Microbiology and Pathology 2 1984

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Microbiology and Pathology 2 1984
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  1. Two important "post-streptococcal"diseases are
    1. Impetigo and osteomyelitis 
    2. puerperal fever and anthrax
    3. Scarlet fever and erysipelas
    4. Pharyngitis and the common cold
    5. Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis
    5. Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma usually metastizes by way of 
    1. The venous system
    2. The arterial system
    3. The lymphatic system
    4. Aspiration into the lung
    3. The lymphatic system
  3. A tumor composed of multiple tissues in which there may be representatives of all three embryonal layers is
    1. A teratoma
    2. Anadenoma 
    3. A carcinoma
    4. A sarcoma
    5. A hamartoma
    1. A teratoma
  4. Hemorrhage is often difficult to curb in patients with liver disorders because of
    1. Hypoprothrombinemia
    2. Lack of bile pigments
    3. A deficiency of vitamin B12
    4. Anemia that accompanies liver dysfunction
    5. A deficiency of vitamin D caused by impaired fat absorption
    1. Hypoprothrombinemia
  5. A thrombus produced as a result of damage to the ventricular endocardium is characteristic if 
    1. Vegetations
    2. Mural thrombosis
    3. Postmortem clot
    4. Occlusive thrombus
    2. Mural thrombosis
  6. Osteoporosis, metastatic calcification, renal stones, giant cell granulomas and increased serum calcium level are manifestations of
    1. Hypothyroidism 
    2. Hyperthyroidism
    3. Hyperadrenalism
    4. Hypoparathryroidism
    5. Hyperparathyroidism
    5. Hyperparathyroidism
  7. Small pin-point hemorrhages that occur on the skin are
    1. Purpura
    2. Hematomas
    3. Petechiae
    4. Ecchymoses
    3. Petechiae
  8. Orchitis is a serious complication in adults with
    1. Mumps
    2. Measles
    3. Nongonococcal urethritis 
    4. ECHO virus meningoencephalitis
    5. Parainfluenzal nasopharyngitis
    1. Mumps
  9. An infectious disease characterized by a very hard, board-like swelling and draining fistulas and caused by a branching gram-positive, microaerophilic, filament pus microorganism is
    1. Impetigo
    2. Smallpox
    3. Candidiasis
    4. Actinomycosis
    3. Candidiasis
  10. The natural reservoir for Rocky Mountain spotted fever is
    1. Lice
    2. Mites
    3. Ticks
    4. Humans
    5. Rabbits
    6. Mosquitoes
    3. Ticks
  11. The Lancefield streptococcal group most likely to contain strains pathogenic for man is
    1. A
    2. B
    3. D
    4. E
    5. H
    1. A
  12. The mechanism of cacti on of penicillin is
    1. Prevention of RNA synthesis
    2. Prevention of DNA synthesis
    3. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
    4. Stimulation of phagocytic activity
    5. Interference with protein synthesis
    3. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  13. Production of a potent exotoxin is characteristic of certain strains of 
    1. Salmonella typhi
    2. Clostridium tetani
    3. Hemophilus influenzae
    4. Streptococcus faecalis
    5. Neisseria meningitidis
    2. Clostridium tetani
  14. Functions of the complement system in man include 
    1. Participation in inflammatory processes
    2. Amplification of effects of specific antibody
    3. Participation in lysis of bacteria and erythrocytes
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
    4. All of the above
  15. Most antibodies are produced in the
    1. Heart and liver 
    2. brain and the meninges
    3. Thymus and the appendix
    4. Spleen and lymph nodes
    5. Upper and lower G.I. Tract
    4. Spleen and lymph nodes
  16. Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by
    1. An exotoxin
    2. An endotoxin
    3. Ribonuclease
    4. A capsular antigen
    5. A flagellar antigen
    2. An endotoxin
  17. The type of maxillofacial bone graft having the best chance of success is the
    1. Isograft
    2. Xenograft
    3. Allograft
    4. Autograft
    3. Allograft
  18. The disease characterized by radiolucent bone lesions, anemia, hyperglobulinemia and one or more bone marrow tumors containing predominantly plasma cells is 
    1. Leukemia
    2. Thalassemia
    3. Multiple myeloma
    4. Hodgkin's  Disease
    5. Pernicious anemia
    6. sickle cell disease
    3. Multiple myeloma
  19. A benign neoplasm of the myometrium of the uterus is a 
    1. Myeloma
    2. Fibroma
    3. Leiomyoma
    4. myoblastoma
    5. Rhabdomyoma
    3. Leiomyoma
  20. An infection of penicillin into a penicillin-sensitized person may lead to death due to
    1. Absence of histamine
    2. A Shwartzman's reaction
    3. Release of enzymes from polymorphonuclear leukocytes
    4. Constriction of bronchioli and drop in blood pressure
    4. Constriction of bronchioli and drop in blood pressure
  21. Prolonged Administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the
    1. Optic nerve
    2. Facial nerve
    3. Auditory nerve
    4. Trigeminal nerve
    3. Auditory nerve
  22. The major antiseptic value of soap lies in its ability to
    1. Kill microbes
    2. Remove microbes
    3. Inhibit microbial growth
    4. Dehydrate microbial cells
    2. Remove microbes
  23. Dry heat destroys microorganisms primarily by
    1. Lysis
    2. Oxidation
    3. Precipitation of salts
    4. Coagulation of proteins
    5. Acceleration of enzymemetabolism
    4. Coagulation of proteins
  24. Toxoids are most often prepared by treating toxins with 
    1. Pepsin
    2. Papain
    3. Trypsin
    4. Antitoxin
    5. Formaldehyde
    5. Formaldehyde
  25. Of the following the most common site of a basal cell carcinoma is the
    1. Tongue
    2. Gingiva
    3. Lower lip
    4. Upper face 
    5. Oral mucosa
    4. Upper face
  26. Heart failure cells are
    1. Aschoff's giant cells
    2. Anichkov's myocytes
    3. Fibrocytes in the myocardium
    4. Hypertrophic myocardial fibers
    5. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveoli
    5. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in alveoli
  27. A 10 year old boy bled during tooth extraction.  Subsequently, he had multiple bleeding into his joints, specially his knees.  Upon questioning, it was reported that a maternal uncle and a male cousin had had similar experiences. The most pro able diagnosis is a deficiency of Factor
    1. VIII
    2. X
    3. XII
    4. XIII
    1. VIII
  28. Aspiration of material from various teeth may cause
    1. Lung abscess
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Lobar pneumonia
    4. Bronchopneumonia
    5. Interstitial pneumonia
    1. Lung abscess
  29. Hepatitis B surface antigen in a patient's serum indicates that the patient is
    1. Recovered
    2. Potentially infectious
    3. Now an acceptable blood donor
    4. Immune to subsequent exacerbations of the disease
    2. Potentially infectious
  30. Military tuberculosis results from spread of tubercle bacilli by way of
    1. Lymphatics
    2. Waldeyer's ring
    3. The bloodstream
    4. The urinary system 
    5. Bronchial passages
    3. The bloodstream
  31. A benign tumor arising from voluntary muscle is a 
    1. Leiomyoma
    2. Papilloma 
    3. Rhabdomyoma
    4. Leiomyosarcoma
    5. Rhabdomyosarcoma
    3. Rhabdomyoma
  32. The most feared consequence of graft therapy in a patient with an immunodeficiency is
    1. Autoimmunity
    2. Immunoproliferation
    3. Immune complex injury
    4. Host versus graft reaction
    5. Graft versus host reaction
    5. Graft versus host reaction
  33. Left-sided heart failure or shock may be associated etiologically with
    1. Pneumoconiosis
    2. Bronchiectasis
    3. Pulmonary edema
    4. Pulmonary emboli
    3. Pulmonary edema
  34. The nuclear material of a bacterial cell is typically characterized as a 
    1. Single, double-stranded DNA molecule enclosed within a nuclear membrane
    2. Rigid, DNA-protein complex enclosed within a nuclear membrane
    3. Single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane
    4. Rigid DNA lipopolysaccharide complex not confined within a nuclear membrane
    3. Single, double-stranded DNA molecule not confined within a nuclear membrane
  35. Mycotic organisms are characteristically found microscopically within reticuloendothelial cells in
    1. Candidiasis
    2. Aspergillosis
    3. Mucormycosis
    4. Hitoplasmosis
    5. All of the above
    6. None of the above
    4. Hitoplasmosis
  36. A number of fungi that commonly cause superficial skin infections belong to the genus
    1. Aspergillus
    2. Blatomyces
    3. Histoplasma
    4. Coccidioides
    5. Trichophyton
    5. Trichophyton
  37. Long standing chronic renal insufficiency may produce
    1. Thyroid hypoplasia
    2. Thyroid hyperplasia
    3. Parathyroid hypoplasia
    4. Parathyroid hyperplasia
    4. Parathyroid hyperplasia
  38. a bacterium well known for its large polysaccharide capsule is
    1. Clostridium tetani
    2. staphylococcus aureus
    3. Hemophilus influenza
    4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    5. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  39. The predisposition of an individual to sensitization is characteristic of
    1. Atopic allergy
    2. Arthus reaction
    3. Anaphylactic shock
    4. Hyposensitive allergy
    1. Atopic allergy
  40. The progression of impetigo in children involves streptococci and
    1. Diphteroids
    2. Staphylococci
    3. Corynebacteria
    4. Streptococcal hypersensitivity
    5. All of the above
    2. Staphylococci
  41. Peptic ulcer most commonly occurs in the 
    1. Jejunum
    2. Cardia of the stomach
    3. First part of the duodenum
    4. Lesser curvature of the stomach
    3. First part of the duodenum
  42. The type of infrction commonly transmitted by blood and blood-derived products is
    1. Cytomegalovirus
    2. Type A hepatitis
    3. Type B hepatitis
    4 herpes simplex keratitis
    3. Type B hepatitis
  43. Protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly by
    1. Humoral immunity
    2. Cellular immunity
    3. Non specific anatomic barriers
    4. None of the above
    1. Humoral immunity
  44. Serum sickness syndrome is an example of 
    1. Anaphylactic shock 
    2. Angioneurotic edema
    3. Cell mediated immunity
    4. Transplantation immunity
    5. A systemic Arthus reaction
    5. A systemic Arthus reaction
  45. In amyloid oasis of the tongue, the amyloid is deposited primarily in the
    1. Stromal connective tissue
    2. Cells of the surface of the epithelium
    3. nuclei of the striated muscle cells
    4. Cytoplasm of the striated muscle cells
    5. Acinar cells of the glands of the tongue
    1. Stromal connective tissue
  46. Submerging dental instruments for 15 minutes in a cold disinfecting solution is unacceptable as a sterilizing method because during this interval  cold disinfectants
    1. Are not sporicidal
    2. Are inactivated by soap
    3. Do not kill gram-negative organisms
    4. Have a limited anti microbial spectrum
    1. Are not sporicidal
  47. The eclipse stage of a viral infection is characterized by
    1. Development of lysogeny
    2. Absence of a demonstrable virus particle
    3. A slow increase in number of virus particles
    4. All of the above
    2. Absence of a demonstrable virus particle
  48. The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in vivo from one bacterium to another by
    1. Conjugation 
    2. Rarefaction 
    3. Transduction
    4. Transformation
    1. Conjugation
  49. B lymphocytes recognize specific antigens by virtue of
    1. C3 receptors
    2. Cytophilic IgA
    3. Membrane bound immunoglobulin
    4. Receptors for the Fc portion of Ig
    3. Membrane bound immunoglobulin
  50. The first clinical manifestation of herpes simplex virus type 1 infection is usually
    1. Perleche
    2. Gingivostomatitis 
    3. Keratoconjunctivitis
    4. Involvement of the genital tract
    2. Gingivostomatitis
  51. Pernicious anemia is best treated with
    1. Iron
    2. Folic acid
    3. Vitamin B12
    4. Pyridoxine
    5. Pantothenic acid
    3. Vitamin B12
  52. Cause of atrophy include
    A) Disuse
    B) Pressure
    C) Loss of innervation
    D) Chemical stimulation
    E) Decreased nourishment
    F) Overstimulation with hormones
    • A) Disuse
    • b) Pressure
    • c)Loss of innervation
    • e)Decreased nourishment
  53. malignant bone tumors likely to be encountered in children or young adults include
    a) myeloma
    b) metastatic carcinoma
    c) Ewing's sarcoma
    d) osteogenic sarcoma
    e) liposarcoma
    • c) Ewing's sarcoma
    • d) osteogenic sarcoma
  54. Thrombotic occlusion of a coronary artery may result in
    a) infarction of the myocardium
    b) proliferation of myocardial fibers
    c) fibrosis of the myocardium
    d) stenosis of the mitral valve
    E) conductive changes
    • a) infarction of the myocardium
    • c) fibrosis of the myocardium
    • E) conductive changes
  55. Growth of which of the following neoplasm is often influenced by hormones?
    a) glioma
    b) breast carcinoma
    c) prostatic carcinoma
    d) renal cell carcinoma
    • b) breast carcinoma
    • c) prostatic carcinoma
  56. Which of the following elements are usual constituents of an inflammatory infiltrate?
    a) fluids
    b) emboli
    c) neutrophils
    d) macrophages
    • a) fluids
    • c) neutrophils
    • d) macrophages
  57. Leukocytosis is apt to be present in which of the following conditions?
    a) acute abscess
    b) agranulocytosis 
    c) osteomyelitis
    d) leukoplakia
    e) leukopenia
    • a) acute abscess
    • c) osteomyelitis
  58. Which of the following therapeutic agents are classed as broad-spectrum antibiotics?
    a) tetracycline
    b) chloramphenicol
    c) dihydrostreptomycin
    d) penicillin
    e) Isoniacid
    • a) tetracycline
    • b) chloramphenicol
  59. Which of the following reactions require prior sensitization?
    a) anaphilaxis
    b) Arthus reaction
    c) contact dermatitis
    d) erythroblastosis fetalis
    e) all of the above
    e) all of the above
  60. Which of the following pathological changes are irreversible?
    a) fatty degeneration
    b) hydropic degeneration
    c) autolysis
    d) infarction
    e) fatty metamorphosis
    • c) autolysis
    • d)infarction
  61. Which of the following are viral diseases?
    a) mumps
    b) influenza
    c) scarlet fever
    d) herpes simplex
    e) whooping cough
    • a) mumps
    • b) influenza
    • d) herpes simplex
  62. Inactivated microorganisms are used in the manufacture if which of the following?
    1. Salk vaccine
    2. Tetanus toxoid
    3. Sabin's oral vaccine
    4. All of the above
    1. Salk vaccine
  63. Hyperglycemia, glycosuria, hyperlipemia and Ketonuria are characteristic of which of the following conditions?
    1. Hypothyroidism
    2. Lipoid nephrosis
    3. Diabetes mellitus
    4. Letterer-Siwe disease
    5. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
    3. Diabetes mellitus
  64. Which of the following antibiotics is effective in treating oral candidiasis?
    1. Nystatin
    2. Bacitracin
    3. Penillin
    4. Tetracycline
    5. Griseofulvin
    1. Nystatin
  65. Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?
    1. Gonococcus
    2. Enterococcus
    3. Streptococcus
    4. Staphylococcus
    4. Staphylococcus
  66. Microorganisms of which of the following genera are most predominant in the normal oral flora?
    1. Bacillus
    2. Streptococcus
    3. Lactobacillus
    4. Staphylococcus
    5. Corynebacterium
    2. Streptococcus
  67. What is the fastest, sat and most effective method to sterilize a metal impression tray with a solder that melts at a temperature above 175°C?
    1. Filtration
    2. Autoclaving
    3. Dry heat sterilization
    4. Soaking in 2% glutaraldehyde
    5. Ethylene oxide sterilization
    4. Soaking in 2% glutaraldehyde
  68. Herpangina is a pathologic condition associated with which of the following viruses?
    1. Myxovirus
    2. adenovirus
    3. Herpesvirus
    4. Coxsackie virus
    4. Coxsackie virus
  69. Aerobic microbial metabolism is characterized by which of the following end-products.
    1. Fatty acids 
    2. Lactic acids
    3. Hydrogen and pyruvate
    4. Carbon dioxide and water
    4. Carbon dioxide and water
  70. Which of the following cells are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute inflammation?
    1. plasma cells
    2. Eosinophils
    3. Neutrophils 
    4. Normoblasts
    5. Basophils
    1. plasma cells
  71. Which of the following is a very serious complication of an infant delivered of a mother with gonorrhea?
    1. Toxemia
    2. A perforated palate
    3. Hutchinson's incisors
    4. Congenital gonorrhea
    5. Ophthalmia neonatorum
    5. Ophthalmia neonatorum
  72. Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth?
    1. Mucor
    2. Candida
    3. Brucella
    4. Treponema
    5. Aspergillus
    2. Candida
  73. Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of the following microorganisms?
    1. Viruses
    2. Ricketrsiae
    3. Streptococci
    4. staphylococci
    4. staphylococci
  74. A patient with which of the following diseases is predisposed to develop osteosarcoma?
    1. Osteomalacia
    2. Osteopetrosis
    3. Paget's disease of bone
    4. Osteogenesis imperfecta
    3. Paget's disease of bone
  75. Which of the following is a significant effect of pheochromocytoma?
    1. Myxedema
    2. Acromegaly
    3. Glycosuria
    4. Hypertension
    4. Hypertension
  76. A high titer of serum heterophile antibodies is found in patients with which of the following conditions?
    1. Hepatitis A
    2. Hepatitis B
    3. Actinomycosis
    4. Herpes zoster
    5. Infectious mononucleosis
    5. Infectious mononucleosis
  77. Following injury, which tissue restores functional capacity by hypertrophy?
    1. Liver
    2. Adrenal cortex
    3. Cardiac muscle
    4. Peripheral nerve
    5. Skin of the trunk
    3. Cardiac muscle
  78. In chronic, granulomatous inflammation, which of the following processes is most likely to predominate?
    1. Exudation
    2. Congestion
    3. Transudation
    4. Proliferation
    4. Proliferation
  79. Renin is found in which of the following organs?
    1. Liver
    2. Kidney
    3. Pancreas
    4. Adrenal gland
    5. Thyroid gland
    2. Kidney
  80. Which of the following diseases is caused by an agent that produces neither exotoxins nor endotoxins?
    1. Cholera
    2. Syphilis
    3. Gonorrhea
    4. Brucellosis
    5. Gas gangrene
    2. Syphilis
  81. Which of the following is the most common skin cancer in man?
    1. Malignant melanoma
    2. Basal cell carcinoma
    3. Squamous cell carcinoma
    4. Sebaceous Adenocarcinoma 
    5. Transitional cell carcinoma
    2. Basal cell carcinoma
  82. Specific chemotherapy is useful for treating which of the following conditions?
    1. Measles
    2. Hepatitis
    3. Herpangina
    4. Herpes conjunctivitis
    5. Infectious mononucleosis
    5. Infectious mononucleosis
  83. Which of the following sequealae of fatty nutritional cirrhosis is most likely to result in exsanguination?
    1. Ascites
    2. Jaundice
    3. Hepatomegaly
    4. Esophageal varix
    4. Esophageal varix
  84. Which if the following agents is most often associated with fatalities following influenzal infections?
    1. Influenza virus
    2. Streptococcus mitis
    3. Streptococcus pyogenes
    4. Staphylococcus aureus
    5. Hemophilus influenzae
    4. Staphylococcus aureus
  85. Microorganisms characteristic of which of the following infections require a specific receptor site to infect a host?
    1. Anthrax
    2. Syphilis
    3. Influenza
    4. Dysentery
    5. Gas gangrene
    3. Influenza
  86. Gaucher's,  Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs are genetic disease of which of the following metabolic classes?
    1. Hemoglobinopathies
    2. Lipid storage diseases
    3. Glycogen storage diseases
    4. Runic acid metabolism diseases
    5. Mucho polysaccharide storage diseases
    2. Lipid storage diseases
  87. Which of the following factors determines whether a patient develops acromegaly or gigantism?
    1. Sex
    2. Age at onset of the tumor
    3. Amount of available calcium
    4. Degree of function of the tumor
    2. Age at onset of the tumor
  88. Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?
    1. Treatment with antibiotics
    2. Injection of gamma globulin 
    3. Vaccination with dead organisms
    4. Vaccination with live organisms
    5. Placental transfer of mother's antibody
    5. Placental transfer of mother's antibody
  89. Which of the following is most likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function?
    1. Mitral stenosis
    2. Cardiac cirrhosis
    3. Cardiac tamponade
    4. Constrictive pericarditis
    5. Granulomatous lung disease
    3. Cardiac tamponade
  90. Which of the following may result form chronic bronchitis?
    1. Cor pulmonale
    2. Increase airway resistance
    3. Metaplasia and dysplasia of respiratory epithelium
    4. All of the above
    4. All of the above
  91. Which of the following acids is an intermediate in biosynthesis of the cell wall?
    1. Uridylic
    2. L-glutamic
    3. Thymidylic
    4. N-acetylmurami
    5. Alanyl diaminopimelic
    5. Alanyl diaminopimelic
  92. Carcinoma of which of the following tissues has been associated with ingestion of food contaminated with aspergillus?
    1.lip
    2. Lung
    3. Liver
    4. Colon
    3. Liver
  93. An infarct is most frequently characterized by what type of necrosis?
    1. Fatty
    2. Caseous
    3. gangrenous
    4. Coagulative
    5. Liquefactive
    4. Coagulative
  94. Which if the following is an acidogenic genus found in deep dental caries that often increases significantly in the saliva during periods of caries activity?
    1. Rothia
    2. Candida
    3. Actinomyces
    4. Lactobacillus
    4. Lactobacillus
  95. Which of the following is the most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow?
    1. Shift toward a more aerobic microflora
    2. Shift toward a more acidogenic microflora
    3. Significant increase in number of oral bacteria
    4. Significante decrease in nombre of oral bacteria
    2. Shift toward a more acidogenic microflora
  96. Which of the following renal diseases is autosomal dominant?
    1. Renal adenoma 
    2. Polycystic kidney
    3. Glomerulonephritis
    4. Secondary amyloidosis
    2. Polycystic kidney
  97. Which of the following does NOT apply to. Pulmonary emphysema?
    1. May be reversible
    2. Is generally bilateral
    3. Is more common in males
    4. May lead to cardiac failure
    5. Is a significante public health problem
    1. May be reversible
  98. Which of the following is NOT a property of conjugation?
    1. Requires cell to cell contact
    2. Is an energy dependent process
    3. Depends on the presence of pili
    4. Requires flagella for pair formation
    5. Involves transfer of single stranded DNA
    4. Requires flagella for pair formation
  99. Which of the following is NOT a histologic criterion of malignant growth?
    1. Aplasia
    2. Anaplasia
    3. Pleomorphism
    4. Hyperchromatism
    5. Abnormal mitosis
    1. Aplasia
  100. The form of bacterial gene transfer that is least susceptible to DNase and does NOT require cell to cell contact is
    1. Transition
    2. Conjugation
    3. Transduction
    4. Transformation
    3. Transduction

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