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  1. The structure of the vocal folds consists of: (2 things)
    the thyroarytenoid muscle and the mucous membrane
  2. The mucous membrane of the vocal folds is subdivided into the: (2 things)
    epithilium and lamina propria
  3. Name the point where the glottal space is the widest during the adduction.
    The point of maximum excursion of the vocal folds.
  4. One vibratory cycle of the mucosal wavse includes:
    • open at the bottom
    • open at the top
    • close at the bottom
    • close at the top
  5. Breathy onset:
    air flows through the glottis before the vocal folds are adducted and vibrating (anxious to start speaking)
  6. Simultaneous onset:
    air is flowing through the glottis as vibration of the vocal folds and adduction begin
  7. Hard glottal attack:
    air flows through the glottis after the vocal folds are adducted, and vibration begins with a jolt
  8. Jitter is:
    frequency perturbation
  9. Shimmer is:
    amplitude perturbation
  10. During swallowing, the ventricular vocal folds are:
  11. During regular phonation, the ventricular folds:
  12. Name the five types of breathing.
    • abdominal/diapragmatic
    • costal/thoracic (up higher)
    • clavicular (shallow breathing)
    • mixed
    • combined thoracic and abdominal
  13. Define tidal volume.
    the amount of air inspired and expired during a typical respiratory cycle; it is determined by the oxygen needs, not the speaking or singing needs, of the individual
  14. Define inspiratory reserve volume.
    the maximum volume of air that can be inspired beyond the end of a tidal inspiration
  15. True or False. The infant has a proportionately smaller glottis than the adult.
    False. Absolute glottis dimensions increase with age.
  16. When does the fundamental frequency of the voice drop?
    Toward the end of a sustained utterance.
  17. In typical development, what feature of speech develops before the phonetic pattern?
  18. Until puberty, the larynx is of ________ size in the male and female.
  19. In temperate climates, the onset of puberty in females ranges from ___ to ___, and in males from ___ to ___. Near the equator, the onset is accelerated ____ to ____ years.
    • 13 to 15
    • 14 to 16
    • 1 to 2
  20. What is the average time from onset to completion of adolescent voice change?
    3-6 months, one year at most
  21. True or False. Adolescent voice change does not constitute a voice disorder.
  22. Name the six structural changes of both the respiratory system and the vocal folds that occur with age.
    • atrophy of the laryngeal muscles
    • thinning and dehydration of the laryngeal mucosa
    • loss of elasticity ligaments
    • changes in the elasticity of the vocal folds
    • calcification of cartilages
    • a glottal gap
  23. Define expiratory reserve volume.
    The maximum volume of air that can be expired beyond the end of a tidal expiration.
  24. Define residual volume.
    The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximum expiration.
  25. Define vital capacity.
    The total amount of air that can be expired from the lungs and air passages following a maximum inhalation.
  26. True or False. It is not likely to expect a relationship between the relative size of individuals and their relative vital capacities.
    False. It is reasonable to expect a relationship between the relative size of individuals and their relative vital capacities.
  27. True or False. Vital capacity tends to decrease with age.
  28. Define total lung capacity.
    It represents the total volume of air that can be held in the lungs and airways after maximum inspiration.
  29. Which muscle, when contracted, stretches and thins the vocal folds?
    The cricothyroid muscle.
  30. Which vocal fold muscle increases fundamental frequency?
    The cricothyroid muscle.
  31. True or False. The cricothyroid muscle gives the voice a higher pitch quality.
  32. Which muscle, when contracted, shortens the vocal folds?
    The thyroarytenoid muscle.
  33. Which vocal fold muscle decreases fundamental frequency?
    The thyroarytenoid muscle.
  34. True or False. The thyroarytenoid muscle, when contracted, creates a higher pitch.
    False it lowers pitch.
  35. What three things must happen in order to increase perceived loudness?
    • Take in more air (increase sub-glottal pressure)
    • Close vocal folds (increase in vocal fold adduction)
    • Open the mouth wide
  36. The difference in voices comes from the ___________ that happens in the head.
  37. True or False. Resonance changes the frequency of the voice as well as the quality.
    False. Resonance does not change the frequency, only the quality.
  38. By action of the pharyngeal constrictors and other supra glottal muscles the overall dimensions of the __________are always changing.
  39. Of all our resonators, the _______ __________ is capable of the most variation in size and shape.
    oral cavity
  40. Which moving structure of the oral cavity is the most mobile articulator?
    The tongue.
  41. Name the important resonating cavities.
    • the pharynx
    • the oral cavity
    • the nasal cavity
  42. Many things can go wrong with the _________, which fouls most likely cause a ________________ voice.
    • velum
    • hypernasal
  43. ASHA affirms the practice of _____________ of the _________ by both otolaryngologists and speech-language pathologists.
    • visualization
    • larynx
  44. Is leukoplakia a precursor to cancer?
  45. Laryngeal cacer compromises approximately ____% of all malignancies diagnosed annually in the US.
  46. Name the three classifications of laryngeal cancers.
    • supraglottal
    • glottal
    • subglottal
  47. What is the most prevalent cause of stridor in the neonate?
    Laryngomalacia, it accounts for 75% of all congenital anomalies of the larynx.
  48. ____________ stenosis results from an interruption of the cricoids cartilage or arrested development of the conus elastics during emryologic development.
  49. ____________ stenosis may occur following endotracheal ____________ either related to life-saving procedures or surgery.
    • Acquired
    • intubation
  50. Tracheoesophageal Fistulas (TEF) are __________ that occur between the __________ and the _________.
    • openings
    • esophagus
    • trachea
  51. _____________ ______________ is an abnormal occlusion of the esophagus.
    Esophageal atresia. (the esophagus is either misshapen or missing parts)
  52. One of the most common ORGANIC voice disorders is:
    contact ulcers
  53. Contact ulcers are considered a _________ ________ disease of the ________.
    • chronic inflammatory
    • larynx
  54. Common symptoms of contact ulcers are: (2)
    • hoarse or rough voice quality
    • throat clearing
  55. Are contact ulcers unilateral or bilateral?
  56. Name the three causes (or combination thereof) that result in contact ulcers.
    • hard glottal attack along with throat clearing and coughing
    • laryngopharyngeal Reflux (LPR)
    • endotracheal intubation
  57. Contact ulcers are more common in:
    children, adults
    men, women ?
    • adults
    • women
  58. Reactive tissue irritation will lead to the formation of granulomas (contact ulcers). What is the most common reactive lesion?
    Teflon granuloma of the larynx
  59. True or False. Voice therapy can begin in the presence of contact ulcers without a complete laryngeal examination.
  60. True or False. Surgically induced irritation with resulting granuloma require medical-surgical resolution of the problem.
  61. Any _______________ disease of the larynx, such as ___________ or ____________ can lead to granulomatous tissue damage.
    • inflammatory
    • tuberculosis
    • syphilis
  62. In LPR, stomach acid is forced up the ____________.
  63. In LPR, the stomach acid exits the upper _____________ ____________.
    esophageal sphincter
  64. LPR irritates the area between the:
  65. Are cysts usually unilateral or bilateral?
  66. True or False. Cysts will resolve spontaneously.
    False. Cysts rarely resolve spontaneously.
  67. How are hemangiomas different from contact ulcers and granulomas?
    Whereas a granuloma is usually a firm granulated sac, a hemangioma is a soft, pliable, blood-filled sac.
  68. Granulomas and hemangiomas often occur on the ____________ glottis.
  69. Hemangiomas are associated with:
    • vocal hyperfunction
    • hyperacidity
    • intubation
  70. Is hyperkeratosis a precursor of cancer?
    Yes. It may be a precursor of malignant tissue change.
  71. Name the common sites of hyperkeratosis.
    • under the tongue
    • vocal folds at the anterior commissure
    • posteriorly on the arytenoid prominences
  72. Hyoerkeratosis is an _____________ lesion in the ___________ or ____________.
    • additive
    • pharynx
    • larynx
  73. True or False. Infectious laryngitis is viral in origin.
  74. Total laryngectomy alters what three things?
    • respiration
    • swallowing
    • speech
  75. Name the three methods of alaryngeal communication.
    • esophageal speech
    • tracheoesophageal speech
    • artificial larynx
  76. What is sound source for esophageal speech?
    the pharyngoesophageal segment
  77. True or False. Distinguishing leukoplakia and cancer of the larynx by visual inspection can be done through visual inspection.
  78. What is the most common cause of pediatric hoarseness?
    recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (the most common benign laryngeal neoplasm)
  79. Describe the differences between GERD and LPR.
    • GERD is the passage of gastric juices from the stomach into the esophagus.
    • LPR occurs if these contents move superiorly and exit the upper esophageal sphincter and contents spill into the pharynx.
  80. True or False. Webbing is life-threatening.
  81. What is the primary function of the larynx?
    To protect the airway.
  82. Name the main vocal problems.
    • pitch
    • loudness
    • quality
  83. True or False. No one knows the incidence of voice disorders in the normal population.
    True. Due to those that resolve by themselves, such as infectious laryngitis.
Card Set:
2014-02-03 04:42:22

Voice Disorders, McKaig Test 1
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