Microbiology and Pathology 1 1981

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Microbiology and Pathology 1 1981
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NBDE 1982
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Microbiology and pathology December 1981
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  1. An increase on the size of an organ caused by an increase in the number of cells describes
    1. Atrophy
    2. Metaplasia
    3. Hypertrophy
    4. Hyperplasia 
    5. Regeneration
    4. Hyperplasia
  2. The chemical constituents of bacteria and viruses that are most sensitive to ultraviolet irradiation are
    1. Lipids
    2. Proteins
    3. Carbohydrates
    4. Nucleic acids
    5. Inorganic salts
    4. Nucleic acids
  3. The class of immunoglobulin most abundant in saliva is
    1. IgA
    2. IgD
    3. IgE
    4. IgG
    5. IgM
    1. IgA
  4. In leukemia, prolongation of bleeding time is caused by
    1. Anemia
    2. Neutropenia
    3. Thrombocytopenia 
    4. The presence of leukemic cells in circulating blood
    3. Thrombocytopenia
  5. Increase in the size of the heart in an athlete is an example of 
    1. Anaplasia
    2. Metaplasia
    3. Hyperplasia
    4. Hypertrophy
    5. None of the above
    4. Hypertrophy
  6. Denaturation of protein and dissolution of lipid are antiseptic properties associated with
    1. Soaps
    2. Alcohols
    3. Cresols
    4. Glutaraldehydes
    5. Mercuric chloride
    2. Alcohols
  7. An antibacterial substance found in saliva, tears and egg white is
    1. Albumin
    2. Isozyme
    3. Amylase
    4. Lysozyme
    5. Betalysin
    4. Lysozyme
  8. Squamous cell carcinoma usually metastasizes by way of
    1. The venous system 
    2. The arterial system
    3. The lymphatic system
    4. Sip ration into the lung
    3. The lymphatic system
  9. The appearance of HBs antigen in the plasma is associated with
    1. Q fever 
    2. Influenza
    3. German measles
    4. Serum hepatitits
    5. Lupus erythematosus
    4. Serum hepatitits
  10. The fluid that leaks out of vessels in noninflammatory conditions, such as cardiac failure, is
    1. Exudate
    2. Effluvium
    3. Ecchymosis
    4. Metachysis
    5. Transudate
    5. Transudate
  11. A benign neoplasm of the myometrium of the uterus is a
    1. Myeloma
    2. Fibroma
    3. Leiomyoma
    4. Myoblastoma
    5. Rhabdomyoma
    3. Leiomyoma
  12. °The spores of Bacillus anthracis are destroyed by
    1. refrigerating (-7 °C. For 48 hours)
    2. Autoclaving (121°C for 20 minutes)
    3. Pasteurizing (61.7°C. For 30 minutes)
    4. Immersing in boiling water (100°C. For 10 minutes)
    5. Placing in a hot air oven (121°C. For 20 minutes)
    2. Autoclaving (121°C for 20 minutes)
  13. Anoxia most seriously affects the brain and the
    1. Lung
    2. Heart
    3. Liver
    4. Spleen
    5. Kidney
    2. Heart
  14. Deposition of calcium in dying or dead tissue is described as
    1. Calcium soap formation
    2. Embolic calcification
    3. Metastatic calcification
    4. Dystrophic calcification 
    5. None of the above
    4. Dystrophic calcification
  15. Viruses may cause disease by 
    1. Lysing many cells of the host
    2. Transforming cells to malignant cells
    3. Making viral target cells nonfunctional 
    4 disrupting the normal defense mechanisms of the host
    5. Any of the above
    5. Any of the above
  16. Epithelial pearls and intercellular bridges observed in an infiltrating malignancy are diagnostic of
    1. Adenocarcinoma
    2. Anaplastic carcinoma
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma
    4. Undifferentiated carcinoma
    5. Transitional cell carcinoma
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma
  17. The most common organism producing subacute bacterial endocarditis is
    1. Staphylococcus
    2. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
    3. Beta-hemolytic streptococcus
    4. Gamma-hemolytic streptococcus
    2. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
  18. Metachromatic granules are characteristically observed in properly stained smears of
    1. Salmonella
    2. Escherichia coli
    3. Brucella melitensis
    4. Bordetella pertussis
    5. Corynebacterium diphteriae
    5. Corynebacterium diphteriae
  19. Resistance of staphylococcus aureus to penicillin is caused by
    1. Pleomorphism
    2. an enzyme that attacks penicillin
    3. Production of a penicillin analogue
    4. A lack of mycotic acid in the cell wall
    5. The presence of a tough lipopolysaccharide capsule
    2. an enzyme that attacks penicillin
  20. Transformation is best described as
    1. DNA coding for RNA synthesis
    2. RNA coding for protein synthesis
    3. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by DNA
    4. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by RNA
    3. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated by DNA
  21. Elevation of serum acid phosphatase level is likely to be seen in patients with carcinoma of the
    1. Colon
    2. Breast  
    3. Cervix
    4. Uterus
    5.Stomach
    6. Prostate gland
    6. Prostate gland
  22. The most common cause of esophageal varices is 
    1. Thrombosis
    2. Coarctation
    3. Cor pulmonale
    4. Portal hypertension
    5. Aging changes in the vessels
    4. Portal hypertension
  23. Lactobacilli were often names among bacteria able to initiate dental caries in humans because these organisms were found to be
    1. Acidogenic
    2. Abundant in calculus 
    3. Capable of surviving without nutrients 
    4. The only acid forming bacteria in the mouth
    5. Isolated from mouths with rampant dental decay
    1. Acidogenic
  24. The leading cause of cardiac death in the United States is
    1. Mitral stenosis
    2. Congenital anomalies
    3. Coronary heart disease
    4. Myocarditis (all causes)
    5. Hypertensive cardiovascular disease
    3. Coronary heart disease
  25. An infection following a serious a skin burn that is characterized by the production of greenish pus and is generally resistant to antibiotic therapy is probably caused by
    1. Proteus vulgaris
    2. Streptococcus mitis
    3. Streptococcus mutans
    4. Staphylococcus aureus
    5. Pseudomona aeruginosa
    5. Pseudomona aeruginosa
  26. When horse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit, and again into the skin two or three weeks later, a necrotizing reaction occurs at the site of the second injection.  This is
    1. Atopy
    2. Anaphylaxis
    3. Serum sickness
    4. An Arthus reaction
    5. an Arthus-Kustner reaction
    4. An Arthus reaction
  27. The primary result of bacterial carbohydrate metabolism is production of
    1. Heat
    2. Energy
    3. Alcohol
    4. Acetone
    2. Energy
  28. Certain staphylococci, pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli and streptococci share as a property the fact that they
    1. Are gram-positive
    2. Fail to ferment glucose
    3. Do not grow on nutrient agar
    4. Are common in hospital-acquired infection
    4. Are common in hospital-acquired infection
  29. The class of immunoglobulin responsible for atopic allergy is
    1. IgA
    2. IgD
    3. IgE
    4. IgG
    5. IgM
    3. IgE
  30. Passive congestion occurs when increased amounts of blood in the tissues collect secondary to
    1. Hyperplasia
    2. Hypertension
    3. Inflammation
    4. Arterial dilatation
    5. venous obstruction
    5. venous obstruction
  31. A 56 year old diabetic man had atrial fibrillation for two years following a myocardial infarct.  He experience right flank pain and hematuria, paralysis of the right side of the body and sharply demarcated ischemia in the left foot. These signs and symptoms were most likely due to 
    1. Septicemia
    2. Lymphangitis 
    3. Venous thrombi
    4. Arterial emboli
    5. Venous emboli
    4. Arterial emboli
  32. Research on experimental  caries in gnotobiotic animals has indicated that the majority of oral microorganisms capable of producing smooth surface dental caries with carbohydrate Diets are species of the genus
    1. Veillonella
    2. Streptococcus
    3. Fusobacterium
    4. Lactobacillus
    5. Actinomycosis
    2. Streptococcus
  33. In skin graft rejection, the major host response is
    1. An Arthus reaction
    2. Delayed hypersensititvity
    3. a Shwartzman reaction
    4. Passive cutaneous anaphylaxis
    2. Delayed hypersensititvity
  34. Vegetations on the heart valves in acute bacterial endocarditis usually consists of 
    1. Swellings caused by inflammatory edema
    2. Scar tissue containing masses of bacteria
    3. Fused platelets, fibrin and masses of bacteria 
    4. Areas where healing and calcification have occurred
    3. Fused platelets, fibrin and masses of bacteria
  35. The etiologic agent of actinomycosis in man is
    1. Exogenous and is found in infected meat
    2. Exogenous and requires contact of a vector
    3. Exogenous and requires inhalation of spores
    4. Endogenous and is found in healthy mouths
    5. Endogenous and is carried in the lower gastrointestinal tract
    4. Endogenous and is found in healthy mouths
  36. Actinomycosis is characterized by a 
    1. Serous exudate
    2. Purulent exudate
    3. Hemorrhagic exudate
    4. Fibrinous, non Purulent exudate
    2. Purulent exudate
  37. A lysogenic bacterium is one that
    1. lyses red cells
    2. Produces properdin
    3. Harbors a temperate bacteriophage
    4. Produces lecithinase when incubated anaerobically
    5. Produces spheroplasts echen incubases anaerobically
    3. Harbors a temperate bacteriophage
  38. A complete blood cell count in a patient with severe emphysema is most likely to show
    1. Anemia
    2. Leukopenia
    3. Polycythemia
    4. Leukocytosis
    5. Macrocythemia
    3. Polycythemia
  39. The pulmonary neoplasm to which the endocrine effect of hyperparathyroidism is attributed is
    1. Adenocarcinoma 
    2. Oat cell carcinoma
    3. Pheochromocytoma
    4. Medullary carcinoma
    5. Squamous cell carcinoma
    2. Oat cell carcinoma
  40. Intraoral radiographs of a 43 year old man show several discrete radiolucencies not associated with root apices.  Radiolucencies are also present in the humerus.  Results of laboratory tests indicate an elevated serum calcium level; serum phosphorus and alkaline phosphatase levels are normal.  The most likely diagnosis is
    1. Fibrous dysplasia
    2. Hyperparathyroidism
    3. Paget's disease of bone
    4. Carcinoma of the prostate
    2. Hyperparathyroidism
  41. Of the following, the most common site of a basal cell carcinoma is the 
    1. Tongue
    2. Gingiva
    3. Lower lip
    4. Upper face
    5. Oral mucosa
    4. Upper face
  42. Immune serums showing high agglutination tigers often fail to agglutinate homologous bacteria in low dilution.  This is designated as
    1. The prozone
    2. The opsonic index
    3. An Arthus reaction
    4. Agglutination adsorption
    5. The Bordet-Gengou phenomenon
    1. The prozone
  43. As opposed to lobar pneumonia, bronchopneumonia is characterized grossly and microscopically by
    1. Inflammation of a bronchus
    2. Organization of alveolar exudate
    3. A patchy, inflammatory distribution
    4. A diffuse, inflammatory distribution
    3. A patchy, inflammatory distribution
  44. The most common malignancy found in bones of the human skeleton is
    1. Osteosarcoma
    2. Chondrosarcoma
    3.  Multiple myeloma
    4. Giant cell tumor
    5. Metastatic carcinoma
    5. Metastatic carcinoma
  45. The most common cause of acute Purulent meningitis between ages 3 months and 2 years is
    1. Myxovirus
    2. Hemophilus influenzae
    3. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    2. Hemophilus influenzae
  46. The two genera most frequently associated with bacterial cystitis are
    1. Salmonella and Shigella
    2. Brucella and Hemophilus
    3. Pseudomonas and Escherichia
    4. Escherichia and Proteus
    5. Proteus and Pseudomonas
    4. Escherichia and Proteus
  47. The active mechanism directly responsible for damage to blood vessels in an immune complex disorder is the 
    1. Activation of the complement system
    2. Formation of small, soluble, immune complexes
    3. Formation of large, insoluble, immune complexes
    4. Phagocytosis of immune complexes by the RE system
    5. Release of histamine from mast cells causing a vasomotor response
    4. Phagocytosis of immune complexes by the RE system
  48. The nonmicrobial portion of dental plaque is composed primarily of
    1. Dextrans
    2. Food debris
    3. Bacterial acids
    4. Microbial enzymes
    1. Dextrans
  49. Vitamin k is necessary for 
    1. Ossification of osteoid 
    2. Formation of fibrinogen (Factor I)
    3. Formation of prothrombin (Factor II)
    4. Maturation of megakaryocytes to platelets
    5. Maturation of collagen from tropocollagen
    3. Formation of prothrombin (Factor II)
  50. Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality who is allergic to penicillin  is
    1. Ampicillin 
    2. Lincomycin
    3. Tetracycline 
    4. Streptomycin 
    5. None of the above
    5. None of the above
  51. Most viral antigens of diagnostic importance are
    1. Lipids
    2. Proteins
    3. Nucleic acids
    4. Polysaccharides
    5. Lipopolysachcharides
    2. Proteins
  52. The most common cause for megaloblastic anemia is
    1. Gastric bleeding
    2. Lack of dietary iron
    3. Lack of dietary folic acid
    4. Lack of dietary pyridoxine
    5. Lack of absorption of vitamin B12
    3. Lack of dietary folic acid
  53. Studies of the distribution of microorganisms in various oral sites show that 
    1. Bacteroides melaninogenicus and streptococci are equally distributed in plaque, in the gingival crevice and on the tongue
    2. Bacteroides melaninogenicus is found in higher concentrations in the gingival crevice than on the tongue or in plaque
    3. Streptococcus salivarius is found in higher concentrations in plaque than in the gingival crevice or on the tongue
    4. Streptococcus mutans is found in higher concentrations on the tongue than in the gingival crevice or in plaque
    2. Bacteroides melaninogenicus is found in higher concentrations in the gingival crevice than on the tongue or in plaque
  54. Transmission of viral and mycoplasmal respiratory tract diseases in the dental office is a significant concern to both patients and office staff because of
    1. Ease of transmission of most viral respiratory tract diseases
    2. Potential crowding of patients in the waiting room
    3. Increase presence of aerosolization of infectious material
    4. The close proximity of infected patients to the practitioner and the assistant 
    5. All of the above
    5. All of the above
  55. Vitamin A functions to
    1. Prevent pellagra
    2. Promote absorption of calcium
    3. Promote differentiation of epithelial cells
    4. Maintain the integrity of connective tissues
    3. Promote differentiation of epithelial cells
  56. glutaraldehyde, betapropiolactone, formaldehyde and ethylene oxide share the common characteristic of being
    1. unstable
    2. Explosive
    3. Cidal agents
    4. Static agents
    3. Cidal agents
  57. Competitive inhibition best describes the desired effect in
    1. Opsonization
    2. Phagocytosis
    3. Tuberculin reaction
    4. Allergic desensitization
    5. First-set graft rejection
    4. Allergic desensitization
  58. Cytologic and morphologic characteristics of epithelial dysplasia include
    A) invasion of underlying connective tissue
    B) mitosis near the surface layer
    C) Pleomorphism of cells
    D) hyperchromatic nuclei
    E) normal architectural arrangement
    D) hyperchromatic nucleic) mitosis near the surface layerd) Pleomorphism of cells
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Causes of atrophy include
    a) disuse
    b) pressure
    c) loss of innervation
    d) chemical simulation
    e) decreased nourishment 
    f) overstimulation with hormones
    • a) disuse
    • b) pressure
    • c) loss of innervation
    • e) decreased nourishment
  60. Endospores are formed by the genera
    a) Actinomyces
    b) Bacillus
    c) Clostridium
    d) Corynebacterium
    e) Micrococcus
    • b) Bacillus
    • c) Clostridium
  61. Granulation tissue typically contains
    a) fibroblasts
    b) nerve cells
    c) endothelial cells
    d) epithelioid cells
    e) giant cells
    • a) fibroblasts
    • c) endothelial cells
  62. Pulmonary atelectasis may be secondary to
    a) fibrous pleural adhesion
    b) blockage of a bronchus by an aspirated foreign body
    c) a calcified nodule in the apex of the lung
    d) blockage of a bronchus by mucus
    e) hydrothorax
    f) pneumothorax
    • b) blockage of a bronchus by an aspirated foreign body
    • d) blockage of a bronchus by mucus
    • e) hydrothorax
    • f) pneumothorax
  63. Malignant bone tumors likely to be encountered in children or young adults include
    a) myeloma
    b) metastatic carcinoma
    c) Ewing's sarcoma
    d) osteogenic sarcoma
    e) liposarcoma
    • c) Ewing's sarcoma
    • d) osteogenic sarcoma
  64. Thrombotic occlusion of a coronary artery may result in
    a) infarction of the myocardium
    b) proliferation of myocardial fibers
    c) fibrosis of the myocardium
    d) stenosis of the mitral valve
    e) no changes in the myocardium
    • a) infarction of the myocardium
    • c) fibrosis of the myocardium
    • e) no changes in the myocardium
  65. Thymic hypoplasia may result in
    a) hypergammaglobulinemia
    b) a decreased propensity to develop cancer
    c) an increased predisposition to fungal and viral infections
    d) an absence of plasma cells
    • c) an increased predisposition to fungal and viral infections
    • d) an absence of plasma cells
  66. Thymic hypoplasia may result in
    a) hypergammaglobulinemia
    b) a decreased propensity to develop cancer
    c) an increased predisposition to fungal and viral infections
    d) an absence of plasma cells
    • c) an increased predisposition to fungal and viral infections
    • d) an absence of plasma cells
  67. Long bones may be affected by which of the following disorders?
    a) Rickets
    b) osteopetrosis
    c) chondrodystrophy 
    d) fibrous dysplasia 
    e) osteogenesis imperfecta
    f) all of the above
    f) all of the above
  68. Which of the following cells are associated with liberation of histamine?
    a) lymphocytes
    b) eosinophils
    c) plasma cells
    d) mast cells
    • b) eosinophils
    • d) plasma cells
  69. Which of the following substances are considered to be chemical mediator for vascular dilatation at the initial phase of acute inflammation?
    a) serotonin
    b) histamine
    c) bradykinin
    d) hyaluronidase
    • a) serotonin
    • b) histamine
    • c) bradykinin
  70. Which of the following are phagocytes?
    a) plasma cells
    b) lymphocytes
    c) Kupffer's cells of liver sinusoids
    d) polymorphonuclear leukocytes
    e) eosinophils
    • c) Kupffer's cells of liver sinusoids
    • d) polymorphonuclear leukocytes
    • e) eosinophils
  71. Cirrhosis of the liver can be a sequela of which of the following conditions?
    1. Alcoholism
    2. Biliary obstruction
    3. Infectious hepatitis
    4. Congestive heart failure
    5. Any of the above
    5. Any of the above
  72. Which of the following characteristics is common to rickettsiae and viruses?
    1. Structure
    2. Cell wall synthesis
    3. Requirement of living cells for growth
    4. Susceptibility to broad spectrum antibiotics
    3. Requirement of living cells for growth
  73. Which of the following characteistically produces a latent infection?
    1. ECHO virus
    2. Measles virus
    3. Smallpox virus
    4. herpes simplex
    5. Coxsakie B virus
    4. herpes simplex
  74. Which of the following is an example of naturally acquired passive immunity in humans?
    1. Smallpox immunization
    2. Injection of gamma globulin
    3. Transfusion of immune blood
    4. Placental transfer or antibody
    5. Antibody produced during recovery from measles
    4. Placental transfer or antibody
  75. Which of the following cell types is associated with antibody formation?
    1. Basophil
    2. Monocyte
    3. Eosinophil
    4. Neutrophil
    5. Plasma cell
    5. Plasma cell
  76. Which if the following diseases, in which gastroenteritis is the principal feature, has an incubation period of 2-4 hours?
    1. Cholera
    2. Botulism
    3. Salmonellosis 
    3. Summer diarrhea
    4. Staphylococcal food poisoning
    4. Staphylococcal food poisoning
  77. In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found microscopically within reticuloendothelial cells?
    1. Candidiasis
    2. Aspergillosis
    3. Blastomycosis
    4. Histoplasmosis
    3. Blastomycosis
  78. Which if the following conditions is suggested in a patient with nausea and vomiting, pigmentation of the oral mucous membrane and skin, hypotension and asthenia?
    1. myxedema
    2. Pineal tumor
    3. Grave's disease
    4. Addison's disease 
    5. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
    4. Addison's disease
  79. Which of the following has been shown to have a relationship to carcinoma of the cervix?
    1. Papovavirus
    2. Varicella-zoster virus
    3. Herpesvirus hominis type I
    4. Herpesvirus hominis type II
    5. None of the above
    4. Herpesvirus hominis type II
  80. A patient with which of the following diseases is predisposed to develop osteosarcoma?
    1. Osteomalacia
    2. Osteopetrosis
    3. Paget's disease of bone
    4. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    3. Paget's disease of bone
  81. Organisms belonging to which of the following genera can tolerate the lowest pH?
    1. Veillonella
    2. Bacteroides 
    3. Streptococcus
    4. Lactobacillus
    5. Staphilococcus
    4. Lactobacillus
  82. Which of the following viruses has been found to have an etiologic relationship with infectious mononucleosis?
    1. Rhinovirus
    2. Coxsackie virus
    3. Einstein-Barr virus
    4. Newcastle disease virus
    3. Einstein-Barr virus
  83. Which of the following viruses has been found to have an etiologic relationship with in infectious mononucleosis?
    1. Rhinovirus
    2. Coxsakie virus
    3. Einstein-Barr virus
    4. Newcastle disease
    3. Einstein-Barr virus
  84. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a heterophile agglutination titer greater than 1:128
    1. Syphilis
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Rheumatic fever
    4. Hodgkin's disease
    5. Infectious mononucleosis
    5. Infectious mononucleosis
  85. When streptococci are growing on glucose as a carbon and energy source in an unbuffered medium, which of the following is likely to occur in the culture medium?
    1. An elevated pH
    2. A lowered pH
    3. Production of gas
    4. Production of maltose
    2. A lowered pH
  86. Which of the following lesions is most common in infants?
    1. Chondrosarcoma
    2. Neuroblastoma
    3. Malignant melanoma
    4. Basal cell carcinoma
    5. Squamous cell carcinoma
    2. Neuroblastoma
  87. To which of the following sites does carcinoma of the prostate metastasize with the greatest frequency?
    1. Lung
    2. Liver 
    3. Brain 
    4. Spleen
    5. Skeleton
    5. Skeleton
  88. During which phase of bacterial growth does ampicillin exert its greatest cidal activity?
    1. Early lag phase
    2. Lag phase
    3. Log phase
    4. Stationary phase
    5. Phase of decline
    3. Log phase
  89. Which of the following has the least capacity for regeneration?
    1. Bone
    2. Cardiac muscle
    3. Liver parenchyma
    4. Squamous epithelium
    5. Fibrous connective tissue
    2. Cardiac muscle
  90. Which of the following conditions is least likely to have clinical signs and symptoms?
    1. Pyemia
    2. Toxemia
    3. Septicemia
    4. Bacteremia
    4. Bacteremia
  91. Which of the following enteric microorganisms is NOT typically found in the normal human intestinal flora?
    1. Escherichia coli
    2. Salmonella typhi
    3. Proteus vulgaris 
    4. Bacteroides fragilis
    5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    2. Salmonella typhi
  92. Which of the following would NOT be common to lesions of both sarcoidosis and tuberculosis?
    1. Giant cells
    2. Lymphocytes
    3. epithelioid cells
    4. Caseation necrosis
    4. Caseation necrosis
  93. Which of the following conditions is NOT mediated by antibody?
    1. Hay fever
    2. Anaphilaxis
    3. Serum sickness
    4. Contact dermatitis
    5. Autoimmune hemolytic disease
    4. Contact dermatitis
  94. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of plasmids?
    1. Confer conjugal fertility
    2. Carry genetic information
    3. Exist as circular RNA molecules
    4. Exist as extra chromosomal elements in bacteria
    3. Exist as circular RNA molecules
  95. Of the following, amphotericin B therapy is NOT indicated for
    1. Nocardiosis
    2. Histoplasmosis
    3. Cryptococcosis
    4. Coccidiodomycosis
    5. Systemic candidiasis
    1. Nocardiosis
  96. hystiocytosis X encompasses all of the following clinical entities EXCEPT
    1. Gaucher's disease 
    2. Letterer-Siwe disease
    3. Eosinophilic granuloma
    4. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
    1. Gaucher's disease
  97. Jaundice is seen in each of the following EXCEPT
    1. Aplastic anemia
    2. Liver cell damage
    3. Excessive hemolysis
    4. Bile duct obstruction
    5. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
    1. Aplastic anemia
  98. Each of the following is useful in the identification of viruses EXCEPT
    1. Nature of the viral Nucleic acid
    2. morphology of the viral protein coat
    3. Ability of the virus to grow on complex media
    4. Neutralization of the virus with specific antiserums
    5. Ability of the virus to be inactivated by certain solvents, such as ether or chloroform
    3. Ability of the virus to grow on complex media

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