Volume 3

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Volume 3
2010-07-12 02:12:57
CDC Electrical Environmental 2A656

5-level CDCs for E&E (UREs) (I lost question 66 and 67, so 66 is really 68 and so on)
Show Answers:

  1. The CSD that is used to drive a 60/80 KVA generator has an output of approximately?
    8,000 RPM
  2. The USS on the 60/80 KVA generator CSD actuates at?
    365 Hz
  3. In an AC power supply system, the component that controls load division during parallel generator operation is the?
    Load controller
  4. What circut in the GCU in an AC power supply system isolates shorted or open generator phase leads?
    Neutral current-sensing
  5. At what voltage range does the GCU in an AC power supply system maintain generator output?
    115 +-2 VAC
  6. In an AC power supply system, what component connects the 115/200 VAC main generator output to the main power buses?
  7. If the #1 generator will not come on-line and the voltmeter readings are 28 VDC at the GCS, 28 VDC at the input to the GLC coil, and 28 VDC at the ground of the GLC, the most likely cause is?
    An open GLC ground
  8. Which emergency AC power system component connects the output of the emergency generator to the essential bus?
  9. Which emergency AC power system component prevents the emergency generator from dropping off-line when the aircraft lands?
  10. What external power system component disconnects external power from the aircraft?
  11. The auxiliary source selected to power the tie bus in the APU is determind by the?
  12. When troubleshooting a problem (Example: external power will not come on-line and the READY light is not on) the first thing you should do is?
    Do an op check to verify the problem
  13. On the external power system, when the ohmeter shows an infinity reading on an external power receptacle, between the points where control voltage leaves the bus protection panel and returns?
    There is an open in the loop
  14. The transformer rectifier units in a DC power system convert three-phase 115 VAC into?
    26 to 31 VDC
  15. In the DC power supply system, the delta-wound secondaries of the internal transformer in the TR unit are used to provide a more stable?
    Current output
  16. In the DC power supply system, the RCR deenergizes when the potential at the?
    GEN terminal is less than the BAT terminal
  17. During normal operation, the RCR in a DC power supply system is energized by the?
    TR units
  18. What is the cause of a normal battery not charging when the DC power supply system is operating and the battery switch is in the NORMAL position?
    Open normal battery relay
  19. The disconnect clutch in the stabilizer trim actuator assembly is operated by the?
    Manual system
  20. After every two minutes of operation, you should allow the stabilizer trim actuator to cool for?
    13 minutes
  21. Which stabilizer trim system switch can be used to shut off the stabilizer trim system?
    Stabilizer trim cutout switch
  22. The aircraft write-up states that there is no trim action from either the pilot's or copilot's stabilizer trim control switch. You troubleshoot the problem and find voltage and groun at the stabilizer trim actuator. The most probably cause of this problem is the?
    Stabilizer trim actuator
  23. What component is used as an emergency means of controlling the aileron trim control circut?
    Aux trim switch
  24. Takeoff trim indicator lights are used to?
    Indicate when the ailerons are in the takeoff position
  25. After the stick grip trim selector switch is released, the trim indicator light?
    Goes out
  26. Operating the aileron trim system without supplying power to both the electrical and hydraulic systems could result in?
    Damage to the actuator motor and flex shaft
  27. When maximum aileron travel is achieved, the aileron takeoff trim indicator lights?
  28. The two types of wing flaps used on heavy aircraft are?
    Slotted and Fowler
  29. After they are extended, speedbrakes maintain a HOLD position when?
    Voltage is removed from solenoid 2 of the speedbrake control valve
  30. If the speedbrakes are fully open and the landing gear is down and locked while an aircraft is in flight, the speedbrakes will be?
    At 43 degrees
  31. What is used to minimize the initial torque shock to the drive coupling at the beginning of the fuel-air starter operation?
    Slip-type clutch
  32. What happens to the air in a pneumatic starter system when the regulating-and-shutoff valve closes?
    Vented overboard
  33. When a pneumatic starter reaches maximum speed, the ground circut to the starter relay is opened by?
    Centrifugal switch
  34. What does the safety disc in a cartridge pneumatic starter do?
    Provide protection against overpressure
  35. The power requirement for operation of an AC ignition system is?
    115 volts AC, 400 Hz
  36. In a DC ignition system, what component changes the direct current into a pulsating current?
    Vibrator unit
  37. The engine ignition circut for the B model of the C-135 aircraft does not contain?
    A throttle switch
  38. If the engine starter system is operating properly but the aircraft engine will not start, what components are working properly?
    Centrifugal switches
  39. What is the last thing you must do before completing a troubleshooting cycle?
    Perform an op check
  40. When the GTC starter motor is turning, the oil pressure switch closes at approx?
    5,000 RPM
  41. If the GTC does not start, but the start light comes on and stays on when the control switch is placed to the START and RUN positions, what do you check first?
    Starter fuse
  42. What type of fuel system valves link the left wing and aft body tanks to the right wing, mid body, and forward body tanks?
  43. How does the auxiliary fuel tank indicating system give a no-flow indication?
    A flashing amber light
  44. You can check the fuel boost pumps in the fuel control system by?
    Pulling and resetting the pump circuit breakers
  45. How many boost pumps are there in main fuel tank #1?
  46. The fuel-flow control switches for the external and outboard wing tanks are guarded OFF?
    Because fuel loads affect wing loading
  47. The output of the scavenge pumps is approximately?
    2 gallons per minute
  48. If an ohmmeter reading from case ground to one phase of the fuel boost pump indicates infinity, what problem is most likely causing this?
    There is no problem. This is a normal reading
  49. Thermal switches in a fire warning system are normally connected in?
    Parallel with each other and in series with the warning light
  50. Frequently used in fire warning systems, the fire detector that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called?
    An Iron Fireman switch
  51. The maximum circuit resistance within a thermocouple circuit is?
    5 ohms
  52. The DC voltage that is supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of?
    10 Hz
  53. For the master caution lamps in a master caution system to illuminate?
    Controlled rectifier SCR2 conducts current to forward bias transistor Q1
  54. When a fault occurs, the individual caution lamps in the master caution system remain on until?
    The fault is corrected
  55. The first step you take when troubleshooting the master caution system is to?
    Analyze the problem
  56. When the cargo and personnel doors close and lock, the?
    Door-open relay will deenergize
  57. When all systems are configured for flight, the pilot or copilot must press the?
    Hydraulic pitch trim lever
  58. After an operational check confirms that the takeoff light does not illuminate, you would first check the?
    Takeoff lightbulbs and circut breakers
  59. What does it mean if there is 28 VDC on the negative side of the spoiler control takeoff warning relay contacts?
    Relay contacts are closed
  60. The DBC that coordinates the flow of information on the data bus is the?
    Data bus controller
  61. What components in the landing gear system initiate a signal that identifies the landing gear position at any given time?
    Limit switches
  62. Placing the landing gear control handle in the up position provides 28 VDC from the?
    Essential DC bus
  63. If the warning horn indicates that the landing gear is not down and locked, the?
    Wing flaps are not adequetly extended
  64. A reading of 28 VDC on the up-side of the LG selector valve would indicate?
    An open or short between the LG selector valve and ground
  65. If you are troubleshooting the landing gear system and find a good ground and a reading of 28 VDC at the connector of the left position indicator, the most likely cause for this problem is?
    A bad indicator
  66. After troubleshooting the anitskid system and repairing the malfunction, what must you do before you do anything else?
    Perform an operational check
  67. A signal to the steering control box that indicates the position of the hydraulic linear actuator is provided by the?
    Follow-up potentiometer
  68. For NLG weight-on-wheels relay C to energize, the aircraft has to be?
    On the ground, with weight on the wheels
  69. When the nosewheel steering shutoff valve is energized, hydraulic pressure is applied to the?
    Right and left steering control valve
  70. The 28 VDC from main DC bus #1 to the rudder pedal nose-steering select-valve coil is controlled the?
    Rudder pedal steering control relay
  71. For the wheel rotation detector control relays to energize, wheel speed must be at least?
    500 RPM
  72. Readings of 0 VDC at B1 of relay K1 and 28 VDC at pin B of the steering control box would indicate?
    Defective NLG weight-on-wheels relay C
  73. Where should you first take ohmeter readings if the NWS fail light illuminates?
    Command and feedback potentiometers
  74. What is used to dim aircraft interior console lights?
    Variable transformers
  75. What voltage is applied to aircraft interior floodlights when the console floods switch is placed in the MED position?
    14 volts
  76. Which aircraft interior lights help to reduce the blinding effect of lightning flashes?
  77. Power for aircraft position lights that are on BRT is supplied by a 28-volt?
    AC bus, 15 amp circuit breaker
  78. Which relays must be energized before the anticollision light will come on?
    Both anticollision and flasher
  79. What type of power is stepped up by the strobe light power supply to act as the "trigger" voltage for the strobe anticollision lights?
    28 VDC
  80. How many pulses per minute does the stobe light power supply provide the "trigger" voltage for the stobe anticollision lights?
    50 to 60
  81. The first step in troubleshooting a malfunction in an aircraft lighting system is to?
    Analyze the malfunction
  82. While troubleshooting an inoperative taxi light, you check for 28 VAC on terminal A2 of the taxi light relay and find 0 VAC. The most probable cause for this problem is an open?
    Taxi light relay
  83. The locking cylinder unlock switch on the ramp and cargo door system is located in the?
  84. The position switches provide voltage to the locked solenoid of the ramp up-lock control valve when?
    The ramp is in the fully up position
  85. Which ramp and cargo door system component completes the circuit to the ramp control valve?
    Locking cylinder unlocked switch
  86. The left-hand and right-hand position switches in the ramp and cargo door system supply power to the ramp up-lock control valve during?
    Closing of the ramp
  87. What happens if the pilot uses the ramp and cargo door switch while the aircraft is in flight?
    Ramp and door open at the same time
  88. When the cargo ramp moves to the fully closed position, but will not lock, the most probably cause is the?
    Ramp position switches