Review Class: Test One

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Review Class: Test One
2014-02-24 18:50:56
radiation therapy
Registry review class test one
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  1. About _______ of the body's lymph nodes are in the head and neck region.
    One third
  2. How many cartilages make up the larynx?
  3. What muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles?
  4. The _________ nodal group receives nearly all of the lymph from the head and neck area.
  5. The function of the _________ is to act as an attachment site for muscles associated with swallowing.
    Hyoid bone
  6. What is typically the largest vascular structure in the neck?
    Internal jugular vein
  7. The jugulodigastric nodes may also be referred to as the _________.
    Subdigastric nodes
  8. The postcricoid and pyriform sinus are located in the _________.
  9. Is the soft palate considered part of the oral cavity?
  10. When treating the oropharynx with IMRT, most structures can be avoided except for the ________.
  11. The tonsils are the most common site of disease in the _________.
  12. The _________ nodes area is a very high risk for dissemination of disease, inaccessible for surgery and therefore included in the treatment field for nasopharyngeal ca.
  13. Ear pain:
  14. Difficulty swallowing:
  15. Wheezing, raspy or rough breath:
  16. Double vision:
  17. Red velvet patches in the mouth:
  18. White patches in the mouth:
  19. Horny overgrowth:
  20. Abnormal cell growth:
  21. Painful swallowing:
  22. Which cancers of the head and neck have HPV been linked to?
    Floor of the mouth, Tongue & Tonsils
  23. Which cancer of the head and neck has Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) been linked to?
  24. The two most common etiological factors contributing to head and neck:
    Smoking and Alcohol
  25. Plummer-Vinson syndrome (iron deficiency anemia), often seen in females, is considered an important etiological factor in _________ cancer.
    Oral cavity
  26. The normal dosage of irradiation to the supraclav when treated with a H&N ca is:
    5,000 cGy
  27. The _________ is found at the base of the tongue.
  28. When treating a primary tumor in the hypo-pharynx and the nodes of Rouvière, a sharp field is needed to avoid and protect the:
    Spinal cord
  29. Name that pharynx:
    Includes the pharyngeal walls above the soft palate
  30. Name that pharynx:
    Includes the anterior tongue, tonsillar pillar, uvula, soft palate, tonsils & base of the tongue
  31. Name that pharynx:
    Includes the pharyngeal walls below the base of the tongue
    pyrifom sinus
    post cricoid region
  32. Cancer of the _________ has the highest rate of nodal metastasis of all H&N cancers.
  33. Tumors of the _________ may invole the major cranial nerves.
  34. A mouth stent or tongue blade can be used to separate or _________ the the palate.
  35. The organ most at risk when treating the maxillary antrum is the:
  36. The most common site of distant mets from H&N cancer is the _______
  37. The usual wedge pair technique often used in treatment of the parotid gland is:
    Superior / Inferior Oblique combo
  38. The most commonly involved site for malignancy of the sinuses would be:
  39. Coughing up blood
  40. Collapsed lung:
  41. Etiological factors of lung ca:
    • Smoking
    • COPD
    • Asbestos
    • Pollution
  42. Adenocarcinoma is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
  43. Squamous cell ca is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
    proximal region of the lung & often involves the hilum
  44. Pancoast tumors are found at the _________.
    Apex of the lung
  45. Mesothelioma is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
  46. Large Cell ca is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
  47. The histological type of lung ca not associated with smoking is:
  48. "Clubbing" of the fingers is a physical symptom with:
  49. The histological type of lung ca that is assumed to indicate that there is already distant disease at the time of diagnosis is:
    Oat cell carcinoma
  50. A pt with a middle lobe posterior lung tumor may be positioned prone to facilitate:
    Easier alignment of off-cord obliques & boost fields directed posteriorly
  51. Initial AP/PA fields for lung ca may require an anterior wedge to facilitate:
    Easier alignment of off-cord obliquies
  52. Clinical detection by cancer site:
    Oral Cavity
    • Plummer Vinson
    • Leukoplakia
    • Ulcers that won't heal
  53. Clinical detection by cancer site:
    • Sore throat
    • Dysphagia
    • Otalgia
    • Upper spinal nodal swelling
  54. Clinical detection by cancer site:
    • Sore throat
    • Dysphagia
    • Odynophagia
    • Neck mass
  55. Clinical detection by cancer site:
    • Sore throat
    • Hoarseness
    • Stridor
  56. Clinical detection by cancer site:
    • Bloody discharge
    • Auditory dysfunction
    • Respiratory dysfunction
    • Cranial nerve involvement (III, V, VI, IX, XII)
  57. Clinical detection by cancer site:
    Maxillary Sinus
    • Eye displacement
    • Involvement of the trigeminal cranial nerves (V)
  58. The total dose for prophylactic cranial irradiation is typically:
    3600 cGy
  59. The right lung has _____ lobes.
  60. Lung tumors are thought to move with ____________.
    Cardiac and respiratory motion
  61. A __________ may be used to avoid hot spots due to the natural slope of the chest.
    Custom Compensator
  62. A treatment field with an upper border above both clavicles and lower border approximately 5 cm below the carina, including the mediastinal lymphatics and blocking most of the left lung would likely be an initial treatment field for an __________.
    Upper lobe right lung tumor
  63. The esophagus is located __________ to the trachea.
  64. The junction of the transverse and descending colon takes place at the ___________.
    Splenic Flexure
  65. An out pouching or weakening of the intestinal wall most commonly seen in the large intestine is termed:
  66. The first portion of the small intestine is the ___________.
  67. The longest segment of the human intestinal tract is the _________.
    • Small Bowel
    • (90%)
  68. The most common histological type of small bowel ca is:
  69. The most common histological type of stomach ca is:
  70. The curative treatment of choice for stomach ca is:
  71. The most common presenting symptom of stomach ca is:
    Vague epigastric discomfort
  72. Weight loss due to poor absorption of nutrients:
  73. Vomiting blood:
  74. Dysphagia is a common complaint of patients with __________ cancer.
  75. Esophageal cancers of the _______ (portion) are mainly treated with radiation therapy & chemo, not surgery.
    Upper one third
  76. What histology is most often found in the lower one third of the esophagus?
  77. Common sites of colon ca mets are:
    • Liver
    • Lung
    • Peritoneum
  78. Radiation treatment fields for cancers of the ________ should include the inguinal lymph nodes. (GI)
  79. A history of ________ is a risk factor of colon ca.
    Colon polyps
  80. Patients scheduled for radiation therapy of the lower esophagus will likely experience _________.
  81. Patients scheduled for radiation therapy of the upper esophagus will likely experience _________.
  82. Intestinal tumors grow progressively through the layers of the intestines in the order:
    Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis, Serosa
  83. In order to avoid over-dosing the kidneys, the most common tx technique of pancreatic ca is __________.
    Three field technique
  84. The histological type of small bowel cancer with the best prognosis is:
  85. MAC stage A for colorectal ca correlates to the TNM system stage _____.
    stage 0
  86. Anatomical relationship of the pancreas:
    • Anatomical relationship of the pancreas:
    • Stomach: inferior & posterior
    • Duodenum: left (head nestles in)
    • Liver: inferior
    • Spleen: medial
  87. The function of the pancreas is to regulate _______ levels and secrete ________.
    • Regulate sugar/insulin levels
    • Secrete digestive enzymes
  88. Anatomical relationship to the liver:
    Inferior Vena Cava:
    • Anatomical relationship to the liver:
    • Stomach: right
    • Gallbladder: superior
    • Aorta: anterior
    • Inferior Vena Cava: anterior
    • Diaphragm: inferior
  89. The function of the liver is to store/filter _______, secrete _______ and convert _______.
    • Store/filter blood
    • Secrete bile
    • Convert sugars
  90. The gallbladder is a small organ tucked under the right lobe of the ________.
  91. The function of the gallbladder is to store _________.
  92. The ________ serves to supply arterial blood to the spleen, pancreas & stomach.
    Celiac axis
  93. The biliary ducts are principally concerned with the transport of bile and digestive enzymes into the ___________.
    Small intestine
  94. The gallbladder is generally found by its attachment to the ventral surface of the ___________.
    Right lobe of the liver
  95. The release of bile by the gallbladder is triggered by the presence of_______ in the stomach.
  96. The ascending and transverse colon meet at the ___________.
    Hepatic flexure
  97. Common sites of mets from liver ca are:
    • Lung
    • Brain
  98. The most common type of tumors found in the pancreas are:
  99. Cholethiasis:
  100. Symptoms of pancreatic ca include:
    • Jaundice
    • Dark urine
    • Abdominal pain
  101. Local administration of chemotherapy using proximal venous access is known as ________.
  102. The PAB field is intended to treat level ____ axillary nodes.
    level 3 axillary nodes
  103. The most common symptom of breast ca is:
    A painless lump
  104. Removal of the entire breast, local lymph nodes & pectoralismuscles:
    Radical mastectomy
  105. An oncogene found in some breast ca patients that reacts differently to hormone therapy & some chemo-drugs.
  106. A tumor suppressor gene associated with a familial risk of breast ca:
  107. Leathery, thick feeling and orange coloring of the breast's skin indicating infiltration of cancerous cells into the dermal layer.
    Peau d'orange
  108. The supraclav is treated with a:
    Half-beam technique
  109. The total radiation dose received by the lumpectomy bed in standard whole breast irradiation followed by lumpectomy site boost is:
    60-70 Gy
  110. The most common histological type of breast ca is:
    Infiltrating ductal cell
  111. An xrt field should not include more than 2 cm of lung tissue to decrease the chance of latent:
    Lung fibrosis
  112. A sentinal lymph node biopsy involves the injection of blue dye and radioactive:
    Technetium 99m
  113. Where are point A & B located?
    • Point A: 2 cm superior to the cervical os
    •             2 cm lateral to the uterine tandem
    • Point B: 3 cm lateral to point A
  114. The tolerance of the rectum & bladder is:
    7500 cGy
  115. The outermost portion of the gyn tract is the:
  116. The connective tissue immediately lateral to the uterine cervix:
  117. A _______ test may be useful in the detection of ovarian ca.
  118. Cervical ca stems from:
    Intraepithelial neoplasia
  119. The lateral spaces in the vaginal apex are called:
  120. _________ ca is the 5th leading cause of death in women.
  121. Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina has been linked to use of the drug:
  122. What is the normal hemoglobin range?
    12-16 g/dL
  123. _________ can be prescribed to treat diarrhea associated with pelvic xrt.
  124. If a patient with cervix ca has peri-aortic nodal involvement, there is a 35% increase risk for spread to the _________.
    Supraclavicular area
  125. The most radioresistant gyn structure is the:
    Uterine canal
  126. Inguinal nodes are often included when treating:
    Vaginal ca
  127. The Gleason grading system has _____ different histological patterns.
  128. The seminal vesicle lies _______ to the prostate and _____ to the rectum.
    • Superior to prostate
    • Anterior to rectum
  129. define:
    • Transurethral Resection of the Prostate
    • a curative surgery for early stage prostate ca
  130. define:
    • Lactate Dehydrogenase
    • an elevated LDH level can indicate tissue destruction
  131. define:
    • Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
    • a blood serum marker helpful in the diagnosis of germ cell tumors
  132. Tumors of the ________ generally require the highest dose to treat out of all male cancers.
    Prostate (can be as high as 78 Gy)
  133. When treating seminoma stages I, IA, IB, the _________ and ________ nodes should be included.
    • Paraaortic
    • Ipsilateral iliac
  134. The most common histological type of prostate ca is:
  135. Brachytherapy in the management of prostate ca would be considered:
    LDR interstitial
  136. _________ is a hormone therapy drug for prostate ca.
  137. A common location for distant mets from seminoma is:
  138. The inguinal nodes should be includes when treating this male ca:
  139. The four-field box is often used for __________. (male)
    Prostate ca
  140. The upper border of the inverted Y field for seminoma tx is at the level of ______ with the lower border at the _________.
    • T-10
    • Pubic symphysis
  141. The total dose for xrt of the prostate tumor bed is:
    66-75 Gy
  142. Cancers of the kidney usually arise in the:
  143. Nephroblastomas are also known as:
    Wilms' tumor
  144. Cancers of the renal pelvis are most commonly:
    Transitional cell
  145. Cancers of the renal cortex are most commonly:
  146. Most ________ tumors arise in the posterior wall, lateral wall and trigone.
  147. Etiological factors of bladder ca include:
    Smoking, chronic bladder infections, cadmium exposure
  148. Three histological types of bladder cancer are:
    • Transitional cell
    • Squamous cell
    • Adenocarcinoma
  149. Surgical removal of the bladder:
  150. Inserting chemo-drugs directly into the bladder via a catheter:
    Intravesical therapy
  151. T.U.R.B.
    Transurethral Resection of the Bladder
  152. I.V.P.
    Intravenous Pyelogram
  153. The ureters attach to the _________ surface of the bladder.
  154. Renal cell carcinomas have direct access to the blood route via the:
    Inferior vena cava & Abdominal aorta
  155. The bladder is _______ to the cervix and ______ to the pubic symphysis.
    • Anterior & Inferior to the cervix
    • Posterior to the pubic symphysis
  156. The bladder is ________ to the seminal vesicles and ________ to the ovaries.
    • Superior to the seminal vesicles
    • Medial & Inferior to the ovaries.
  157. The ureters enter the kidneys at the:
    Renal pelvis
  158. A carcinogen linked to bladder and renal cell ca that is found in radiation therapy departments is: