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The control and performance concept
procedural steps are (in order):
establish pitch and power, trim off pressures, cross-check, adjust.
As a guide for instrument
turns of 30 degrees or less, the bank angle should approximate _____. For turns
of more than 30 degrees, use a bank angle of _____.
- the number of degrees
- to be turned, 30 degrees.
Absence of an ILS identifier:
- indicates an unreliable
According to AFMAN 11-217,
reliable DME signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight
altitude with an accuracy of _____ mile or _____ percent of the distance,
whichever is greater.
The glide slope signal is
usable to a distance of _____ NM from the glide slope antenna unless otherwise
depicted on the IAP.
Where procedures depict a
ground track, the pilot is expected to correct for known wind conditions,
unless being radar vectored.
When proceeding to a station,
turning to keep the bearing pointer under the upper lubber line describes:
Groundspeed checks made below
____ feet are accurate at any distance from the DME station.
When correcting back to the
arc, displace the bearing pointer _____ from the reference point for each 1/2
mile deviation to the inside of the arc and _____ for each 1/2 mile outside the
When checking the altimeter
against a known checkpoint on the ground, the maximum allowable error is ____
_____ NOTAMs require only
local dissemination and are conditions that do not prevent operations in and
out of the aerodrome.
Air Force pilots flying civil
Departure Procedures must plan to cross the departure end of the runway at
least _____ feet AGL.
When flying a Departure
Procedure, aircrews must climb on runway heading until _____ feet above airport
elevation, unless otherwise instructed.
If there is a requirement to
execute an approach procedure with an incompatible missed approach, alternate
missed approach/departure instructions must be coordinated with ATC before the
When the name of the approach
is followed by a letter such as A, B, C, etc., the approach is designed for
circling minimums only.
Minimum safe altitude is the
minimum altitude which provides at least _____ feet of obstacle clearance for
emergency use within a specified distance from the navigation facility upon
which the procedure is based.
Emergency safe altitude will
provide _____ feet of obstacle clearance ( _____ feet in designated mountainous
areas) within _____ NM of the facility.
1,000, (2,000), 100.
Touchdown zone elevation is
the highest point in the first _____ feet of the landing runway.
On multi-facility approaches,
the depicted VDP will be for the _____ published.
- nonprecision approach
- with the lowest MDA.
When checking the VOR at a
designated ground checkpoint, the allowable CDI error is _____ degrees.
Which is a correct standard
- Right turns, 1 minute
- when holding at or below 14,000 feet.
ATC should issue holding
instructions at least _____ minutes before reaching a clearance limit fix.
Within _____ minutes of reaching the fix, reduce to holding airspeed.
- 3 degrees per second
- 30 degree bank angle
If the holding course is NOT
within 70 degrees of the aircraft heading:
- turn outbound in the
- shorter direction to parallel the holding course.
During an en route descent
the controller tells you that you are cleared for the approach and you are
below a published altitude restriction. You should:
maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the approach.
Prior to the IAF you must:
- recheck the weather (if appropriate).
- review the IAP.
- check the heading and attitude systems.
- obtain clearance for the approach.
While being vectored, repeat:
- all headings.
- all altitudes (departing and assigned).
- all altimeter settings
When flying a non-DME
high-altitude teardrop approach, if you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below
maintain altitude and proceed outbound 15 seconds for each 1,000 feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.
When flying an approach with dead reckoning (DR) legs:
- use lead points for turns to and from the DR legs.
- you should fly the depicted ground track.
- you should apply wind corrections.
If the entry turn places the
aircraft on the non-maneuvering side of the procedure turn course, and you are
flying in excess of _____ KTAS, you must correct toward the procedure turn
course with an intercept angle of at least _____ degrees.
The remain within distance of
a procedure turn is measured from:
the procedure turn fix.
The localizer has a usable
range of at least _____ miles within 10 degrees of the course centerline.
The final approach course on
a non-radar final may vary from the runway heading as much as ______ degrees
(except localizer) and still be published as a straight-in approach.
If you are more than one dot
below or two dots above glide slope on an ILS, you:
1 minute while being vectored to final.
When an ASR approach will end
in a circle, furnish the controller with:
your aircraft category.
While at an outbase, you notice yellow chevrons in the overrun. This indicates that:
the overrun is unusable.
Instrument hold lines ensure
proper ILS operation during weather conditions less than 800 feet ceiling and
(or) 2 miles visibility. You must listen to the current weather to know when to
hold short of the instrument hold line.
The circling MDA and weather
minima to be used are for the runway:
to which the instrument approach is being flown.
Circling approaches normally
should not be attempted from precision approaches.
While executing a missed
approach and a climb gradient is not published, climb at least _____ feet per
nautical mile in order to clear obstacles.
Non-precision approach descent gradient will not exceed _____.
400 feet per nautical mile.
Currently, GPS is a
supplemental means of navigation; therefore, alternate airports must have a
published instrument approach, other than GPS, which is anticipated to be
operational and available at the estimated time of arrival.
When using GPS, terminal integrity performance is _____ nm; approach
integrity performance is plus or minus ____ nm.
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