Physiology/Pathophysiology II Exam I

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  1. What is the process of drawing leukocytes to the site of an infection?
  2. Tissue transplants should have matching ______ to prevent rejection in the host.
    MHC molecules
  3. ______ are an example of specific immunity
  4. What chemical is released by neutrophils that produces pus at the site of an infection?
  5. IgE molecules attach to _______________________.
    Mast cells via their constant region
  6. When T helper cells are exposed for the second time to hapten-peptide on antigen presenting cells, they _______________________.
    release cytokines which attract more macrophages.
  7. Allergic reactions could be minimized if the synthesis of immunoglobulin _____________ was blocked.
  8. Antigens are
    large, complex molecules
  9. Which cell combats virally infected cells, transplants, and cancer cells?
    T lymphocyte
  10. T lymphocytes mature in the _______.
  11. (T/F) Macrophages are derived from neutrophils.
  12. (T/F) B lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
  13. Individuals suffering from acquired immune deficiency syndrome have decreased numbers of circulating _________.
    Helper T lymphocytes
  14. What chemical acts as a chemokine to draw more neutrophils to the site of an infection?
    tumor necrosis factor alpha
  15. The two categories of immune defensive mechanisms are __________ and ___________.
    innate (nonspecific) immunity, adaptive (specific) immunity.
  16. Alpha and beta interferons will inhibit
    viral replication and assembly.
  17. During the local inflammatory response, a lack of mast cells would result in
    decreased capillary permeability.
  18. Phagocytic cells include all of the following EXCEPT
  19. Which of the following processes can be activated by the complement system
    cytolysis, inflammation and opsonization
  20. Opsonization is ____________________.
    coating of a bacterium with antibody to make it more susceptible to phagocytosis
  21. The sequence for the processing of proteins originating outside of the cell, is that they are broken into fragments and then _______________.
    transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, fuse with a Golgi vesicle containing class II MHCs, and transported to the plasma membrane.
  22. Foreign antigens presented on class I MHC molecules __________.
    stimulate cell destruction by activated T-cells.
  23. (T/F) Fragments of foreign proteins are antibodies.
  24. (T/F) Viruses and self-proteins are examples of proteins produced inside of the cell.
  25. On first exposure to antigen, T helper cells ______________.
    become activated and increase in number.
  26. Skin lesions due to hypersensitivity appear _______.
    24 hours after second exposure to antigen.
  27. (T/F) A hapten is an antigen that is capable of causing antibody production on its own.
  28. (T/F) Delayed hypersensitivity is due to the effects of the humoral part of the immune system.
  29. An IgE mediated hypersensitivity, which of the following are needed?
    antigen presenting cells, B cells, IgE antibodies, and mast cells
  30. Histamine, released by mast cells, leads to which of the following symptoms?
    mucus secretion
  31. (T/F) For a hypersensitivity response to occur, two bound IgE molecules on a mast cell must react with a specific antigen.
  32. (T/F) Activated T helper cells produce cytokines, which stimulate B cells to proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells capable of producing IgE.
  33. Foreign substances that elicit an immune response are termed _____.
  34. Macrophages secrete ________ which then activates  ________ .
    interleukin-1 ; helper T cells
  35. The human body makes __________.
    millions of different types of cytotoxic T cells.
  36. Helper T cells can stimulate the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells but not the proliferation of B
  37. The secondary immune response to a previously encountered pathogen is swifter and stronger than the primary immune response.
  38. Which of the following are needed for antibody production to occur with T cell dependent antigens?
    antigen presenting cells, B cells and T helper cells
  39. An antigen presenting cell presents antigen to a T helper cell _____.
    on its surface on a class II MHC
  40. A helper T cell becomes activated by a _____.
    antigen presenting cell
  41. (T/F) A helper T cell must become activated before it can stimulate a B cell to produce antibody.
  42. (T/F) Protein is usually a T-cell dependent antigen.
  43. Immune complexes consist of ________.
    antigen plus antibody
  44. Intermediate size complexes react with and activate ____
  45. In the presence of activated complement, neutrophils _____
    degranulate and release enzymes that cause tissue damage
  46. Most intermediate size antigen antibody complexes are removed by phagocytosis
  47. After complement activation, basophils may degranulate causing vasodilation.
  48. Antigens such as proteins have several different sites that can react with antibodies. These sites are called
  49. The most direct source of monoclonal antibodies are ________ cells.
  50. Which of the following statements about monoclonal antibody production is true?
    B cell + myeloma -> hydridoma
  51. (T/F) A single monoclonal antibody can bind to several different sites on an antigen
  52. (T/F) Monoclonal antibodies have applications in cancer therapy and diagnostic microbiology
  53. What substance signals macrophages to destroy self-cells that have committed apoptosis?
  54. (T/F) Antigens are used to induce a passive immune response
  55. (T/F) Both innate and adaptive immunity processes are necessary for local inflammation to function properly.
  56. (T/F) The characteristic symptoms of local inflammation include redness, warmth, swelling, pain, and pus
  57. Which of the following is an example of how active immunity is acquired?
    The person produces antibodies in response to being injected with antigens.
  58. A class-2 MHC molecule is used to present a foreign antigen to a
    helper T lymphocyte.
  59. (T/F) Interferons have diverse functions including inhibiting erythrocyte and adipose cell maturation
  60. The ability of antibodies to promote phagocytosis is called
  61. Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter _________ at the neuromuscular junction.
  62. Subunits of skeletal muscle cells that are composed of sarcomeres are called
  63. The specialized region of the sarcolemma at the neuromuscular junction is called the
    motor end plate.
  64. Which molecule blocks the myosin head from binding to actin in a relaxed muscle?
  65. What protein primarily makes up the thin filament?
  66. (T/F) Transverse tubules contain voltage-gated calcium channels that respond to membrane depolarization and are directly coupled to the calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  67. Which of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle is true?
    Intercalated discs contain gap junctions.
  68. What are the swellings on autonomic nerves that release neurotransmitter to smooth muscle
  69. The Ca2+ required for skeletal muscle contraction is released from the ________
    sarcoplasmic reticulum
  70. (T/F) The epimysium surrounds the individual muscle cells.
  71. (T/F) Sarcomeres contain elastic titin filaments which help the muscles return to their resting length during muscle relaxation.
  72. Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated. This is called a/an
  73. The inability of muscle cells to relax due to high frequency stimulation is termed
  74. Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?
  75. ________ is characterized by continued attachment of myosin heads to actin filaments due to
    a lack of ATP.
    rigor mortis
  76. What muscle structural and functional unit runs from Z disc to Z disc?
  77. Each somatic motor neuron with all the muscle fibers it innervates is a
    motor unit
  78. If a muscle is repeatedly stimulated and allowed to relax between stimuli, the successive contractions will be stronger. This phenomenon, known as treppe, or staircase effect, is thought to be due to the accumulation of neurotransmitter in the neuromuscular cleft.
  79. ATP in muscle contraction is needed for
    • attachment of myosin cross bridges to actin.
    • release of myosin cross bridges from actin.
    • pumping of Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  80. Cardiac action potentials usually originate in ______________ cells
  81. Which of the following shortens in length during during skeletal muscle contraction?
    I band
  82. The movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex requires
  83. The _________ complex contains three proteins designated as the I, T, and C types.
  84. (T/F) Summation occurs in muscle cells when stimulus frequency increases to produce a greater force contraction.
  85. (T/F) Smooth muscle contraction requires the actions of myosin light chain kinase.
  86. The staircase effect or _____ represents a warm up effect due to increasing intracellular calcium concentrations
  87. An action potential enters a muscle cell ___
    by the T-tubules.
  88. What structures do the calcium ions bind to when muscle contraction is initiated?
    the troponin molecule.
  89. Cross bridges form between _________________.
    the actin filaments and the myosin heads.
  90. (T/F) An action potential introduced at the neuromuscular junction is propagated along the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  91. (T/F) In response to an action potential entering the muscle cell, calcium ions diffuse from the sarcolemma into the sarcoplasm.
  92. The sequence for smooth muscle contraction is...
    • increased cytosolic calcium, which binds to calmodulin in cytosol, complex binds with myosin light-chain kinase, which uses ATP to phosphorylate myosin cross-bridges, which
    • bind to actin filaments, resulting in contraction.
  93. The sequence for skeletal muscle contraction is...
    • increased cytosolic calcium, which binds to troponin, which moves tropomyosin from blocking active sites on actin filament, which binds with myosin cross-bridges, resulting in
    • contraction.
  94. Which of the following statements is true concerning calcium ions?
    in smooth muscle it binds with calmodulin.
  95. (T/F) Smooth muscle and skeletal muscle fibers both have their contractions triggered by calcium ions.
  96. (T/F) Both smooth muscle contractions and skeletal muscle contractions involve thin (actin) filaments sliding over the thick (myosin) filaments.
  97. During contraction of a muscle, calcium ions bind to...
    the troponin molecule.
  98. The bond between the actin and myosin head is broken when...
    an ATP molecule binds to the myosin head.
  99. Energy is released when...
    ATP is broken down into ADP and phosphate.
  100. (T/F) The sequence of cross bridge formation and myofilament movement will be repeated as long as calcium ions are present.
  101. (T/F) When cross bridges form and the muscle fibers contract, the actin myofilament slides past the myosin myofilament.
  102. Each actin filament is composed of ___
    two strands of actin molecules wrapped together.
  103. As actin and myosin filaments slide past each other during muscle contraction
    neither actin nor myosin filaments shorten.
  104. Which of the following statements about the "heads" of the myosin molecules is TRUE?
    they can attach to different sites on the actin filament
  105. (T/F) Each myosin protein has a globular head that extends outward from the myosin filament.
  106. (T/F) Unflexing of the myosin head requires ATP.
  107. Muscle contraction is caused by
    actin filaments sliding past myosin filaments.
  108. (T/F) The H zones contain only myosin, while the I bands contain only actin
  109. During muscle contraction the A band ______
    remains the same and the I band narrows.
  110. (T/F) In a contracting muscle the Z lines come closer together.
  111. (T/F) In a relaxed muscle, the H zone is at its narrowest width.
  112. A person who sprints for 45 seconds obtains most of their energy from
    muscle glycogen.
  113. What happens to the amount of muscle glycogen used for energy as exercise continues?
    it decreases
  114. Where are most plasma free fatty acids obtained from?
    hydrolysis of stored fat
  115. Prolonged immobility would ________
    increase the risk of blood clot formation
  116. Sickle cell disease is caused by
    a mutation
  117. Petechiae are a symptom of
  118. In edema
    tissues swell with fluid.
  119. Diapedesis is
    movements of white blood cells out of the circulation.
  120. Pus is composed of
    bacteria, white blood cells, and damaged cells.
  121. The red blood cells of type AB blood have on their surfaces
    antigens A and B.
  122. A primary function of lymphocytes is to
    act against foreign substances.
  123. Which of the following elements is included in hemoglobin molecules?
  124. Heme released from hemoglobin in aged red blood cells is decomposed in the liver into
    iron and the bile pigment biliverdin, which is eventually converted to bilirubin.
  125. As a result of starvation or a protein-deficient diet, blood protein concentration
    decreases and water accumulates in tissue spaces.
  126. A person with type AB blood can successfully receive blood from a person with type ___________ blood.
    A, B, O
  127. Describe the role of plasmin.
    Breaks down fibrin, dissolving the clot
  128. At what stage of erythopoiesis is the developing red blood cell released into the circulation?
  129. Which of the following is required for the formation of a blood clot?
    • Calcium
    • Fibrinogen
    • Vitamin K
  130. What is the difference between serum and plasma?
    Plasma contains fibrinogen; serum does not.
  131. Nonprotein nitrogenous substances include
    • amino acids
    • urea
    • creatinine
  132. The final step in the formation of a blood clot is
    that thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
  133. Prothrombin time is a blood test used to evaluate
    extrinsic clotting mechanism.
  134. A blood clot that forms abnormally in a blood vessel is a(n)
  135. Hematocrit is
    the percent of red blood cells in a blood sample.
  136. The release of tissue thromboplastin initiates
    the extrinsic clotting mechanism.
  137. Which is the correct sequence for differentiation of a red blood cell?
    Hematopoietic stem cell, erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte
  138. Name the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction that converts fibrinogen to fibrin
  139. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis are
    • prolonged periods of staying still in one position
    • use of oral contraceptives or estrogen
    • dehydration
  140. Chemicals released by damaged cells, white blood cells, and platelets act to attract white blood cells to the area.  This attraction is called
    positive chemotaxis
  141. Blood platelets
    • form from megakaryocytes
    • release serotonin
    • number from 150,000 - 450,000 per microliter blood
  142. Biliverdin and bilirubin are pigments that result from the breakdown of red blood cells. Biliverdin is ______ in color and bilirubin is ______ in color.
    greenish; orange
  143. Platelets are best described as
    cytoplasmic fragments of cells.
  144. Cyanosis is caused by an increased blood concentration of
  145. Define hemostasis.
    Process that stops bleeding
  146. Erythroblastosis fetalis may occur in
    • a second Rh-positive fetus developing in an
    • Rh-negative woman.
  147. (T/F) People who are Rh-negative will typically have anti-Rh antibodies in their blood.
  148. The typical life span of a red blood cell is:
    120 days
  149. In leukemia
    • the blood has too many immature leukocytes
    • the person has lowered resistance to infection
    • the blood has too few platelets
  150. Hydroxyurea treats sickle cell disease by
    activating production of hemoglobin normally produced only in a fetus.
  151. The risk of erythroblastosis fetalis occurs with:
    Rh- mom and Rh+ fetus
  152. What is a thrombocyte?
    a platelet
  153. Which of the following are most active as phagocytes?
  154. Name the formed element that is a cell fragment.
Card Set:
Physiology/Pathophysiology II Exam I
2014-02-10 02:08:43

Patho exam 1
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