE for on/off-loading operations.
    will not
  164. 164. Cargo and passengers may be carried with patients unless a clear detriment to the health and well-being of the patient or passengers can be demonstrated. The decision will be made by the __________, considering the need for maximum utilization of the aircraft.
  165. 165. Maximum altitude for floor loaded patients is flight level ___.
  166. 166. Cabin Pressure Gauge at the crew entry door is required to be operational for home station departures.
  167. 167. Aircrew Data Transfer Device is not required to be operational for home station departure.
  168. 168. When ____ or more passengers/troops are planned, a pallet position shall be left open to accommodate palletized/floor loaded baggage.
  169. 169. For home station departure, all rails, locks, vertical lips and roller conveyors (ADS and logistic) will be fully operational.
  170. 170. All proximity sensors and indicating systems associated with the cargo door system will be operational.
  171. 171. The following smoke detectors are required for home station/main operating base departures: One AV, all 4IRU, _________ plus two others in the cargo compartment.
    CAR 9, 10, 13, 14
  172. 172. All passenger hand-carried items must be of a size to fit under the seat and must not obstruct the safety aisle. Any item that does not fit under a seat or obstructs an aisle way will be________________________.
    stowed with checked baggage and secured for flight
  173. 173. If no maintenance personnel are available and crew duties limit the availability of a crewmember, the engines may be started without someone outside the aircraft. If this option is used, ensure all crew members are thoroughly briefed.
  174. 174. When guidance in AFI 11-2C-17V3 conflicts with another basic/source document, that document takes precedence.
  175. 175. AFI 11-2C-17V3 applies to____________.
    all of the above     (aircrew members involved with employing C-17 aircraft.  support personnel involved with employing C-17 aircraft.  managers involved with employing C-17 aircraft.)
  176. 176. Unless otherwise directed, the waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2C-17V3 is _____________.
  177. 177. The maximum FDP for a basic aircrew is ___ hours, (___ hours when the autopilot is inoperative).
  178. 178. The maximum crew duty time for a basic C-17 aircrew is ________.
    18 hours
  179. 179. Maximum CDT for an augmented aircrew is ____ hours.
  180. 180. Crew members will not be scheduled to fly, nor will they perform crew duties after consuming alcoholic beverages within ______ hours of _______ time, or when under the influence of alcohol.
    12; takeoff
  181. 181. For all missions, the latest allowable alert time is ___ hours after the expected alert time.
  182. 182. When tasked, an aircraft and/or aircrew in BRAVO Standby Force will launch within ___ hour(s).
  183. 183. The total number of persons permitted in the flight station is limited _____. In all cases, sufficient oxygen sources must be available.
    to the number of seats with operable seat belts
  184. 184. During joint airborne air transportability training (JA/ATT), special assignment airlift missions (SAAM),USAF mobility, and contingency missions, the loadmaster can accept DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, as valid pre-inspection of equipment being offered for air shipment. This form must be signed by,
    Both b and c      (The user, The transporting force)
  185. 185. Do not taxi an aircraft within ______ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______.
    25 feet; 10 feet
  186. 186. During reverse taxi operations, obstacles less than or equal to____ tall require ____ of clearance from the aft end of the ramp in coplanar.
    8 feet; 25 feet
  187. 187. During reverse taxi operations, obstacles greater than ____ tall require ____ of clearance from the aft end of the ramp in coplanar.
    8 feet; 88 feet
  188. 188. Hazardous material entering the Defense Transportation System destined for military airlift must be certified by a qualified individual using a _____________.
    Shipper’s Declaration For Dangerous Goods
  189. 189. Deviations are a departure from established procedures in AFMAN 24-204 (I), for transporting__________ with ___________ material.
    passengers; hazardous
  190. 190. Waivers are ___________ the packaging or compatibility requirements of AFMAN 24-204 (I).
    exceptions to
  191. 191. A leak is a loss of fuel or fluid at a rate, which is readily detected or seen. _______ drops per minute from a cooling system, crankcase, gear case, or hydraulic system (although not regulated by AFMAN 24-204 (I) is considered a leak).
  192. 192. _______ or _______ system leaks, no matter how minor, will cause the item to be frustrated until repaired.
    Fuel / Brake
  193. 193. Shipper’s Declarations are______ required for “Phoenix Banner, Silver, and Copper Operations.”
  194. 194. AFTTP and AFTTP(I) publications are not directive. Complying with publications in this category is expected, but not mandatory.
  195. 195. If taxiing on very narrow taxiways, a good technique according to AFTTP 3-3.C-17 is to ______________.
    place a loadmaster in each troop door to call out distances
  196. 196. The AFTTP 3-3.C-17 “paint a picture” technique for loadmasters involves ___________________ the backing operation.
    giving descriptive information needed to increase pilot situational awareness during
  197. 197. An area extending approximately ______ from the radome of the aircraft is not visible from the pilot or copilot seat due to cockpit height and aircraft fuselage geometry. Ensure all equipment and ground personnel are clear of the non-visibility area before commencing taxi.
    44 feet
  198. 198. Loadmasters and ground crews should wear protective goggles when conducting ______ operations.
    SPRO ground
  199. 199. When backing the aircraft, the critical side is situation dependent and may vary based on proximity of______________________.
    all of the above      (wheels to runway/taxiway edge, obstacles, FOD potential)
  200. 200. When backing, the effective aircraft gross weight can increase up to an additional ___________ pounds and possibly exceed maximum allowable ramp weights.
  201. 201. The loadmaster is a key element in the defense of the aircraft. His/her responsibly is to__________________.
    all of the above      (maintain Situational Awareness, assist in the visual acquisition of air and ground threats, direct initial defensive maneuvers to the PF)
Card Set:
2014-01-27 02:27:49

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