-
About _______ of the body's lymph nodes are in the head and neck region.
One third
-
How many cartilages make up the larynx?
9
-
What muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles?
Sternocleidomastoid
-
The _________ nodal group receives nearly all of the lymph from the head and neck area.
Jugulodigastric
-
The function of the _________ is to act as an attachment site for muscles associated with swallowing.
Hyoid bone
-
What is typically the largest vascular structure in the neck?
Internal jugular vein
-
The jugulodigastric nodes may also be referred to as the _________.
Subdigastric nodes
-
The postcricoid and pyriform sinus are located in the _________.
Hypopharynx
-
Is the soft palate considered part of the oral cavity?
No
-
When treating the oropharynx with IMRT, most structures can be avoided except for the ________.
Tonsils
-
The tonsils are the most common site of disease in the _________.
Oropharynx
-
The _________ nodes area is a very high risk for dissemination of disease, inaccessible for surgery and therefore included in the treatment field for nasopharyngeal ca.
Rouviere
-
-
Difficulty swallowing:
Dysphagia
-
Wheezing, raspy or rough breath:
Stridor
-
-
Red velvet patches in the mouth:
Erythroplasia
-
White patches in the mouth:
Leukoplakia
-
Horny overgrowth:
Keratosis
-
Abnormal cell growth:
Dysplasia
-
Painful swallowing:
Odynophagia
-
Which cancers of the head and neck have HPV been linked to?
Floor of the mouth, Tongue & Tonsils
-
Which cancer of the head and neck has Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) been linked to?
Nasopharynx
-
The two most common etiological factors contributing to head and neck:
Smoking and Alcohol
-
Plummer-Vinson syndrome (iron deficiency anemia), often seen in females, is considered an important etiological factor in _________ cancer.
Oral cavity
-
The normal dosage of irradiation to the supraclav when treated with a H&N ca is:
5,000 cGy
-
The _________ is found at the base of the tongue.
Vallecula
-
When treating a primary tumor in the hypo-pharynx and the nodes of Rouvière, a sharp field is needed to avoid and protect the:
Spinal cord
-
Name that pharynx:
Includes the pharyngeal walls above the soft palate
Nasopharynx
-
Name that pharynx:
Includes the anterior tongue, tonsillar pillar, uvula, soft palate, tonsils & base of the tongue
Oropharynx
-
Name that pharynx:
Includes the pharyngeal walls below the base of the tongue
pyrifom sinus
post cricoid region
Hypopharynx
-
Cancer of the _________ has the highest rate of nodal metastasis of all H&N cancers.
Hypopharynx
-
Tumors of the _________ may invole the major cranial nerves.
Nasopharynx
-
A mouth stent or tongue blade can be used to separate or _________ the the palate.
Displace
-
The organ most at risk when treating the maxillary antrum is the:
Eye
-
The most common site of distant mets from H&N cancer is the _______
Lungs
-
The usual wedge pair technique often used in treatment of the parotid gland is:
Superior / Inferior Oblique combo
-
The most commonly involved site for malignancy of the sinuses would be:
Maxillary
-
Coughing up blood
Hemoptysis
-
Collapsed lung:
Atelectasis
-
Etiological factors of lung ca:
- Smoking
- COPD
- Asbestos
- Pollution
-
Adenocarcinoma is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
Periphery
-
Squamous cell ca is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
proximal region of the lung & often involves the hilum
-
Pancoast tumors are found at the _________.
Apex of the lung
-
Mesothelioma is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
Pleura
-
Large Cell ca is most often found in the _________ of the lung.
Periphery
-
The histological type of lung ca not associated with smoking is:
Adenocarcinoma
-
"Clubbing" of the fingers is a physical symptom with:
COPD
-
The histological type of lung ca that is assumed to indicate that there is already distant disease at the time of diagnosis is:
Oat cell carcinoma
-
A pt with a middle lobe posterior lung tumor may be positioned prone to facilitate:
Easier alignment of off-cord obliques & boost fields directed posteriorly
-
Initial AP/PA fields for lung ca may require an anterior wedge to facilitate:
Easier alignment of off-cord obliquies
-
Clinical detection by cancer site:
Oral Cavity
- Plummer Vinson
- Leukoplakia
- Ulcers that won't heal
-
Clinical detection by cancer site:
Oropharynx
- Sore throat
- Dysphagia
- Otalgia
- Upper spinal nodal swelling
-
Clinical detection by cancer site:
Hypopharynx
- Sore throat
- Dysphagia
- Odynophagia
- Neck mass
-
Clinical detection by cancer site:
Larynx
- Sore throat
- Hoarseness
- Stridor
-
Clinical detection by cancer site:
Nasopharynx
- Bloody discharge
- Auditory dysfunction
- Respiratory dysfunction
- Cranial nerve involvement (III, V, VI, IX, XII)
-
Clinical detection by cancer site:
Maxillary Sinus
- Eye displacement
- Involvement of the trigeminal cranial nerves (V)
-
The total dose for prophylactic cranial irradiation is typically:
3600 cGy
-
The right lung has _____ lobes.
3
-
Lung tumors are thought to move with ____________.
Cardiac and respiratory motion
-
A __________ may be used to avoid hot spots due to the natural slope of the chest.
Custom Compensator
-
A treatment field with an upper border above both clavicles and lower border approximately 5 cm below the carina, including the mediastinal lymphatics and blocking most of the left lung would likely be an initial treatment field for an __________.
Upper lobe right lung tumor
-
The esophagus is located __________ to the trachea.
Posterior
-
The junction of the transverse and descending colon takes place at the ___________.
Splenic Flexure
-
An out pouching or weakening of the intestinal wall most commonly seen in the large intestine is termed:
Diverticulum
-
The first portion of the small intestine is the ___________.
Duodenum
-
The longest segment of the human intestinal tract is the _________.
-
The most common histological type of small bowel ca is:
Adenocarcinoma
-
The most common histological type of stomach ca is:
Adenocarcinoma
-
The curative treatment of choice for stomach ca is:
Surgery
-
The most common presenting symptom of stomach ca is:
Vague epigastric discomfort
-
Weight loss due to poor absorption of nutrients:
Cachexia
-
Vomiting blood:
Hematemesis
-
Dysphagia is a common complaint of patients with __________ cancer.
Esophageal
-
Esophageal cancers of the _______ (portion) are mainly treated with radiation therapy & chemo, not surgery.
Upper one third
-
What histology is most often found in the lower one third of the esophagus?
Adenocarcinoma
-
Common sites of colon ca mets are:
(3)
-
Radiation treatment fields for cancers of the ________ should include the inguinal lymph nodes. (GI)
Anus
-
A history of ________ is a risk factor of colon ca.
Colon polyps
-
Patients scheduled for radiation therapy of the lower esophagus will likely experience _________.
Nausea
-
Patients scheduled for radiation therapy of the upper esophagus will likely experience _________.
Dysphagia
-
Intestinal tumors grow progressively through the layers of the intestines in the order:
Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis, Serosa
-
In order to avoid over-dosing the kidneys, the most common tx technique of pancreatic ca is __________.
Three field technique
-
The histological type of small bowel cancer with the best prognosis is:
Carcinoid
-
MAC stage A for colorectal ca correlates to the TNM system stage _____.
stage 0
-
Anatomical relationship of the pancreas:
Stomach:
Duodenum:
Liver:
Spleen:
- Anatomical relationship of the pancreas:
- Stomach: inferior & posterior
- Duodenum: left (head nestles in)
- Liver: inferior
- Spleen: medial
-
The function of the pancreas is to regulate _______ levels and secrete ________.
- Regulate sugar/insulin levels
- Secrete digestive enzymes
-
Anatomical relationship to the liver:
Stomach:
Gallbladder:
Aorta:
Inferior Vena Cava:
Diaphragm:
- Anatomical relationship to the liver:
- Stomach: right
- Gallbladder: superior
- Aorta: anterior
- Inferior Vena Cava: anterior
- Diaphragm: inferior
-
The function of the liver is to store/filter _______, secrete _______ and convert _______.
- Store/filter blood
- Secrete bile
- Convert sugars
-
The gallbladder is a small organ tucked under the right lobe of the ________.
Liver
-
The function of the gallbladder is to store _________.
Bile
-
The ________ serves to supply arterial blood to the spleen, pancreas & stomach.
Celiac axis
-
The biliary ducts are principally concerned with the transport of bile and digestive enzymes into the ___________.
Small intestine
-
The gallbladder is generally found by its attachment to the ventral surface of the ___________.
Right lobe of the liver
-
The release of bile by the gallbladder is triggered by the presence of_______ in the stomach.
Fat
-
The ascending and transverse colon meet at the ___________.
Hepatic flexure
-
Common sites of mets from liver ca are:
-
The most common type of tumors found in the pancreas are:
Adenocarcinomas
-
Cholethiasis:
Gall-stones
-
Symptoms of pancreatic ca include:
- Jaundice
- Dark urine
- Abdominal pain
-
Local administration of chemotherapy using proximal venous access is known as ________.
Chemoembolization
-
The PAB field is intended to treat level ____ axillary nodes.
level 3 axillary nodes
-
The most common symptom of breast ca is:
A painless lump
-
Removal of the entire breast, local lymph nodes & pectoralismuscles:
Radical mastectomy
-
An oncogene found in some breast ca patients that reacts differently to hormone therapy & some chemo-drugs.
HER-2neu
-
A tumor suppressor gene associated with a familial risk of breast ca:
BRCA1
-
Leathery, thick feeling and orange coloring of the breast's skin indicating infiltration of cancerous cells into the dermal layer.
Peau d'orange
-
The supraclav is treated with a:
Half-beam technique
-
The total radiation dose received by the lumpectomy bed in standard whole breast irradiation followed by lumpectomy site boost is:
60-70 Gy
-
The most common histological type of breast ca is:
Infiltrating ductal cell
-
An xrt field should not include more than 2 cm of lung tissue to decrease the chance of latent:
Lung fibrosis
-
A sentinal lymph node biopsy involves the injection of blue dye and radioactive:
Technetium 99m
-
Where are point A & B located?
- Point A: 2 cm superior to the cervical os
- 2 cm lateral to the uterine tandem
- Point B: 3 cm lateral to point A
-
The tolerance of the rectum & bladder is:
7500 cGy
-
The outermost portion of the gyn tract is the:
Vulva
-
The connective tissue immediately lateral to the uterine cervix:
Parametrium
-
A _______ test may be useful in the detection of ovarian ca.
Ca-125
-
Cervical ca stems from:
Intraepithelial neoplasia
-
The lateral spaces in the vaginal apex are called:
Fornices
-
_________ ca is the 5th leading cause of death in women.
Ovarian
-
Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina has been linked to use of the drug:
DES
-
What is the normal hemoglobin range?
12-16 g/dL
-
_________ can be prescribed to treat diarrhea associated with pelvic xrt.
Lomotil
-
If a patient with cervix ca has peri-aortic nodal involvement, there is a 35% increase risk for spread to the _________.
Supraclavicular area
-
The most radioresistant gyn structure is the:
Uterine canal
-
Inguinal nodes are often included when treating:
(GYN)
Vaginal ca
-
The Gleason grading system has _____ different histological patterns.
5
-
The seminal vesicle lies _______ to the prostate and _____ to the rectum.
- Superior to prostate
- Anterior to rectum
-
define:
T.U.R.P.
- Transurethral Resection of the Prostate
- a curative surgery for early stage prostate ca
-
define:
L.D.H.
- Lactate Dehydrogenase
- an elevated LDH level can indicate tissue destruction
-
define:
HCG
- Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
- a blood serum marker helpful in the diagnosis of germ cell tumors
-
Tumors of the ________ generally require the highest dose to treat out of all male cancers.
Prostate (can be as high as 78 Gy)
-
When treating seminoma stages I, IA, IB, the _________ and ________ nodes should be included.
- Paraaortic
- Ipsilateral iliac
-
The most common histological type of prostate ca is:
Adenocarcinoma
-
Brachytherapy in the management of prostate ca would be considered:
LDR interstitial
-
_________ is a hormone therapy drug for prostate ca.
Lupron
-
A common location for distant mets from seminoma is:
Lung
-
The inguinal nodes should be includes when treating this male ca:
Penile
-
The four-field box is often used for __________. (male)
Prostate ca
-
The upper border of the inverted Y field for seminoma tx is at the level of ______ with the lower border at the _________.
-
The total dose for xrt of the prostate tumor bed is:
66-75 Gy
-
Cancers of the kidney usually arise in the:
Cortex
-
Nephroblastomas are also known as:
Wilms' tumor
-
Cancers of the renal pelvis are most commonly:
Transitional cell
-
Cancers of the renal cortex are most commonly:
Adenocarcinoma
-
Most ________ tumors arise in the posterior wall, lateral wall and trigone.
Bladder
-
Etiological factors of bladder ca include:
Smoking, chronic bladder infections, cadmium exposure
-
Three histological types of bladder cancer are:
- Transitional cell
- Squamous cell
- Adenocarcinoma
-
Surgical removal of the bladder:
Cystectomy
-
Inserting chemo-drugs directly into the bladder via a catheter:
Intravesical therapy
-
T.U.R.B.
Transurethral Resection of the Bladder
-
I.V.P.
Intravenous Pyelogram
-
The ureters attach to the _________ surface of the bladder.
Posterolateral
-
Renal cell carcinomas have direct access to the blood route via the:
Inferior vena cava & Abdominal aorta
-
The bladder is _______ to the cervix and ______ to the pubic symphysis.
- Anterior & Inferior to the cervix
- Posterior to the pubic symphysis
-
The bladder is ________ to the seminal vesicles and ________ to the ovaries.
- Superior to the seminal vesicles
- Medial & Inferior to the ovaries.
-
The ureters enter the kidneys at the:
Renal pelvis
-
A carcinogen linked to bladder and renal cell ca that is found in radiation therapy departments is:
Cadmium
|
|